Fundamentals of Nursing
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential concepts, skills, and attitudes required for entry-level nursing practice. The course covers foundational principles such as infection control, patient safety, vital signs assessment, communication techniques, and ethical and legal considerations in nursing care. Students will develop a strong understanding of the nursing process, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice, while practicing basic care procedures in both laboratory and clinical settings. Emphasis is placed on holistic patient care, cultural competence, and the development of professional behaviors necessary for effective collaboration within the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts for Nursing Practice 2nd Edition by Giddens
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58 Chapters
459 Verified Questions
459 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/174
Page 2
Chapter 1: Development
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2322
Sample Questions
Q1) To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as A) cerebral palsy. B) autism.
C) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
D) failure to thrive.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile when the new nurse responds that it is used to assess for needs related to A) anticipatory guidance.
B) low-risk adolescents.
C) physical development.
D) sexual development.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Functional Ability
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bathes daily
A)for instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
B)for basic activities of daily living (BADLs)
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with a mobility dysfunction and wants to gain insight into the patient's functional ability. What question would be the most appropriate?
A) "Are you able to shop for yourself?"
B) "Do you use a cane, walker, or wheelchair to ambulate?"
C) "Do you know what today's date is?"
D) "Were you sad or depressed more than once in the last 3 days?"
Answer: B
Q3) Cleans the house
A)for instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
B)for basic activities of daily living (BADLs)
Answer: A
Q4) Takes medications as prescribed
A)for instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
B)for basic activities of daily living (BADLs)
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Family Dynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate initial nursing intervention when the nurse notes dysfunctional interactions and lack of family support for a patient would be to
A) enforce hospital visiting policies.
B) monitor the dysfunctional interactions.
C) notify the primary care provider.
D) role model appropriate support.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient would identify a need for additional interventions related to family dynamics when
A) extended family offers to help.
B) family members express concern.
C) the ill member demands attention.
D) memories are shared.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Understanding cultural differences in health care is important because it will help the nurse to understand the manner in which people decide on obtaining treatments and medical care. In independent cultures an individual will
A) put himself first.
B) consult family members for advice.
C) ask for a second opinion.
D) travel great distances to receive the best care.
Q2) When teaching an Asian patient with newly diagnosed diabetes, the nurse notes the patient nodding yes to everything that is being said. With a better understanding of cultural interdependence in self-Chapter, a nurse should immediately
A) write everything down for the patient to refer to later.
B) prompt further to elicit additional questions or concerns.
C) call the recognized elder for this patient.
D) call the oldest male relative for help with decision making.
Q3) What interrelated constructs facilitate a nurse to become culturally competent?
A) Cultural diversity, self-awareness, cultural skill, and cultural knowledge
B) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural identity
C) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural diversity
D) Cultural desire, self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and cultural skill
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Spirituality
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient uses rosary beads and attends mass once a week. This expression of spirituality is best described with which term?
A) Religiosity
B) Faith
C) Belief
D) Authenticity
Q2) The nurse recognizes that which life events can be spiritually life changing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Births
B) Weddings
C) Medical diagnoses
D) Career day to day job duties
E) Loss of independence
Q3) When conducting a spiritual assessment of a hospitalized patient, the nurse should remain aware of which potential barrier to effective communication?
A) Clarifying the meaning of a patient's statement
B) Multi-tasking while talking to the patient
C) Listening to patients' complete statements
D) Discussing patient's feelings while hospitalized
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Chapter 6: Adherence
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the nurse implements a teaching plan for a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension, the patient can explain the information but fails to take the medications as prescribed. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Reeducate the patient, because learning did not occur because the patient's behavior did not change.
B) Assess the patient's perception and attitude towards the risks associated with not taking their anti-hypertensives.
C) Take full responsibility for helping the patient make dietary changes.
D) Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication, because the patient does not want to take this medication.
Q2) A 73-year-old male patient is seen in the home setting for a routine physical. The nurse notes which behavior as the most reassuring sign that the patient has been following the treatment plan for the diagnoses of hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?
A) The patient has a list of glucose readings for the past 10 days.
B) The patient has a list of medications along with newly refilled meds.
C) The patient has a list of all foods and beverages for a 3-day period.
D) The patient verbalizes the side effects of all his medications.
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Chapter 7: Self-Management
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is developing a plan of care for a newly diagnosed hypertensive patient who is being discharged on medications and given the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet to follow. What statement by the patient signals to the nurse that the patient is motivated to learn?
A) "I am sure the medications will help to bring down my blood pressure."
B) "I can't wait to try the new recipes, and I'm hopeful I will lose weight."
C) "Do I really need to follow the diet and take medications?"
D) "I have my parents to blame for this. They both have high blood pressure."
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's readiness to be discharged and ability to manage care at home. What is the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask to determine the patient's learning needs before planning teaching activities?
A) "What are your hobbies and occupation?"
B) "What do you need to know before you go home from the hospital?"
C) "Do you have any cultural or religious beliefs that you would like incorporated into your plan of care?"
D) "What were your grades and learning style when you were in school?"
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9
Chapter 8: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of acute immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who has chronic diarrhea. Which assessments should the nurse use to detect the fluid and electrolyte imbalances for which the patient has high risk? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bilateral ankle edema
B) Weaker leg muscles than usual
C) Postural blood pressure and heart rate
D) Positive Trousseau's sign
E) Flat neck veins when upright
F) Decreased patellar reflexes
Q2) At change-of-shift report, the nurse learns the medical diagnoses for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess most carefully for development of hyponatremia?
A) Vomiting all day and not replacing any fluid
B) Tumor that secretes excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Tumor that secretes excessive aldosterone
D) Tumor that destroyed the posterior pituitary gland
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Chapter 9: Acid-Base Balance
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is making a home visit to a child who has a chronic disease. Which finding has the greatest implication for acid-base aspects of this patient's care?
A) Urine output is very small today.
B) Whites of the eyes appear more yellow.
C) Skin around the mouth is very chapped.
D) Skin is sweaty under three blankets.
Q2) The patient has severe hyperthyroidism and will have surgery tomorrow. What assessment is most important for the nurse to assess in order to detect development of the acid-base imbalance for which the patient has highest risk?
A) Urine output and color
B) Level of consciousness
C) Heart rate and blood pressure
D) Lung sounds in lung bases
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11
Chapter 10: Thermoregulation
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8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse admitting a patient to the emergency department on a very hot summer day would suspect hyperthermia when the patient demonstrates which assessment finding?
A) Decreased respirations
B) Low pulse rate
C) Red, sweaty skin
D) Slow capillary refill
Q2) During orientation to an emergency department, the nurse educator would be concerned if the new nurse listed which of the following as a risk factor for impaired thermoregulation?
A) Impaired cognition
B) Occupational exposure
C) Physical agility
D) Temperature extremes
Q3) What is the priority nursing action for a patient suspected to be hypothermic?
A) Assess vital signs.
B) Hydrate with intravenous (IV) fluids.
C) Provide a warm blanket.
D) Remove wet clothes.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Sleep
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7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that he experiences daytime fatigue even after 7-8 hours of sleep each night. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
A) Have you tried getting 10 hours of sleep instead of 8 hours?
B) How long are you in the rapid eye movement (REM) stage?
C) Do you also have any recent lifestyle or behavior changes?
D) Do any of your close relatives have any sleep disorders?
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with tonsillar enlargement. What is the nurse's priority concern?
A) Low oxygen saturation
B) Daytime fatigue
C) Increased temperature
D) Antibiotic administration
Q3) A mother tells the nurse she is concerned because her 8 month old infant sleeps all day and night and is only awake about 2-3 hours per day. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "This sleep pattern is very normal for an infant at this age."
B) "Adding an additional feeding will keep the child awake more."
C) "I recommend that you notify the child's pediatrician."
D) "Be sure you are laying the child on his back to sleep at night."
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cellular Regulation
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female patient complains of a "scab that just won't heal" under her left breast. During your conversation, she also mentions chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, and slight cough, attributed to allergies. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns.
B) End the appointment and tell the patient to use skin protection during sun exposure.
C) Suggest further testing with a cancer specialist and provide the appropriate literature.
D) Tell her to put a bandage on the scab and set a follow-up appointment in one week.
Q2) A cancer patient's susceptibility to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) can be suspected with which of the following laboratory results?
A) Serum potassium of 5.2 mmol/L
B) Serum sodium of 120 mmol/L
C) Hematocrit of 40%
D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 10 mg/dL
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Chapter 13: Intracranial Regulation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should teach a patient that which is a primary prevention strategy to reduce the occurrence of head injuries?
A) Blood pressure control
B) Smoking cessation
C) Maintaining a healthy weight
D) Violence prevention
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Which action is considered unsafe?
A) Aligning the neck with the body
B) Clustering many nursing activities
C) Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees
D) Providing stool softeners or laxatives as ordered
Q3) After shunt procedure, the nurse would monitor the patient's neurologic status by using which test?
A) Electroencephalogram
B) Glasgow Coma Scale
C) National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale
D) Monro-Kellie doctrine
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15
Chapter 14: Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the emergency room complaining of vomiting with severe back and leg pain. The patient's home medications include daily oral corticosteroids. Vital signs reveal a low blood pressure and there are peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A) Start an intravenous line
B) Collect urine specimen
C) Administer antiemetic
D) Administer narcotic analgesia
Q2) Which important teaching point should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with Cushing's disease?
A) Daily weight using same scale
B) Wash hands frequently
C) Use exfoliating soaps when bathing
D) Avoid yearly influenza vaccine
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16
Chapter 15: Glucose Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse associates which assessment finding in the diabetic patient with decreasing renal function?
A) Ketone bodies in the urine during acidosis
B) Glucose in the urine during hyperglycemia
C) Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis
D) White blood cells in the urine during a random urinalysis
Q2) The nurse instructs a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus to avoid which of the following drugs while taking insulin?
A) Furosemide (Lasix)
B) Dicumarol (Bishydroxycoumarin)
C) Reserpine (Serpasil)
D) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Q3) A diabetic patient is brought into the emergency department unresponsive. The arterial pH is 7.28. Besides the blood pH, which clinical manifestation is seen in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis?
A) Decreased hunger sensation
B) Report of no urine output
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Decreased thirst
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a patient with hypertension. What foods would be recommended for this patient?
A) Regular diet
B) Low sodium diet
C) Pureed diet
D) Low sugar diet
Q2) The nurse is assisting a 79-year-old patient with information about diet and weight loss. The patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 31. How should the nurse instruct this patient?
A) "Your weight is within normal limits. Continue maintaining with current lifestyle choices."
B) "You are a little overweight. Cut down on calories and increase your activity, and you should be fine."
C) "You are morbidly obese, and we would like to schedule you an appointment to speak with a bariatric specialist about surgery."
D) "You are considered obese and will need to consult with your doctor about a plan that includes exercises, not diet, to decrease weight."
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18
Chapter 17: Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury and is concerned about the patient's elimination status. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Speak with the patient's family about food choices.
B) Establish a bowel and bladder program for the patient.
C) Speak with the patient about past elimination habits.
D) Establish a bedtime ritual for the patient.
Q2) What is a primary prevention tool used for colon cancer screening?
A) Abdominal x-rays
B) Blood, urea, and nitrogen (BUN) testing
C) Serum electrolytes
D) Occult blood testing
Q3) A patient who was diagnosed with senile dementia has become incontinent of urine. The patient's daughter asks the nurse why this is happening. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The patient is angry about the dementia diagnosis."
B) "The patient is losing sphincter control due to the dementia."
C) "The patient forgets where the bathroom is located due to the dementia."
D) "The patient wants to leave the hospital."
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with hypertension asks the nurse how this disease could have happened to them. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Hypertension happens to everyone sooner or later. Don't be concerned about it."
B) "Hypertension can happen from eating a poor diet, so change what you are eating."
C) "Hypertension can happen from arterial changes that block the blood flow."
D) "Hypertension happens when people do not exercise, so you should walk every day."
Q2) The nurse is conducting a patient assessment. The patient tells the nurse that he has smoked two packs of cigarettes per day for 27 years. The nurse may find which data upon assessment?
A) Elevated blood pressure
B) Bounding pedal pulses
C) Night blindness
D) Reflux disease
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Chapter 19: Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assigned a group of patients. Which patient finding would the nurse identify as a factor leading to increased risk for impaired gas exchange?
A) Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
B) Anticoagulant therapy for 10 days
C) Hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL
D) Heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/60
Q2) The acid-base status of a patient is dependent on normal gas exchange. Which patient would the nurse identify as having an increased risk for the development of respiratory acidosis?
A) Chronic lung disease with increased carbon dioxide retention
B) Acute anxiety, hyperventilation, and decreased carbon dioxide retention
C) Decreased cardiac output with increased serum lactic acid production
D) Gastric drainage with increased removal of gastric acid
Q3) Which patient finding would the nurse identify as being a risk factor for altered transport of oxygen?
A) Hemoglobin level of 8.0
B) Bronchoconstriction and mucus
C) Peripheral arterial disease
D) Decreased thoracic expansion
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Clotting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient on a medical surgical unit has a platelet count of 90,000 per mm³. The nurse knows to include which of the following precautions in discharge instructions?
A) Use a standard safety razor for shaving.
B) Use a soft bristle toothbrush.
C) Have aggressive dental care immediately to prevent dental caries.
D) Do not eat fresh fruit.
Q2) A patient states that his legs have pain with walking that decreases with rest. The nurse observes absence of hair on the patient's lower leg and the patient has a thready, posterior tibial pulse. How would the nurse position the patient's legs?
A) Elevated
B) Crossed at the knee
C) Slightly bent with a pillow under the knees
D) Dependent position
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22
Chapter 21: Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A female college student is planning to become sexually active. She is considering birth control options and desires a method in which ovulation will be prevented. To prevent ovulation while reaching 99% effectiveness in preventing pregnancy, which option should be given the strongest consideration?
A) Intrauterine device
B) Coitus interruptus
C) Natural family planning
D) Oral contraceptive pills
Q2) The nurse is admitting a prenatal patient for diagnostic testing. While eliciting the psychosocial history, the nurse learns the patient smokes a pack of cigarettes daily, drinks a cup of cappuccino with breakfast, has smoked marijuana in the remote past, and is a social drinker. Which action should the nurse first take?
A) Strongly advise immediate tobacco cessation
B) Elimination of all caffeinated beverages
C) Serum and urine testing for drug use and alcohol use
D) Referral to a 12-step program
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Chapter 22: Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements related to sexual dysfunction are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A) Biological factors play a more significant role than psychologic factors.
B) Sexual dysfunction is more prevalent among men than women.
C) The best predictor of sexual health is emotional well-being.
D) The patient with sexual dysfunction is at risk for anxiety and depression.
E) Sexual dysfunction remains uncommon.
Q2) When assessing high-risk behaviors, which question specifically identifies a blood-related risk for a sexually transmitted infection?
A) "Have you ever received donor semen, eggs, or transplanted tissue?"
B) "Have you ever exchanged sex for drugs, money, or shelter?"
C) "How do you protect yourself from HIV and sexually transmitted infections?"
D) "Have you ever injected drugs using shared equipment?"
Q3) A 37-year-old heterosexual African-American man has come for his annual health screening. Which test must the nurse ensure is ordered for this patient?
A) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
B) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
C) HIV
D) Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL)
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Chapter 23: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 18-month-old female patient is diagnosed with her fifth ear infection in the past 10 months. The physician notes that the child's growth rate has decreased from the 60th percentile for height and weight to the 15th percentile over that same time period. The child has been treated for thrush consistently since the third ear infection. The nurse understands that the patient is at risk for which condition?
A) Primary immunodeficiency
B) Secondary immunodeficiency
C) Cancer
D) Autoimmunity
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who was started on intravenous antibiotic therapy earlier in the shift. As the second dose is being infused, the patient reports feeling dizzy and having difficulty breathing and talking. The nurse notes that the patient's respirations are 26 breaths/min with a weak pulse of 112 beats/min. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing which condition?
A) Suppressed immune response
B) Hyperimmune response
C) Allergic reaction
D) Anaphylactic reaction
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25
Chapter 24: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is instructing her patient with ulcerative colitis regarding the need to avoid enteric coated medications. The nurse knows that the patient understands the reason for this teaching when he states which of the following?
A) "The coating on these medications is irritating to my intestines."
B) "I need a more immediate response from my medications than can be obtained from enteric coated medications."
C) "Enteric coated medications are absorbed lower in the digestive tract and can be irritating to my intestines or inadequately absorbed by my inflamed tissue."
D) "I don't need to use these medications because they cause diarrhea, and I have had enough trouble with diarrhea and rectal bleeding over the past weeks."
Q2) The nurse reviews the patient's complete blood count (CBC) results and notes that the neutrophil levels are elevated, but monocytes are still within normal limits. This indicates what type of inflammatory response?
A) Chronic
B) Resolved
C) Early stage acute
D) Late stage acute
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Chapter 25: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosed case of Clostridium difficile. The nurse expects to implement which of the following interventions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administration of protease inhibitors
B) Use of personal protective equipment
C) Patient teaching on methods to inhibit transmission
D) Preventing visitors from entering the room
E) Administration of intravenous fluids
F) Strict monitoring of intake and output
Q2) Individuals of low socioeconomic status are at an increased risk for infection because of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Uninsured or underinsured status
B) Easy access to health screenings
C) High cost of medications
D) Inadequate nutrition
E) Mostly female gender
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27
Chapter 26: Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older patient is talking with the nurse about hip fractures. The patient would like to know the best approach to strengthen the bones. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Walk at least 5 miles every day for exercise."
B) "Wear proper fitting shoes to prevent tripping."
C) "Talk with your physician about a calcium supplement."
D) "Stand up slowly so you don't feel faint."
Q2) A patient who has been in the hospital for several weeks is about to be discharged. The patient is weak from the hospitalization and asks the nurse to explain why this is happening. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Your iron level is low. This is known as anemia."
B) "Your immobility in the hospital is known as deconditioning."
C) "Your poor appetite is known as malnutrition."
D) "Your medications have caused drug induced weakness."
Q3) The lack of weight bearing leads to what effects on the skeletal system?
A) Demineralization, calcium loss
B) Thickened bones
C) Increased range of motion
D) Increased calcium deposition in the bones
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28
Chapter 27: Tissue Integrity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has cellulitis on the right forearm. The nurse would anticipate orders to administer medications to eradicate which organism?
A) Candida albicans
B) Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) E. Coli
Q2) A patient in the outpatient setting was diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. What interventions will the plan of care focus primarily on?
A) Decreasing pain
B) Decreasing pruritus
C) Preventing infection
D) Promoting drying of lesions
Q3) The nurse is instructing the nursing assistant to prevent pressure ulcers in a frail older patient. Which action indicates the nursing assistant has understood the nurse's teaching?
A) Bathing and drying the skin vigorously to stimulate circulation
B) Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
C) Limiting intake of fluid and offer frequent snacks
D) Turning the patient at least every 2 hours
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Chapter 28: Sensory Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing health teaching to a group of mothers of school-aged children. Which statement by a mother indicates the need for additional instruction?
A) "I will take my child to the audiologist because he doesn't seem to hear me except when I look directly at him."
B) "Both of my children have the same eye medication, which is a real bonus, because I only need to buy one bottle."
C) "Making my child wear ear plugs when she goes to a rock concert may save her hearing!"
D) "I see now why when my child has a cold, he complains about everything tasting blah!"
Q2) During the examination of the ear, a dark yellow substance is noted in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is not visible. The patient's wife complains that he never hears what she says lately. These findings would suggest that the nurse prepare the patient for which procedure?
A) Tympanoplasty
B) Irrigation of the ear
C) Pure tone test
D) Otoscopic exam by a specialist
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Chapter 29: Pain
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Q1) A 30-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. He is in acute pain described as a 10/10, which is localized to the abdomen, periumbilical area, and some radiation to his back. The abdomen is grossly distended so it is difficult to assess. He is restless and agitated, with elevated pulse and blood pressure. An appropriate pain management plan of care may include which medication(s)?
A) IV Dilaudid q 4 hours prn, hydrocodone 5/500 PO q 6 hours prn, and acetaminophen
B) Norco 5/500 q 4 hours PO and Benadryl 25 mg PO q 6 hours
C) Phenergan 25 mg IM q 6 hours
D) Tylenol 325 mg q 6 hours
Q2) A 62-year-old male has fallen while trimming tree branches sustaining tissue injury. He describes his condition as an aching, throbbing back. This is characteristic of what type of pain?
A) Neuropathic pain
B) Nociceptive pain
C) Chronic pain
D) Mixed pain syndrome
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Chapter 30: Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occupational health nurse is making rounds in a factory. Which employees need further education about energy conservation strategies?
A) Workers reaching up to high shelf often to obtain cleaning supplies
B) Workers bending over to lift boxes onto conveyer belt
C) Workers who have delegated out parts of their activities
D) Workers standing for long periods
E) Workers standing at desks at waist level
Q2) Based on the significant effects of chronic idiopathic fatigue, what is the nurse's priority assessment?
A) Cholesterol level and lipid profile
B) Creatinine and BUN levels
C) Memory loss testing
D) Mental health evaluation
Q3) A patient with chronic kidney disease is most likely to complain of which symptom?
A) Fatigue
B) Thirst
C) Constipation
D) Excess bleeding
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Chapter 31: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has not been sleeping well because he is worried about losing his job and not being able to support his family. The nurse takes the patient's vital signs and notes a pulse rate of 112 beats/min, respirations are 26 breaths/min, and his blood pressure is 166/88 instead his usual 110-120/76-84 range. Which nursing intervention or recommendation should be used first?
A) Go to sleep 30 to 60 minutes earlier each night to increase rest.
B) Relax by spending more time playing with his pet dog.
C) Slow and deepen breathing via use of a positive, repeated word.
D) Consider that a new job might be better than his present one.
Q2) A patient tells the nurse "My doctor thinks my problems with stress relate to the negative way I think about things, and he wants me to learn a new way of thinking." Which response would be in keeping with the doctor's recommendations?
A) Teaching the patient to recognize, reconsider, and reframe irrational thoughts
B) Encouraging the patient to imagine being in calming circumstances
C) Teaching the patient to use instruments that give feedback about bodily functions
D) Provide the patient with a blank journal and guidance about journaling
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33
Chapter 32: Coping
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing the care plan for a patient experiencing difficulty coping with stress. The nurse recognizes that an example of initiating a cognitive restructuring intervention to enhance coping abilities is known as which of the following?
A) Identifying the cause of fear
B) Accessing a community support group
C) Identifying relaxation methods
D) Reviewing an educational pamphlet
Q2) The nurse has been asked to administer a coping measurement instrument to a patient. What education would the nurse present to the patient related to this tool?
A) "This tool will let us compare your stress to other patients in the hospital."
B) "This tool is short because it only measures the negative stressors you are experiencing."
C) "You will need to ask your parents about stressors you had as a child to complete this tool."
D) "This tool will help assess recent positive and negative events you are experiencing."
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Chapter 33: Mood and Affect
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Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with depression is scheduled for cognitive therapy in addition to receiving prescribed antidepressant medication. The nurse understands that the goal of cognitive therapy will be met when what is reported by the patient?
A) "I will tell myself that I am a good person when things don't go well at work."
B) "My medications will make my problems go away."
C) "My family will help take care of my children while I am in the hospital."
D) "This therapy will improve my response to neurotransmitter impulses."
Q2) A patient has been resistant to treatment with antidepressant therapy. The care provider prescribes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) medication. What teaching is critical for the nurse to give the patient?
A) Serum blood levels must be regularly monitored to assess for toxicity.
B) To prevent side effects, the medication should be administered as an intramuscular injection.
C) Eating foods such as blue cheese or red wine will cause side effects.
D) This medication class may only be used safely for a few days at a time.
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Chapter 34: Anxiety
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Q1) The nurse knows that which of the following medical conditions are most commonly associated with anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cancer
B) Pancreatitis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Dysrhythmias
E) Encephalitis
F) Hyperthyroidism
Q2) The nurse is teaching a hospitalized patient to use mindfulness to reduce anxiety. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "How do you feel about what happened to you as a child?"
B) "How do you feel about what is going on right now?"
C) "Remember a time when you were calm."
D) "Tap your hands until the feeling goes away."
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Chapter 35: Cognition
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Q1) A nurse working in a pediatric clinic recognizes that which child is most at risk for cognitive impairment?
A) An infant who is being fed reconstituted powdered formula
B) A toddler living in an older home that is being remodeled
C) A preschooler who attends a play group 3 days a week
D) A school-age child who rides a school bus 5 days a week
Q2) A patient who is dehydrated has been experiencing confusion. The daughter is concerned about taking the patient home in a confused state. What statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Don't worry; the patient should be fine once they are in a familiar environment."
B) "I can make a referral for a home health aide to assist with the patient."
C) "Once the dehydration is corrected, the patient's confusion should improve."
D) "I can show you how to care for the patient once you return home."
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Chapter 36: Psychosis
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Q1) A client previously diagnosed as psychotic expresses to the nurse that he is seeing spiders climbing up the walls in his room and he is concerned that they will get into his bed. What is the nurse's best response?
A) Ignore his remarks and remain silent when providing care.
B) Express doubt that there are spiders on the wall.
C) Ask the client if he also sees spiders in the day room.
D) Tell the client there are no spiders and he should stop worrying about it.
Q2) Clients who are psychotic because of underlying psychiatric illness are treated with antipsychotic medications. Typical antipsychotic medications can improve positive symptoms in clients with schizophrenia. Positive symptoms include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hallucinations
B) Disorganized speech and behavior
C) Anhedonia
D) Delusions
E) Agitation
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Chapter 37: Addiction
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient using the CAGE Questionnaire. The patient answers yes to all of the questions. The nurse suspects alcoholism and feels the patient is in denial when the patient makes which statement?
A) "I go to meetings once a day and still drink."
B) "My family and friends have been avoiding me lately."
C) "I don't have a problem with alcohol. I can quit anytime I want to."
D) "I know it will be hard to quit, but I am willing to try."
Q2) A patient who was admitted 24 hours ago has become increasingly irritable and now says there are bugs on his bed. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Alcohol-induced psychosis
B) Delirium tremens (DTs)
C) Neurologic injury related to a fall
D) Posttraumatic stress reaction
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Chapter 38: Interpersonal Violence
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department who has been a victim of intimate partner violence. What is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
A) Medication to calm the perpetrator of the violence
B) A list of community resources
C) A referral for self-defense training
D) A referral to the victim's religious advisor
Q2) The nurse working at a women's health clinic is seeing a teenage female patient who has come in for a refill on her birth control medication and with a complaint of abdominal pain. When the nurse enters the room, the patient is sitting in the chair with her head down, rocking back and forth, does not make eye contact, and answers questions with no expression on her face. What assessment question would be important for the nurse to ask the patient?
A) "What brings you to the clinic today?"
B) "What can we do to help you today?"
C) "Do you feel safe in your current relationship?"
D) "Have you changed your diet lately?"
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Professional Identity
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Q1) The scope of professional nursing practice is determined by the rules promulgated by which organization?
A) American Nurses' Association (ANA)
B) Institute of Medicine (IOM)
C) State Board of Nursing
D) State Nursing Association
Q2) What nursing recommendations are published in the Institute of Medicine (IOM's) report The future of nursing: Leading change, advancing health?
A) Teach, advocate, assess, and nurture.
B) Should have a graduate degree to practice.
C) Diagnose and recommend treatments.
D) Must have continuing education.
Q3) The qualities of leadership, clinical expertise and judgment, mentorship, and lifelong learning would best describe which type of nurse?
A) Administrator
B) Certified nurse specialist
C) Practitioner
D) Professional
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Chapter 40: Clinical Judgment
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Q1) The nurse is implementing a plan of care for a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The plan includes educating the patient about diet choices. The patient states that they enjoy exercising and understand the need to diet; however, they can't see living without chocolate on a daily basis. Using the principles of responding in the Model of Clinical Judgment, how would the nurse proceed with the teaching?
A) The nurse explains to the patient that chocolate has a high glycemic index. The nurse then focuses on foods that have low glycemic indexes and provides a list for the patient to choose from.
B) The nurse explains that the patient may eat whatever they would like as long as the patient's glucose reading and A1c remain stable.
C) The nurse derives a new nursing diagnosis of Knowledge Deficit and readjusts the plan of care to include additional sessions with the registered dietician.
D) The nurse examines the patient's daily glucose log and incorporates the snack into the time of day that has the lowest readings. The nurse then follows up and evaluates the response in 1 week.
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Chapter 41: Leadership
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Q1) According to situational and contingency theory, which statement is true?
A) The theory challenges the concept that one leadership style is always best.
B) The theory supports employee feelings, morale, and feedback during the change process.
C) Motivation through inspiration and recognition is the focus for transforming employee behavior.
D) A leader is someone who possesses great intelligence and decision-making authority.
Q2) The nurse who is certified as a Critical Care Registered Nurse (CCRN) represents the unit on the organizational performance improvement team. This is an example of which type of leadership?
A) Formal
B) Unit
C) Organizational
D) Informal
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Chapter 42: Ethics
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Q1) An unconscious patient is treated in the emergency department for head trauma. The patient is unconscious and on life support for 2 weeks prior to making a full recovery. The initial actions of the medical team are based on which ethical principle?
A) Utilitarianism
B) Deontology
C) Autonomy
D) Veracity
Q2) A patient suffered a brain injury from a motor vehicle accident and has no brain activity. The patient has a living will which states no heroic measures. The family requests that no additional heroic measures be instituted for their son. The nurse respects this decision in keeping with which principle?
A) Accountability
B) Autonomy
C) Nonmaleficence
D) Veracity
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44
Chapter 43: Patient Education
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Q1) The nurse educator would identify a need for further teaching when the student lists which example as a type of learning?
A) Affective
B) Cognitive
C) Psychomotor
D) Self-directed
Q2) Barriers to patient education the nurse considers in implementing a teaching plan include which factor?
A) Family resources
B) High school education
C) Hunger and pain
D) Need perceived by patient
Q3) When describing patient education approaches, the nurse educator would explain that informal teaching is an approach that involves which quality?
A) Addresses group needs
B) Follows formalized plans
C) Has standardized content
D) Often occurs one-to-one
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Chapter 44: Health Promotion
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Q1) When teaching a patient with a family history of hypertension about health promotion, the nurse describes blood pressure screening as which type of prevention?
A) Illness
B) Primary
C) Secondary
D) Tertiary
Q2) Interrelated Chapters to professional nursing a nurse manager would consider when addressing concerns about the quality of health promotion include which Chapters? (Select all that apply.)
A) Culture
B) Development
C) Evidence
D) Nutrition
E) Health policy
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Chapter 45: Communication
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Q1) A patient states, "I had a bad nightmare. When I woke up, I felt emotionally drained, as though I hadn't rested well." Which response by the nurse would be an example of interpersonal therapeutic communication?
A) "It sounds as though you were uncomfortable with the content of your dream."
B) "I understand what you're saying. Bad dreams leave me feeling tired, too."
C) "So, all in all, you feel as though you had a rather poor night's sleep?"
D) "Can you give me an example of what you mean by a 'bad nightmare'?"
Q2) The nurse is seeking clarification of a statement that was made by a patient. What is the best way for the nurse to seek clarification?
A) "What are the common elements here?"
B) "Tell me again about your experiences."
C) "Am I correct in understanding that "
D) "Tell me everything from the beginning."
Q3) The nurse and the patient are conversing face to face. What communication technique is being demonstrated?
A) Linguistic
B) Paralinguistic
C) Explicit
D) Metacommunication
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Collaboration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with a progressive, degenerative muscle illness. The patient states that she would like to remain in her home with her daughter as long as possible. What action should the nurse take?
A) Teach the patient muscle strengthening and stretching exercises.
B) Tell the patient to make plans to move to an assisted-living facility.
C) Discuss resources to help the patient and make appropriate referrals.
D) Ask the patient to come in for daily physical therapy.
Q2) A newly licensed nurse is assigned to an experienced nurse for training on a medical unit of a hospital. What type of nurse-to-nurse collaboration does this assignment demonstrate?
A) Interprofessional
B) Shared governance
C) Interorganizational
D) Mentoring
Q3) Which statement correctly describes the nurses' role in collaboration?
A) State boards of nursing mandate that collaboration can only occur in hospitals.
B) Collaboration should occur only with physicians.
C) Collaboration occurs only between nurses with the same level of education.
D) Collaboration may occur in health-related research.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Safety
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Q1) A sentinel event refers to which situation?
A) An event that could have harmed a patient, but serious harm didn't occur because of chance.
B) An event that harms a patient as a result of underlying disease or condition.
C) An event that harms a patient by omission or commission, not an underlying disease or condition.
D) An event that signals the need for immediate investigation and response.
Q2) The strategy to avoid medication errors endorsed by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) to differentiate products with look-alike names is referred to as which term?
A) Automatic alerts
B) Bar coding
C) Computer order entry
D) Tallman lettering
Q3) Which is an essential element of a standard order set to verify a medication order?
A) Volume only
B) Number of tablets
C) Metric dose/strength
D) Hour of administration
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Technology and Informatics
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Q1) The staff nurse who uses informatics in promoting quality patient care is most likely to access data in which domain?
A) Certified clinical information systems (CIS)
B) Clinical health care informatics
C) Public health/population informatics
D) Translational bioinformatics
Q2) The application of information processing that deals with the storage, retrieval sharing, and use of health care data, information, and knowledge for communication and decision making is the definition of which area?
A) Computer science
B) Health informatics
C) Health information technology
D) Nursing informatics
Q3) Florence Nightingale, the first nurse informatician, sought hospital data for comparison purposes to compete which goal?
A) Allow faster and accurate diagnosis.
B) Better coordinate care.
C) Improve the efficiency of care.
D) Show people how their money was spent.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Evidence
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Q1) One of the first nurse researchers to document evidence-based practice for nursing was Florence Nightingale. What did Nightingale incorporate into her practice that made her practice different from her colleagues?
A) Nightingale gathered scientific data.
B) Nightingale calculated statistics to report her findings.
C) Nightingale communicated her findings to powerful others.
D) Nightingale based her nursing practice on her findings.
Q2) Which statements are true about the Iowa model of EBP? (Select all that apply.)
A) It addresses utilization of research findings at an individual level.
B) It prioritizes pressing items of interest related to quality of care.
C) Individual nurses enact an Iowa decision tree when they examine risk management data.
D) It identifies triggers capable of posing hazard or benefit.
E) It reiterates that innovators embrace change far earlier than laggards.
Q3) How does the Iowa model transcend mere nursing care? (Select all that apply.)
A) It includes formalized internal feedback loops.
B) Its triggers can have their origins practically anywhere.
C) It generates change in practice solely through research.
D) It implies a layer of policy development.
E) It addresses multiple disciplines' impacts on quality.
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Chapter 50: Health Care Quality
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Q1) What are two major foci of The Joint Commission (TJC) in the delivery of health care?
A) Cost containment; safety
B) Safety; quality
C) Quality; assessment
D) Assessment; evaluation
Q2) A student nurse is talking with his instructor. The student asks how quality of care is evaluated. What is the best response by the instructor?
A) "Quality of care is evaluated by the patient getting well."
B) "Quality of care is evaluated on the basis of process and outcomes."
C) "Quality of care is evaluated by the physician's assessment."
D) "Quality of care is evaluated by the patient's satisfaction."
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the patient's perception of his or her care?
A) Patent perception is just as important as the outcome of care.
B) Patient perception is insignificant compared to the outcome of care.
C) Patient satisfaction has no relation to quality of care.
D) Patient satisfaction is insignificant compared to the outcome of care.
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Chapter 51: Care Coordination
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Q1) For children and teens, which model includes school-based services?
A) Social
B) Integrated
C) Medically-Oriented
D) Nurse-Oriented
Q2) Care coordination models should be adopted in health care facilities. If models are not put into practice, the shortcomings of the health care system may display which of the following items? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decrease in patients
B) Fragmented services
C) Low birth weight newborns
D) Cost inefficiencies
E) Poor health outcomes
F) Increased pharmacy costs
Q3) Medical models coordinate medical services and were traditionally designed fulfill which function?
A) Be patient specific.
B) Be nursing oriented.
C) Be diagnosis specific.
D) Be community oriented.
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Chapter 52: Caregiving
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Q1) The nurse is counseling a woman who is caring for her 83-year-old father. The father has had mental changes and is becoming more confused. The father lives with the daughter in her home. The nurse knows the daughter understands the father's care needs when she states which of the following?
A) "Dad will only need my help for a short time, and then he will get better."
B) "I can leave dad alone during the day; I'll just deadbolt the door."
C) "I can send dad to the adult daycare; that way I can work and care for him at night."
D) "Dad misses mom since she passed; he will be okay in a few weeks."
Q2) A mother is talking with the community-based nurse concerning her adult son. The son is mentally challenged and not able to live on his own. The mother is concerned about her son's welfare when she is no longer able to care for him. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "Let's look into the community resources that are available to assist you."
B) "You have raised your son well, and he will be okay on his own."
C) "Contact your distant relatives to see if anyone would take your son."
D) "There are places for mentally challenged adults; let's place him there."
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Chapter 53: Palliation
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Q1) Which is one of the biggest challenges facing current nursing practice?
A) The number of aging Americans living with chronic disease.
B) The number of patients entering into hospice programs.
C) The number of cancer patients receiving supportive care.
D) Reduced length of stay in hospice care.
Q2) Palliative care used in the management of a patient with symptomatic chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an example of which of the following?
A) Palliative care is used when the patient is beginning to die.
B) Palliative care is used to help manage the symptoms that often accompany COPD.
C) Hospice nurses must be involved to provide palliative care in a cancer patient.
D) Patient must be enrolled into the Medicare Hospice Benefit to receive palliative care.
Q3) The interprofessional core team includes members from which disciplines?
A) Nursing, medicine, volunteers, and nutrition
B) Medicine, nursing, social work, and clergy
C) Medicine, nursing, physical therapists, and volunteers
D) Nursing, home health aides, volunteers, and clergy
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Chapter 54: Health Disparities
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Q1) The nurse in the immunization clinic should place emphasis on educating and reaching which groups about the disease preventing effects of immunizations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Caucasian
B) African American
C) Low income
D) Middle income
E) High income
Q2) Before beginning work on a culturally diverse hospital unit, the nurse should perform which action first?
A) Improve self-awareness of one's own biases
B) Attend an anti-discrimination rally or march
C) Build rapport and trust with the patients
D) Take a foreign language class
Q3) Which type of health disparities are most frequently encountered by nurses in clinical and community settings?
A) Avoidable and acceptable
B) Avoidable and unacceptable
C) Unavoidable and acceptable
D) Unavoidable and unacceptable
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Chapter 55: Health Care Organizations
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Q1) The annual report for a hospital shows that external environment factors are affecting the amount of new staff hired. What is a likely factor contributing to this outcome?
A) The recent implementation of becoming a not-for-profit institution
B) The implementation of a hospital electronic medical record system
C) A national recession that has been occurring for 3 years
D) The closure of a hospital-based school of nursing due to lack of funding
Q2) A quality improvement committee is reviewing discharge surveys. Results show that patients and their families have difficulty finding departments and areas of the hospital. What action by the committee would best address this concern for the organization?
A) Continue to review future surveys to monitor the situation.
B) Give additional training to the receptionists and switchboard personnel to give better directions.
C) Form a multidisciplinary committee to identify options to help travel through the hospital.
D) Send a work order to the maintenance department requesting that brighter lights be installed.
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Chapter 56: Health Care Economics
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Q1) Two nurses are discussing health care in the past and the present. The two nurses know which to be true about health care in the present?
A) Health care in the present is mostly provided by nurses.
B) Health care in the present is controlled by third party payers.
C) Health care in the present is controlled by physicians.
D) Health care in the present is dictated by the patient.
Q2) A student asks the instructor about health care economics. The instructor knows the student understands when the student makes which statement?
A) "The elderly population uses most of the health care services."
B) "Everyone should have health insurance to obtain services."
C) "Health care dollars should be partitioned by the government."
D) "Resources will be needed to serve health care issues."
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about health care in the US?
A) The US spends more money on health care than any other nation.
B) The US provides health care to every citizen.
C) The US relies on government funding to treat most citizens.
D) The US spends less money on pediatric care than other nations.
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Chapter 57: Health Policy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2378
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components are included in health policy at the state level?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
B) Scope of nursing practice
C) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996
D) Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005
Q2) A nursing student is preparing a care plan for an assigned patient. When accessing the electronic medical record, what is acceptable information to view? (Select all that apply.)
A) Laboratory data of the assigned patient
B) Admission diagnosis for a patient who is a former neighbor
C) The patient's age, date of birth, and gender
D) The history and physical of the assigned patient
E) A classmate's brother's chest x-ray report
Q3) A definition of health policy includes which of the following elements?
A) Funding for public education
B) Appropriation of funds for roadwork
C) Selection of congressional members of committees
D) Public policy made to support health-related goals
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Chapter 58: Health Care Law
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2379
Sample Questions
Q1) The new nurse correctly defines a law when stating which information?
A) "Law is a fundamental concept for health care professionals."
B) "Law's rule is developed by the employee's organization."
C) "Law's rule is enacted by a government agency that defines what must be done in a given circumstance."
D) "Law is a mandate from the Joint Commission or other accrediting agency."
Q2) Which is an example of the regulatory power to make law?
A) Joint Commission establishing a medication reconciliation standard.
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) developing recommendations for childhood immunizations.
C) Institute of Medicine (IOM) defining the approximate number of medication errors that result in significant patient harm or death.
D) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) enacting rules for restraint and seclusion for participating hospitals.
Q3) What is one of the major attributes of health care law?
A) It defines the expected behavior of persons in the business of health care.
B) The law or rule is easy to interpret and comply with.
C) It is established by any health care authority.
D) The creator must be an expert in health care.
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