Fundamentals of Nursing Practice
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing Practice introduces students to the essential principles, concepts, and skills that form the foundation of professional nursing. The course covers the nursing process, patient-centered care, basic physiological and psychological needs, communication techniques, and ethical standards. Students engage in both classroom learning and hands-on laboratory experiences to develop competence in performing basic nursing procedures, assessment techniques, infection control, and safety measures. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice to prepare students for safe and effective entry-level nursing care across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane W. Ball
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648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) When interviewing older adults, the examiner should:
A) speak extremely loudly, because most older adults have significant hearing impairment.
B) provide a written questionnaire in place of an interview.
C) position himself or herself facing the patient.
D) dim the lights to decrease anxiety.
Answer: C
Q2) Mr. Franklin is speaking with you, the healthcare provider, about his respiratory problem. Mr. Franklin says, "I've had this cough for 3 days, and it's getting worse." You reply, "Tell me more about your cough." Mr. Franklin states, "I wish I could tell you more. That's why I'm here. You tell me what's wrong!" Which caregiver response would be most appropriate for enhancing communication?
A) "After 3 days, you're tired of coughing. Have you had a fever?"
B) "I'd like to hear more about your experiences. Where were you born?"
C) "I don't know what's wrong. You could have almost any disease."
D) "I'll examine you and figure out later what the problem is."
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. L presents to the clinic with severe groin pain and a history of kidney stones. Mr. L's son tells you that for religious reasons, his father wishes to keep any stone that is passed into the urine filter that he has been using. What is your most appropriate response?
A) "With your father's permission, we will examine the stone and request that it be returned to him."
B) "The stone must be sent to the lab for examination and therefore cannot be kept."
C) "We cannot let him keep his stone because it violates our infection control policy."
D) "We don't know yet if your father has another kidney stone, so we must analyze this one."
Answer: A
Q2) The attitudes of the healthcare professional:
A) are largely irrelevant to the success of relationships with the patient.
B) do not influence patient behavior.
C) are difficult for the patient to sense.
D) are culturally derived.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of:
A) crepitus.
B) temperature.
C) texture.
D) vibration.
Answer: B
Q2) Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed:
A) anterior to the ear.
B) posterior to the ear.
C) under the ear.
D) in the auditory canal.
Answer: D
Q3) Which patient is at the highest risk for developing latex allergy?
A) The new patient who has no chronic illness and has never been hospitalized
B) The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries
C) The patient who is a vegetarian
D) The patient who is allergic to contrast dye
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-analysis assists providers in giving proper context to:
A) history and physical findings.
B) therapeutic options.
C) attitudes, values, and feelings.
D) differential diagnoses.
Q2) Utilitarianism can be described as:
A) balancing interests.
B) preventing harm.
C) choosing wisely.
D) doing good.
Q3) The adage that "common problems occur commonly" advises the practitioner to:
A) always diagnose the patient's problem in terms of what their practice usually sees.
B) refer any uncommon complaints to specialists as soon as possible.
C) not consider more than one diagnosis unless necessary.
D) examine uncommon problems critically before assuming that the issue is an unusual presentation of a common problem.
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Chapter 5: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A SOAP note is used in which type of recording system?
A) Preventive care
B) Problem oriented
C) Systems review
D) Traditional treatment
Q2) The effect of the chief complaint on the patient's lifestyle is recorded in which section of the medical record?
A) Chief complaint
B) History of present illness
C) Past medical history
D) Social history
Q3) Differential diagnoses belong in the:
A) history.
B) physical examination.
C) assessment.
D) plan.
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Joint Commission (TJC) requires that:
A) pain be assessed on all discharges.
B) repeated assessment of pain be limited to those patients who complain of pain.
C) repeated intensity documentation be made of the course of pain relief for all patients.
D) pain be assessed on surgical patients.
Q2) Which pulse characteristic in the neonate may indicate infection?
A) Bounding pulse rate
B) Regular pulse rate
C) Sustained high pulse rate
D) Intermittent slow pulse rate
Q3) The most frequent cause of serious hypertension in children is:
A) heart disease.
B) liver failure.
C) renal disease.
D) rheumatic fever.
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Chapter 7: Mental Status
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral neuropathy is most likely to be manifested by:
A) impaired memory.
B) impaired abstract reasoning.
C) impaired writing ability.
D) hallucinations.
Q2) Which observation would be most significant when assessing the condition of a patient who has judgment impairment?
A) Repeated failure to fulfill family obligations
B) Forgetting family members' birth dates
C) Going to church three times a week
D) Planning for retirement in 20 years
Q3) A 69-year-old truck driver presents with a sudden loss of the ability to understand spoken language. This indicates a lesion in the:
A) temporal lobe.
B) Broca area.
C) frontal cortex.
D) cerebellum.
Q4) The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is _________ old.
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Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) By 10 to 12 years of age, lymphatic tissues are about:
A) 25% of adult size.
B) 50% of adult size.
C) the same as adult size.
D) twice the size of those in the adult.
Q2) Skeletal mass and organ systems double in size during:
A) infancy.
B) early childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) early adulthood.
Q3) An 11-year-old boy is brought in for an annual physical examination by his mother. The boy's height is 60 inches. You suspect Marfan syndrome because the boy's arm span is greater than _______________ inches.
Q4) To measure head circumference, the tape is wrapped snugly around the child's head at the occipital protuberance and the:
A) supraorbital prominence.
B) brow line.
C) nasal bridge.
D) chin.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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Sample Questions
Q1) During history taking, a mother states that her son awoke in the middle of the night complaining of intense itching to his legs. Today, your inspection reveals a honey-colored exudate from the vesicular rash on his legs. Which condition is consistent with these findings?
A) Exanthem
B) Impetigo
C) Solar keratoses
D) Trichotillomania
Q2) The skin repairs surface wounds by:
A) exaggerating cell replacement.
B) excreting lactic acid.
C) producing vitamins.
D) providing a mechanical barrier.
Q3) The most common inflammatory skin condition is:
A) cutis marmorata.
B) eczematous dermatitis.
C) intradermal nevus.
D) pityriasis rosea.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding indicates that the examiner is assessing a blood vessel rather than a lymph node?
A) A bruit
B) Inflammation
C) Tenderness
D) Redness
Q2) Tender nodes associated with cat scratch disease are usually found in which area?
A) Epitrochlear area
B) Popliteal area
C) Axilla
D) Inguinal area
Q3) A red streak that follows the course of the lymphatic collecting duct is a finding associated with:
A) Hodgkin disease.
B) lymphangitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) lymphoma.
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thyroid gland should:
A) be slightly left of midline.
B) have a clear vascular sound.
C) move when the patient swallows.
D) tug with each heartbeat.
Q2) Which is the best way to position a patient's neck for palpation of the thyroid?
A) Flexed away from the side being examined
B) Flexed directly forward
C) Flexed toward the side being examined
D) Hyperextended directly backward
Q3) You are palpating a patient's thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left. These data would indicate:
A) a congenital anomaly.
B) a multinodular goiter.
C) a normal thyroid gland.
D) thyroiditis.
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13
Chapter 12: Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes seen in proliferative diabetic retinopathy are the result of:
A) anoxic stimulation.
B) macular damage.
C) papilledema.
D) minute hemorrhages.
Q2) A pterygium is more common in people heavily exposed to:
A) high altitudes.
B) tuberculosis.
C) ultraviolet light.
D) cigarette smoke.
Q3) Which maneuver can be done to reduce the systemic absorption of cycloplegic and mydriatic agents when examining a pregnant woman if the examination is mandatory?
A) Have the woman keep her eyes closed for several minutes.
B) Instill half the usual dosage.
C) Keep the patient supine, with her head turned and flexed.
D) Use nasolacrimal occlusion after instillation.
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Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) To approximate vocal frequencies, which tuning fork should be used to assess hearing?
A) 100 to 300 Hz
B) 200 to 400 Hz
C) 500 to 1000 Hz
D) 1500 to 2000 Hz
Q2) When conducting an adult otoscopic examination, you should:
A) position the patient's head leaning toward you.
B) grasp the handle of the otoscope as you would a baseball bat.
C) select the largest speculum that will fit in the canal.
D) ask the patient to keep his or her eyes closed.
Q3) A hairy tongue with yellowish brown to black elongated papillae on the dorsum:
A) is indicative of oral cancer.
B) is sometimes seen following antibiotic therapy.
C) usually indicates vitamin deficiency.
D) usually indicates anemia.
Q4) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of apnea requires immediate action?
A) Primary apnea
B) Secondary apnea
C) Sleep apnea
D) Periodic apnea of the newborn
Q2) Ms. Rudman, age 74 years, has no known health problems or diseases. You are doing a preventive healthcare history and examination. Which symptom is associated with intrathoracic infection?
A) Barrel chest
B) Cor pulmonale
C) Funnel chest
D) Malodorous breath
Q3) A 44-year-old male patient who complains of a cough has presented to the emergency department. He admits to smoking one pack per day. During your inspection of his chest, the most appropriate lighting source to highlight chest movement is:
A) bright tangential lighting.
B) daylight from a window.
C) flashlight in a dark room.
D) fluorescent ceiling lights.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient, who abuses intravenous (IV) drugs, has a sudden onset of fever and symptoms of congestive heart failure. Inspection of the skin reveals nontender erythematic lesions to the palms. These findings are consistent with the development of: A) rheumatic fever.
B) cor pulmonale.
C) pericarditis.
D) endocarditis.
Q2) If the apical impulse is more vigorous than expected, it is called a: A) lift.
B) thrill.
C) bruit.
D) murmur.
Q3) Mr. O, age 50 years, comes for his annual health assessment, which is provided by his employer. During your initial history-taking interview, Mr. O mentions that he routinely engages in light exercise. At this time, you should:
A) ask if he makes his own bed daily.
B) have the patient describe his exercise.
C) make a note that he walks each day.
D) record "light exercise" in the history.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the development of venous ulcers in older adults?
A) The major symptom is severe leg pain, especially when walking.
B) The affected leg is commonly pale and hairless, and pulses are difficult to palpate.
C) Diabetes, peripheral neuropathy, and nutritional deficiencies are causative factors.
D) The ulcers are generally located on the tips of toes.
Q2) To assess a patient's jugular veins, the patient should first be placed in which position?
A) Supine
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Upright
D) Left lateral recumbent
Q3) In children, coarctation of the aorta should be suspected if you detect:
A) a delay between the radial and femoral pulses.
B) a simultaneous radial and femoral pulse.
C) an absent femoral pulse on the left.
D) bilateral absence of femoral pulses.
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Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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Sample Questions
Q1) In patients with breast cancer, peau d'orange skin is often first evident:
A) in the axilla.
B) in the upper inner quadrant.
C) on or around the nipple.
D) at the inframammary ridge.
Q2) A firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40-year-old patient's breast. You should:
A) ask the patient if she has a history of breast cancer.
B) refer the patient to a surgeon.
C) ask the patient to have a mammogram as soon as possible.
D) record the finding in the patient's record.
Q3) A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your response to this finding is to:
A) instruct her that this is a side effect of birth control injection therapy.
B) suggest pregnancy testing.
C) question her use of tanning beds.
D) schedule an appointment with a surgeon.
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. James is 7 months' pregnant and states that she has developed a problem with constipation. She eats a well-balanced diet and is usually regular. You should explain that constipation is common during pregnancy because of changes in the colorectal areas, such as:
A) decreased movement through the colon and increased water absorption from the stool.
B) increased movement through the colon and increased salt taken from foods.
C) looser anal sphincter and fewer nutrients taken from foods.
D) tighter anal sphincter and less iron eliminated in the stool.
Q2) Mrs. Little is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the office with abdominal pain and fever. During your examination, you ask the patient to raise her head and shoulders while she lies in a supine position. A midline abdominal ridge rises. You document this observation as a(n):
A) small inguinal hernia.
B) large epigastric hernia.
C) abdominal lipoma.
D) diastasis recti.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) During sexual excitement, how is the vaginal introitus lubricated?
A) The Bartholin glands secrete mucus.
B) The clitoris produces moisture.
C) The Skene glands drain fluid.
D) The urethral surfaces secrete water.
Q2) Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?
A) Skene glands
B) Clitoris
C) Perineum
D) Bartholin glands
Q3) The assessment of which structure is not part of the bimanual examination?
A) Cervix
B) Bladder
C) Uterus
D) Ovaries
Q4) Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?
A) Endometriosis
B) Low parity
C) Multiple sex partners
D) Obesity
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cremasteric reflex should result in:
A) testicular and scrotal rise on the stroked side.
B) penile deviation to the left side.
C) bilateral elevation of the scrotum.
D) immediate erection of the penis.
Q2) Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?
A) Condyloma acuminatum
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Herpetic lesions
D) Lymphogranuloma venereum
Q3) On palpation, a normal vas deferens should feel:
A) beaded.
B) smooth.
C) ridged.
D) spongy.
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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Sample Questions
Q1) The caliber of the urinary stream is routine information in the history of:
A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) older adults.
D) sexually active young men.
Q2) Very light tan or gray stools may indicate:
A) upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) obstructive jaundice.
C) lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) polyposis.
Q3) Which finding in an infant may indicate lower spinal deformities?
A) Perirectal redness
B) Shrunken buttocks
C) Rectal prolapse
D) Dimpling in the pilonidal area
Q4) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening is controversial because:
A) there are many false-negative results.
B) PSA is produced by many other tissues.
C) it is less sensitive than digital rectal examination.
D) no data have proved that it decreases mortality.
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Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
A) irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B) supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C) joints are excessively lax.
D) there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.
Q2) A goniometer is used to assess:
A) bone maturity.
B) joint proportions.
C) range of motion.
D) muscle strength.
Q3) The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the:
A) ball-and-socket.
B) condyloid.
C) gliding.
D) saddle.
Q4) A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is (are):
A) swan neck deformities.
B) Bouchard nodes.
C) ganglions.
D) Heberden nodes.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tests for cortical sensory function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Two-point discrimination
B) Extinction phenomenon
C) Superficial pain
D) Stereognosis
E) Touch
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a:
A) nerve impulse transmitter.
B) red blood cell conveyer.
C) shock absorber.
D) mediator of voluntary skeletal movement.
Q3) The ability to recognize a number traced on the skin is called:
A) stereognosis.
B) graphesthesia.
C) an extinction phenomenon.
D) two-point discrimination.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:
A) performing push-ups.
B) duck walking.
C) twisting at the waist.
D) crossing the arms over the chest.
Q2) Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her:
A) sleep patterns.
B) salt intake.
C) aerobic workouts.
D) menstrual cycles.
Q3) Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
A) Asthma
B) Fever
C) Controlled seizures
D) HIV-positive status
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26
Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:
A) "Let's get to the point."
B) "I hope you will learn to trust me."
C) "Let me tell you what I can do for you."
D) "Tell me about yourself."
Q2) To promote a child's cooperation during your examination, your approach to the examination should be to:
A) ask the parent to give the child a bottle during the examination.
B) sing songs with the child during the examination.
C) conduct the physical examination on the child while the parent is holding the child.
D) let the child play with examination room equipment to feel more comfortable.
Q3) The examiner should develop a demeanor that is exemplified by which one of the following behaviors?
A) Exhibits visible distaste about the condition.
B) Gives immediate reassurances to the patient.
C) Gives patient unsolicited advice.
D) Validates the patient's justified concerns.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Cushing triad includes:
A) tachycardia.
B) irregular respirations.
C) tachypnea.
D) constricted pupils.
Q2) Pulsus paradoxus greater than 20 mm Hg, tachycardia greater than 130 beats/min, and increasing dyspnea are signs of:
A) intracranial pressure.
B) pulmonary hypertension.
C) status asthmaticus.
D) tetanic contractions.
Q3) You would complete a Glasgow Coma Scale rating during the:
A) health history.
B) physical examination.
C) primary survey.
D) secondary survey.
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