Fundamentals of Nursing
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential principles and practices that form the foundation of nursing care. This course covers the basic concepts of health, illness, and the nursing process, with emphasis on the development of critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and effective communication skills. Students learn about patient safety, hygiene, infection control, vital signs assessment, and documentation while exploring the ethical and legal responsibilities of the nurse. Through a blend of theory, laboratory practice, and clinical experiences, students gain the competence and confidence necessary to provide holistic, patient-centered care across a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes the activity that reflects primary prevention is
A) a self-initiated walking regimen.
B) collaboration with a physical therapist.
C) physician-prescribed exercise after a heart attack.
D) tuberculosis screening.
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse explains that the client's ability to cope with stress dynamically will play a significant role in the client attaining maximum potential. This approach is most consistent with the model of
A) King.
B) Leninger.
C) Levine.
D) Neuman.
Answer: A
Q3) A holistic belief system by the nurse would be most evident if the nurse
A) accepts death as an outcome of life.
B) encourages behavior modification programs.
C) incorporates client perceptions of health when planning care.
D) supports goal-directed learning to improve health.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principles of assessment does the nurse use when working with hospitalized clients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess each client at the beginning of each shift.
B) Base the frequency of assessment on client condition.
C) Begin with the most seriously ill client.
D) Record findings as they are assessed, not later.
E) Wait for physician orders to determine the frequency of assessments.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.
B) do a complete assessment of the pain.
C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.
D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is confused about the best way to confirm placement of a small flexible feeding tube before giving a bolus feeding. Colleagues on the unit suggest several different methods. The best process by which to determine a policy outlining the appropriate course of action is
A) critical reasoning.
B) evidence-based practice.
C) problem solving.
D) professional judgment.
Answer: B
Q2) A nurse with 6 year's labor and delivery experience is floated to the intensive care unit. In this situation, the nurse would most likely function at the level of A) advanced beginner.
B) competent.
C) novice.
D) proficient.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse understands that many conventional drugs are derived from plants, such as A) meperidine (Demerol).
B) penicillin.
C) quinine.
D) steroids.
Q2) Because of the repetitive, slow, controlled movement involved, the nurse suggests that a client with arthritis may benefit from the CAM therapy of A) Ayurveda.
B) biofeedback.
C) Reiki.
D) Tai Chi.
Q3) An elderly Chinese woman tells the nurse that she must improve the flow of her Qi. The nurse asks the client how long she has been using A) acupuncture.
B) Ayurveda.
C) Tai Chi.
D) yoga.
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6
Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a telephone consultation, the ambulatory care center nurse may A) assess cardiac or fetal monitoring.
B) decide how soon the client should be seen at the center.
C) give advice based on the nurse's phone assessment.
D) teach a specific procedure based on approved protocols.
Q2) Ambulatory care nursing is an emerging field of nursing practice in which the nurse
A) deals with clients who are ambulatory and able to walk into the clinic.
B) is part of an interdisciplinary team offering primary, secondary, and tertiary care.
C) offers an integrated system of care to persons within walking distance of the clinic.
D) works only with clients who are not acutely ill.
Q3) The nurse contacts a client by follow-up telephone call after the client's visit to an ambulatory care center. The client who would benefit most from this intervention
A) has undergone cast removal.
B) has undergone same-day surgery.
C) is having blood pressure monitored.
D) is having blood sugar monitored.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A planned program of loss prevention and liability control best defines A) client satisfaction.
B) clinical pathway.
C) quality assurance.
D) risk management.
Q2) When unit staffing includes unlicensed assistive personnel, the nurse is aware that
A) delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel is not in the scope of RN practice. B) licensed personnel are accountable for the tasks delegated to the unlicensed personnel.
C) unlicensed assistive personnel do not have clinical duties on a client care unit.
D) unlicensed assistive personnel have formal training and function independently.
Q3) A registered nurse (RN) seeking work in a voluntary health agency would choose a A) church-affiliated hospital.
B) proprietary hospital.
C) state university hospital.
D) veterans administration (VA) hospital.
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Chapter 7: Critical Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse who is acting in a manner that respects and supports the client's and family's basic rights, values, and beliefs is functioning in which professional role?
A) Advocate
B) Caregiver
C) Critical thinker
D) Manager
Q2) The ICU nurse planning care for a critically ill client tries to arrange care to minimize the most disruptive stressor for the client, which is
A) alteration in sleep.
B) fear of the unknown.
C) persistent pain.
D) sense of isolation.
Q3) The nurse admitting clients to an intensive care unit understands that research demonstrates best client outcomes when clients
A) are in an area that allows liberal family visitation.
B) have consistent nurses caring for them.
C) have state of the art physiologic monitoring.
D) receive multidisciplinary care led by an intensivist.
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9
Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The program that had the greatest influence on the number of agencies providing community health care is
A) ADC.
B) Medicaid.
C) Medicare.
D) Social Security.
Q2) The component that is not part of the Omaha System is
A) Intervention Scheme.
B) Problem Classification Scheme.
C) Problem Rating Scale for Outcomes.
D) Rating Scale for Client Satisfaction.
Q3) An experienced home health care nurse explains to a client about safety in the community. One difference the nurse emphasizes that home health care has over hospital-based health care is that with home health care (Select all that apply)
A) "always be prepared" is a good motto.
B) disasters can occur while the nurse is in the community.
C) needed help may not be immediately available.
D) the central location of most staff during the day can provide assistance.
E) the nurse is usually on his/her own.
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Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse teaching a new resident and family about the Resident Rights outlined by OBRA would include which information? A resident has the right to
A) be informed of rights, rules, and responsibilities.
B) choose activities and care.
C) have clean, safe, home-like environment.
D) organize and participate in resident groups.
Q2) The nurse plans programming at a nursing home understanding that the defining impairment that affects almost all residents in a nursing home is
A) Alzheimer's disease or other cognitive deficit.
B) impairment in ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL).
C) profound hearing loss or other unspecified sensory deficit.
D) severe, progressive visual deficit.
Q3) In 1965 the enactment of Medicare and Medicaid provided older adults and poor persons with the assurance of A) a minimal level of health care.
B) a reasonable standard of living.
C) guaranteed housing.
D) increased food allowance funding.
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Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rehabilitation nurse reminds a client that according to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), the broad theoretical qualification criterion for rehabilitation services is that the client
A) has impaired mobility in two limbs.
B) has impairments that lead to reduced ability to engage in activities.
C) is no longer capable of independent living.
D) requires assistance in mobility, dressing, and toileting.
Q2) The rehabilitation nurse stresses that the major focus in a rehabilitation setting is A) acquisition of services for the newly discharged client.
B) elimination of clinical manifestations.
C) prevention of disease progression.
D) skills' instruction for independence.
Q3) The nurse makes sure that the client and the family understand that in the transdisciplinary approach, the entire team
A) estimates the time required for full functioning.
B) identifies a primary therapist.
C) limits what each discipline will offer.
D) sets team goals during transdisciplinary meetings.
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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the laboratory values for an assigned client with fluid excess, the nurse finds the value that is consistent with this diagnosis to be
A) BUN 12 mg/dl.
B) hematocrit of 46%.
C) plasma osmolality of 285 mOsm/kg.
D) plasma sodium level of 129 mEq/L.
Q2) The nurse notes that a client with renal disease has a plasma osmolality of 200 mOsm/kg and a plasma sodium level of 122 mEq/L. The nurse would further assess the client for other manifestations of
A) extracellular fluid volume excess.
B) hyperosmolar fluid volume deficit.
C) intracellular fluid volume excess.
D) iso-osmolar fluid volume deficit.
Q3) A client with dehydration is being weighed on a standing scale next to the bed. The most important action by the nurse is to
A) assist the client to prevent falls.
B) calibrate the scale per manufacturer's directions.
C) document the weight and compare it with prior ones.
D) explain to the client what is going to happen.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has end-stage renal disease and is going to start dialysis this week. The nurse is aware the client is at most risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypophosphatemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Q2) A client has been admitted in a hypercalcemic crisis and the family is distraught. One family member grabs the nurse's hand and states "I just don't know what I'll do if he/she dies!" The best response by the nurse is
A) "Don't worry. We see this and treat it all the time in clients just like this."
B) "I know that you are upset, but I have to take care of the client first."
C) "What has your loved one been eating and drinking during the last week?"
D) "Yes, this is serious but I can come back and answer some questions for you."
Q3) When giving IV potassium, the nurse takes the precaution of
A) agitating the bag to prevent bolus administration.
B) ensuring potassium dilution with glucose solution.
C) leaving the IV cannula inserted as long as possible.
D) using a large cannula for infusion.
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Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client who experienced cardiopulmonary arrest and has a mixed respiratory/metabolic acidosis explains to a concerned family member that the mechanical ventilator can eliminate
A) carbonic acid.
B) lactic acid.
C) phosphoric acid.
D) sulfuric acid.
Q2) In an assessment of current clients, the nurse recognizes that the client most likely to develop respiratory acidosis has A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
B) hypokalemia.
C) salicylate overdose.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
Q3) A client is brought to the emergency department in cardiac arrest. The nurse is aware that the associated acid-base imbalance that will require treatment is A) both respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
B) both respiratory and metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the preoperative assessment, the nurse notes the suggestion of susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia during surgery in the client's statement that
A) "I frequently have numbness and tingling in my hands."
B) "I usually feel very warm and tend to perspire heavily."
C) "My mother died from anesthesia problems."
D) "On occasion I've had muscle tenderness around my jaw."
Q2) A client has left to go to the operating room. Important supportive interventions the nurse can provide the family include (Select all that apply)
A) asking them for a way to contact them if they leave the area.
B) giving families a way to contact the nurses' station.
C) letting the physician meet with them in person instead of the nurse.
D) showing them where the family waiting room is.
Q3) A client is receiving anesthesia and is being inducted just before an operation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to
A) apply wrist and leg restraints to ensure client safety.
B) begin counting supplies with the surgical technician or scrub nurse.
C) ensure all conversation in the operating room is appropriate.
D) monitor the client for agitation and struggling.
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Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse educating clients in a genetic screening clinic explains that recessive genes on autosomal chromosomes can be passed on
A) to children of either gender.
B) only to males.
C) only to females.
D) to females after skipping a generation.
Q2) A nurse counseling a couple about genetic disorders explains that Tay-Sachs disease is a genetically linked disorder seen in 7% of the A) African-American ethnic group.
B) Ashkenazi Jewish ethnic group.
C) Hispanic ethnic group.
D) Northern European ethnic group.
Q3) The nurse explains to a client that the condition of a sperm or egg having an irregular number of chromosomes is called A) aneuploidy.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) polypeptide.
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17
Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse preparing a teaching plan for a client recently diagnosed with cancer will include the fact about growth patterns of cancer that cancer cells
A) exhibit contact inhibition.
B) grow in adverse conditions, such as lack of nutrients.
C) have a growth rate equal to or less than cell death rate.
D) proliferate in response to specific stimuli.
Q2) The nurse assessing a client's risk of cancer from cigarette smoking notes that the client has smoked one-half pack per day for 10 years. The nurse calculates that this client has a history of
A) 2 pack-years.
B) 5 pack-years.
C) 10 pack-years.
D) 20 pack-years.
Q3) A nurse is administering IV chemotherapy. What personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse use when doing this task?
A) A gown and gloves
B) Gloves and a mask
C) No special PPE is needed
D) Only gloves
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should closely assess a client undergoing chemotherapy for a tumor that is responding to the therapy for any indication of tumor lysis syndrome, which is marked by
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) increase in antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
D) platelet count below 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
Q2) A client with prostate cancer calls the clinic to ask for a physical therapy (PT) consult because his back has been hurting. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Advise the client to try a heating pad for 3 days before initiating a PT consult.
B) Call in a prescription for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
C) Collaborate with the physician to arrange the physical therapy consult.
D) Instruct the client to come in for a back x-ray immediately.
Q3) The nurse assesses that the client most at risk for breast cancer is the
A) 26-year-old multipara whose father died from lung cancer.
B) 38-year-old primigravida who had menarche at age 9.
C) 42-year-old multipara who had menarche at age 14.
D) 68-year-old nullipara receiving treatment for osteoporosis.
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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frail client with multiple chronic medical conditions has a chronic, infected, malodorous wound. The client begins to cry when the nurse tries to explain to the client an aggressive approach to wound care. The nurse should revise the plan to focus on A) better pain control so the client can tolerate the aggressive therapy.
B) palliative care and quality of life.
C) the client's emotional barrier to the recommended treatment.
D) the possibility of eventual amputation.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic lower leg wound caused by venous insufficiency. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Apply ice to the surrounding tissue.
B) Elevate the leg and apply compression stockings.
C) Keep the leg in one position to avoid further injury.
D) Position the leg flat with heels elevated off the bed.
Q3) The nurse informs the client that to reduce scarring, facial sutures are removed in A) 1 to 2 days.
B) 4 to 7 days.
C) 8 to 10 days.
D) 12 to 14 days.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses a client's systemic manifestations of fever and malaise as the line of defense known as
A) complete.
B) partial.
C) primary.
D) secondary.
Q2) General health promotion measures a nurse can teach a group of clients in order to prevent infections include (Select all that apply)
A) controlling portals of exit of infectious organisms.
B) eliminating personal behaviors that might lead to infection.
C) examining cultural behaviors that might promote infection.
D) maintaining good nutritional status.
E) preventing displacement of normal flora.
Q3) The infection control nurse explains to the staff that resistant organisms, like vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE), evolve by
A) colonizing a client who has had repeated nosocomial infections.
B) contact with the host's weakened immune system.
C) infecting a client with a history of untreated infections.
D) mutation of the pathogen because of frequent exposure to antibiotics.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is being discharged with scheduled doses of morphine every 8 hours. The goals for discharge teaching have been met when the client says "I will
A) eat high fiber foods and drink lots of fluids to avoid constipation."
B) monitor my blood pressure carefully, and report any elevations over (140/90)."
C) take the morphine with food to avoid GI upset and possible stomach ulceration."
D) notice a decrease in pain in about a week."
Q2) A postoperative client has liberal orders for pain medication and the nurse is delivering them on a strict schedule. The client denies pain when assessed but appears worried, is fidgeting in bed, cries occasionally, and uses the call light frequently for "minor" requests. When analyzing this situation, which component of the pain medication plan might the nurse discover needs revision?
A) The doses of medications are too low.
B) The interval between doses is too long.
C) The nurse needs a better therapeutic relationship with the client.
D) The route of administration should be changed to a faster acting route.
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22
Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse requests the drug temazepam (Restoril) for a client who has difficulty in
A) falling asleep.
B) falling asleep and staying asleep.
C) sleeping without nightmares.
D) staying asleep.
Q2) A hospice nurse explains to a client that one of the underlying reasons for the underutilization of hospice services is the difficulty in determining life expectancy prognoses of
A) 1 year or less.
B) 8 months or less.
C) 6 months or less.
D) 3 months or less.
Q3) In a bedtime routine for a palliative care client who is having difficulty falling asleep, the least helpful intervention to incorporate would be
A) black tea with sugar.
B) massage.
C) progressive muscle relaxation.
D) warm milk.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client tells the nurse that she has been experiencing early-morning awakening, the nurse should assess the client for manifestations of A) depression.
B) psychophysiologic insomnia.
C) respiratory problems.
D) sleep deprivation.
Q2) A client has mild obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS). The nursing teaching plan should include information regarding A) alternate sleeping positions.
B) breathing exercises.
C) foods high in vitamin B2.
D) scheduling regular naps.
Q3) After a client's discharge from the critical care unit to the step-down unit after a myocardial infarction, the nurse assesses the client carefully during sleep because
A) anxiety relative to the recent myocardial infarct may cause sleep disorders.
B) apnea is more common immediately after myocardial infarction.
C) breathing abnormalities may result in hypoxia.
D) REM rebound may occur, placing greater demands on the heart.
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Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has been taking thioridazine (Mellaril) for acute schizophrenia for a month when she comes to the hospital with a broken leg. The nurse notices that the client is slurring her words, keeps wiping her mouth with tissues to control the drooling, and has trouble holding a glass of water. The nurse documents the client's assessment and notifies the physician that the nurse suspects
A) alcohol abuse.
B) drug abuse.
C) extrapyramidal symptoms.
D) tardive dyskinesia.
Q2) A client admitted for an asthma attack is also receiving psychiatric treatment for chronic schizophrenia. During the interview the client stops responding and says, "Why are you asking me all these questions? Why do you want to know? Are you recording this for the others?" The nurse's best response is
A) "I am asking these questions as part of your hospital admission for asthma."
B) "We cannot admit you without getting this information into our computers."
C) "We will stop for now, but I'm going to report your behavior to your doctor."
D) "Why are you asking me questions? This is part of the admission procedure."
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The assessment by the nurse that would be significant to help prevent a complication from amphetamine use is to
A) check oxygen levels frequently.
B) keep the lights on continuously.
C) measure intake and output.
D) perform neurologic assessments.
Q2) The nurse explains that disorienting flashbacks may be experienced by a client under the influence of A) alcohol.
B) cocaine.
C) heroin.
D) LSD.
Q3) The theory that describes substance abuse as a learned behavior is called the A) biologic model.
B) family system model.
C) psychological model.
D) sociocultural model.
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Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client complains of deep aching in his lower leg. The nurse completes an assessment focusing on other indicators of
A) bone cancer.
B) infection.
C) muscle strain.
D) neuromuscular impairment.
Q2) The nurse assisting with an arthrocentesis provides which intervention after the procedure is over? The nurse
A) applies a compression dressing.
B) gives the client a tetanus shot.
C) teaches the client crutch-walking.
D) wraps a heating pad around the knee.
Q3) To evaluate a client's swollen right knee further, the nurse should first
A) compare the right knee to the left knee.
B) palpate for crepitus.
C) put the knee through range of motion.
D) test muscle strength.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with osteoporosis complains that avoiding coffee will be very difficult. To offset coffee consumption, the nurse might suggest that for every cup of coffee consumed, the client should
A) add 1 serving of leafy green vegetables.
B) combine 20 minutes of exercise to the daily program.
C) drink 1 glass of orange juice or grapefruit juice.
D) take 40 mg of over-the-counter calcium.
Q2) The nurse counseling a client with osteoporosis identifies one of the medications that may have contributed to the condition as
A) aspirin.
B) colchicine.
C) ibuprofen.
D) prednisone.
Q3) The nurse teaching a class on osteoarthritis (OA) stresses that this disorder is best described as
A) degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints.
B) enzymatic breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints.
C) joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process.
D) overproduction of synovial fluid, resulting in joint destruction.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client with delayed union of a fractured femur that treatment for this complication is based on
A) finding and correcting the cause.
B) physical therapy using deep-heat modalities.
C) realigning the fracture with traction.
D) stabilizing the fracture with a metal plate.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a community group about bone health. Which of the following does the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.)
A) Engage in regular weight-bearing exercise.
B) Get plenty of calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
C) If diagnosed with osteoporosis, take medications as prescribed.
D) Stop, or do not start, smoking.
E) Swim or cycle to get aerobic activity without stressing joints.
Q3) The nurse assesses an 85-year-old client who has fallen and finds crepitus and swelling below the right elbow. The nurse interprets these findings as
A) a closed fracture.
B) a dislocation.
C) manifestations of degenerative joint disease.
D) normal variations related to age.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4026
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is having an abdominal ultrasound and wonders why the physician did not order a CT scan or MRI. The nurse's best explanation for the choice of procedure is
A) "An ultrasound is far less expensive than CT or MRI."
B) "There is less need for dye contrast and fewer complications."
C) "Ultrasounds can be done more quickly and are best for screening."
D) "You can correlate physical and ultrasound findings during the exam."
Q2) The nurse administers an anticholinergic drug to a client scheduled for an endoscopy in order to provide
A) decreased secretions.
B) increased peristalsis.
C) muscle relaxation.
D) sedation.
Q3) A hospitalized client has lost several pounds in the last week. The nurse reviews the client's lab results understanding that which test is the best indicator of acute nutritional changes?
A) Albumin level
B) Pre-albumin level
C) RBC count
D) Total protein level
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with anorexia nervosa has a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to inadequate food intake. The client's current weight is 92 pounds. The nurse would evaluate that the client is making safe progress if the weight after 1 week is
A) 107 pounds.
B) 102 pounds.
C) 97 pounds.
D) 94 pounds.
Q2) The nurse can reduce the risk of access site infection in a client receiving TPN by A) adding antibiotics to the TPN fluid.
B) changing the catheter every 48 hours.
C) changing the transparent dressing every 72 hours.
D) using a semipermeable dressing on the insertion site.
Q3) A client who is diagnosed with bulimia would be most likely to manifest the psychosocial alteration of A) denial.
B) depression.
C) self-mutilation.
D) social withdrawal.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with oral Candidiasis has the nursing diagnosis Acute Pain related to altered oral mucous membrane and ulcerations. To rinse the mouth and provide comfort, the nurse should instruct the client to use
A) a commercial mouthwash.
B) Dakin's solution.
C) half-strength peroxide.
D) saline mouth rinses.
Q2) The nurse should anticipate that a client with mechanical obstruction of the esophagus would initially have difficulty swallowing A) bread.
B) carbonated beverages.
C) mashed potatoes.
D) saliva.
Q3) Reviewing a client's chart, the nurse finds that the client has odynophagia. The nurse questions the client about experience with A) dulled taste.
B) intermittent difficulty with swallowing.
C) knife-like pain.
D) throbbing sensations in the throat.
32
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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute gastritis is admitted to the emergency department for GI bleeding. The nurse would anticipate the client's history will include
A) alcohol abuse.
B) anorexia.
C) high-carbohydrate, high-fat diet.
D) recent use of oral penicillin.
Q2) A nurse is inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube. Put the steps in the correct order.(select all that apply)
A) Advance the tube into the stomach.
B) Aspirate gastric contents and measure the pH.
C) Assist the client into a high-Fowler position.
D) Complete the NEX measurement and mark it on the tube.
E) Insert the tube gently into the nares and posterior nasal pharynx.
F) Instruct the client to swallow when the tube is in the oropharynx.
G) Lubricate the tip of the tube.
H) Secure the tube to the nose with a device to hold tubes or hypoallergenic tape.
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33
Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) Before palpating the bladder of a client with chronic urinary retention, the nurse should
A) have the client drink several glasses of water so the bladder is full and easy to palpate.
B) get the bladder scanner to determine if the bladder is full.
C) review intake and output instead; the bladder cannot be palpated at all.
D) ask the client to take a deep breath and relax the abdominal muscles.
Q2) The nurse explains that the non-urinary manifestations that frequently accompany urinary diseases are
A) blurred vision and nystagmus.
B) disorientation and insomnia.
C) joint pain and stiffness.
D) nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.
Q3) An 83-year-old client is seen for urinary frequency and burning. A dipstick urine test reveals positive nitrates. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Assume the client has a UTI.
B) Catheterize the client for a sterile specimen.
C) Nothing; this is a normal finding.
D) Send the urine for a culture.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) takes sulfasalazine (Azulfadine) for management of manifestations. To counteract a side effect of this drug, the nurse would encourage the client to increase intake of A) any citrus fruits. B) bananas and apples.
C) fish and seafood. D) peas and beans.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client with an intestinal malignancy assesses for bleeding, which would most likely be manifested by A) abdominal discomfort.
B) hematemesis.
C) hematochezia. D) hypotension.
Q3) In caring for a client with peritonitis from inflamed diverticuli, the nurse should assign priority to assessing A) bowel sounds. B) intake and output. C) neurologic status. D) vital signs.
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) During a bladder training program for a client with spinal cord injury using intermittent catheterization, the client suddenly complains of a throbbing headache. Noting that the client's blood pressure is elevated, the priority action by the nurse is to A) catheterize the client.
B) limit fluids for the remainder of the day.
C) notify the physician immediately.
D) place the client flat in bed.
Q2) A nurse in a long-term care facility has several residents who are incontinent. Which of the following actions can this nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assist residents with exercises to strengthen pelvic muscles.
B) Assist the resident to the bathroom on a set schedule.
C) Increase the time interval for bathroom trips as the resident becomes continent.
D) Measure intake and output and report cloudy urine.
E) Teach residents how to do Kegel exercises to strengthen pelvic muscles.
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Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) In the care plan for a client after nephrectomy, the nurse would include an intervention for
A) encouraging ambulation.
B) maintaining adequate hydration.
C) maintaining patency of wound drains.
D) promoting effective breathing patterns.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who is admitted for pneumonia. The nurse would expect that an appropriate antibiotic that the physician might consider is a/an
A) aminoglycoside.
B) cephalosporin.
C) penicillin.
D) sulfonamide.
Q3) The nurse who notes documentation of Grey Turner's sign in a client who experienced renal trauma would interpret this to be a manifestation of A) increased blood urea nitrogen.
B) proteinuria.
C) retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
D) urine specific gravity of 1.20.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client with chronic renal failure who is experiencing insomnia, the least helpful strategy would be
A) establishing a pre-sleep quiet time.
B) planning on a standard time to go to bed.
C) setting up a bedtime routine.
D) taking an over-the-counter sedative drug.
Q2) A client has been found to be an acceptable candidate for a kidney transplant. The nurse counsels the client and family that the client now faces the greatest impediment to renal transplantation, which is
A) high potential for rejection.
B) high risk for infection.
C) insufficient financial resources.
D) lack of sufficient donor organs.
Q3) The client with chronic renal failure who would not be a candidate for peritoneal dialysis is a client
A) who has diabetes mellitus.
B) who is a 10-year-old child.
C) with severe cardiovascular disease.
D) with severe respiratory disease.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notices that a client performing a BSE is failing to palpate her breast and axillae completely. To improve her technique, the nurse should teach the client to A) compress the nipple downward.
B) gently slide her fingers over the breast tissue.
C) palpate the breast using a systematic approach.
D) start her examination when standing.
Q2) The nurse teaches a client scheduled for semen examination that in order to provide an adequate sample, the client should
A) abstain from ejaculating 2 to 5 days before the test.
B) drink plenty of liquids for 24 hours before the test.
C) get plenty of sleep the night before the test.
D) increase intake of red meat 3 days before the test.
Q3) The nurse obtaining a health history from a male client with a history of hypertension should ask the client about A) renal functioning.
B) sexual functioning. C) testicular problems. D) voiding problems.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old client says to the nurse, "I'm really worried about occasional impotence." The most appropriate response by the nurse would be
A) "Do you feel you should see a sex therapist?"
B) "Impotence is usually caused by psychogenic causes."
C) "This is not unusual after age 40."
D) "You should see your doctor to determine if the cause is physical."
Q2) A nurse is collecting a history on a young client being treated for epididymitis. For which past medical condition should the nurse ask if the client has received treatment?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections
B) History of testicular torsion at puberty
C) Problems with erectile dysfunction
D) Sexually transmitted diseases
Q3) A nurse counsels a client who smokes cigarettes and uses alcohol daily that he should be aware that these substances have been known to cause
A) decreased erectile ability.
B) decreased sperm count.
C) gynecomastia.
D) increased ejaculatory ability.
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaching a menopausal client about hormone replacement therapy (HRT) would include that HRT decreases the risk of A) hypertension.
B) osteoporosis.
C) thrombophlebitis.
D) uterine fibromas.
Q2) The nurse teaches a client self-care measures after a hysterectomy, which include avoiding
A) participating in aerobic exercises.
B) dancing.
C) riding in a car.
D) walking for short distances.
Q3) The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing pain on her left side during the entire time of menstrual flow. The nurses assesses the possibility of A) endometriosis.
B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) uterine myoma.
D) uterine prolapse.
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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) A young client has a breast lump that presents as a fluid-filled cyst and increases slightly in size premenstrually. The nurse would suspect the breast disorder of A) a cyst.
B) a papilloma.
C) carcinoma.
D) ductal hyperplasia.
Q2) When a 25-year-old client asks the nurse how she can lower her risk of breast cancer, the nurse would suggest that the client
A) have a mammogram every 2 years.
B) increase her intake of leafy green vegetables.
C) increase her intake of vitamin C.
D) minimize intake of alcohol.
Q3) To help a client cope with the body image change caused by chemotherapy with doxorubicin, the nurse suggests that the client
A) begin an exercise routine.
B) get fitted for a good prosthesis.
C) obtain a wig before hair is lost.
D) purchase some new clothes.
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Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess a female client with second-stage syphilis for A) local lymphadenopathy.
B) maculopapular, nonpruritic rash on the palms and soles of the feet.
C) presence of a chancre.
D) yellow, mucopurulent vaginal discharge.
Q2) An adolescent female states that she cannot use condoms because her "boyfriend won't let her." Which action by the nurse would best fill the role of the advocate for this client?
A) Give the adolescent pamphlets to share with the boyfriend.
B) Help the teen practice negotiation techniques.
C) Reinforce teaching on the consequences of STDs.
D) Teach the client the proper way to apply a condom.
Q3) A nurse is teaching a community group about STDs, including proper use of condoms. The nurse informs the group that condom failure is generally due to A) environmental concerns.
B) improper or inconsistent use.
C) latex versus non-latex construction.
D) manufacturer's defect.
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) To obtain the most helpful information from a client about risk factors related to hepatitis, the nurse would ask
A) "Do you eat foods that are high in fat?"
B) "Do you exercise regularly?"
C) "Have you ever had body piercing or a tattoo?"
D) "How many bowel movements do you have weekly?"
Q2) A client being assessed for adrenal medulla function through the use of a urinalysis involves measuring
A) catecholamines and metabolites.
B) diurnal excretion of glucose.
C) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.
D) growth hormone and ADH.
Q3) A client presents with complaints of fatigue and the nurse notes dry, brittle hair. The nurse would anticipate which of the following laboratory tests?
A) Bilirubin, AST, ALT
B) Serum cortisol and ACTH
C) Serum glucose, hemoglobin A1c
D) Tests of thyroid function
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) In the assessment of a client with hypothyroidism, the nurse would include A) serum calcium levels.
B) serum cholesterol levels.
C) urine glucose levels.
D) urine specific gravity.
Q2) In a newly admitted client with thyrotoxicosis, the nurse would plan to address the clinical manifestation of A) fluid overload.
B) hypothermia.
C) respiratory distress.
D) tachycardia.
Q3) In making emergency equipment available at the bedside of a client who has undergone subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse would include
A) a defibrillator.
B) a tracheostomy set.
C) an electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor.
D) an intra-aortic balloon pump.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess that the individual most at risk for adrenal insufficiency is the
A) asthmatic client taking hydrocortisone once a week who has emergency surgery.
B) athlete who stops daily doses of steroids after taking them for 2 years.
C) COPD client using an aerosol bronchodilator daily who becomes pregnant.
D) hypertensive client taking a diuretic who contracts a febrile illness.
Q2) A client with hyperpituitarism tells the nurse that he thinks he looks different now than he did 5 years ago. The nurse's most appropriate response to this remark considers that the client is
A) experiencing a sensory disturbance and needs reorientation.
B) having visual disturbances and may need a ophthalmologist consult.
C) making bizarre comments because of increased intracranial pressure and needs a neurosurgical consult.
D) referring to physical changes from acromegaly and needs emotional support.
Q3) For a client with a pheochromocytoma, the most critical assessment by the nurse is A) abdominal girth.
B) blood pressure.
C) daily weight.
D) pulse quality.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluating the laboratory studies of a 46-year-old client would recognize that the laboratory report most suggestive of the presence of diabetes mellitus is
A) a glucose tolerance test that takes 2 hours to return to normal.
B) fasting blood glucose level of 151 mg/dl.
C) high urine ketone levels with +2 glycosuria.
D) random ("casual") blood glucose level of 80 mg.
Q2) The diabetic nurse educator would emphasize to a group class that quality of life in diabetes can be enhanced by
A) becoming a full and active partner in control of diabetes.
B) complying with the prescribed medical regimen.
C) not having too many complications from the disease.
D) taking as few medications to control the diabetes as possible.
Q3) A newly diagnosed diabetic client is crying and says "I can't learn to live with this. It's overwhelming and people with diabetes get their feet cut off and just die!" The best response by the nurse is
A) "I know you are upset, but try to think about learning to cope with this."
B) "Think of your children; they need you to learn to control your disease."
C) "When you're ready, I can teach you to make good decisions about diabetes."
D) "Would you like to have a social worker or chaplain come visit you?"
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute pancreatitis has a drop in blood pressure from (142/80) to (105/65) mm Hg at 2 hours after admission. The client has not voided and has become short of breath. The nurse would anticipate that the abnormal laboratory value consistent with these manifestations is
A) hypercalcemia.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hypoalbuminemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q2) A nurse assessing the first 24 hours of drainage from a T tube inserted during surgery for cholelithiasis would record as normal the T-tube output of A) less than 50 ml.
B) 100 to 200 ml.
C) 300 to 500 ml.
D) 500-1000 ml.
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would counsel a client that the portosystemic shunt will
A) eliminate the danger of hepatic failure.
B) reduce ascites.
C) reduce portal hypertension only.
D) reverse effects of cirrhosis.
Q2) A client with massive ascites had a paracentesis. The site continues to leak through several layers of dressings, despite the nurse holding pressure. Which intervention should the nurse do first?
A) Call the physician and request the puncture site be sutured.
B) Have the client lie on the side with the puncture site.
C) Obtain a urostomy pouch and apply it at the puncture site.
D) Use a roll of Kerlex to hold the dressing in place.
Q3) To best facilitate an effective breathing pattern, the nurse would place a client with massive ascites in the A) high-Fowler position.
B) lithotomy position.
C) recumbent position.
D) side-lying position.
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Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After tape is applied for skin patch testing, the nurse would include in the client's instructions to return to the clinic for tape removal and initial reading in A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 3 days.
D) 7 days.
Q2) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation.
B) induration.
C) reddening of the skin.
D) striation.
Q3) A client has elevated lesions that contain serous fluid. The nurse would document these as A) nodules.
B) pustules.
C) vesicles.
D) wheals.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4047
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse would instruct a client who experienced widespread first-degree sunburn to A) apply a water-based emollient after bathing.
B) avoid the use of aspirin or ibuprofen.
C) soak in cold baths for 20 minutes at a time.
D) use over-the-counter local anesthetics.
Q2) To help decrease the threat of a melanoma in a client at risk, the nurse would suggest that the client's diet should include
A) fish oil capsules.
B) lemon grass tea.
C) oatmeal.
D) red meat.
Q3) The physician ordered colloidal oatmeal baths followed by application of an occlusive ointment for a client with pruritus. The nurse's teaching plan would include explaining the need to
A) apply the ointment to damp skin.
B) bathe several times a day.
C) soak for at least 30 minutes.
D) use hot water in the bath.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a burn client would monitor the client's stools for occult blood as assessment for development of
A) bleeding caused by bowel distention.
B) gastric irritation related to smoke.
C) intestinal ileus.
D) stress ulcers.
Q2) The nurse would assess that the client with a "major burn" is
A) 60 years old with a 20% burn.
B) 32 years old with a 14 % burn.
C) 18 years old with an 18% burn.
D) 10 years old with a 15% burn.
Q3) A client suffered what seems to be a moderate electrical burn from contact with household electricity. However, the physician wants to admit the client for monitoring. When questioned about this decision, the best answer by the nurse is
A) "I am not sure but I can find out for you."
B) "It is our protocol that all electrical burns get admitted."
C) "With household current, there is great risk of cardiac rhythm problems."
D) "You need to be watched for fractures that can occur under normal use."
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4049
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client admitted to the hospital with chronic venous disease, the nurse's assessment of the client's legs would most likely reveal
A) decreased pulses.
B) erythema.
C) overgrowth of hair.
D) reduced muscle mass.
Q2) A client with venous disease is scheduled for impedance plethysmography. Before the study the nurse would explain that
A) an intravenous dye may be used.
B) the procedure is uncomfortable.
C) venous blood flow quality will be measured.
D) walking on a treadmill is required.
Q3) The nurse tests the capillary refill on a client's lower extremity and notes that it takes 4 seconds for the color to return to baseline. It would be most important for the nurse to then check for
A) constricting clothing.
B) other indicators of peripheral perfusion.
C) presence of venous ulcers.
D) prior surgery on this extremity.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would consider referring a hypertensive client for step-down therapy when the blood pressure has been effectively controlled for at least
A) 3 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 1 year.
D) 2 years.
Q2) When a client tells the nurse, "I heard that potassium supplements are effective in treating hypertension," the nurse's most appropriate reply would be as follows:
A) "Increased levels of potassium do not significantly affect blood pressure."
B) "Too much potassium can result in a dangerous rise in blood pressure."
C) "You can achieve the same benefits from low-sodium, high-potassium foods."
D) "You can try them for a while to see if you feel they are effective."
Q3) In an exercise program for weight reduction in a hypertensive client, the nurse would discourage the use of heavy weights because this may cause
A) lactic acid buildup.
B) muscle strain.
C) rapid vasodilation.
D) vasovagal response.
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate nursing diagnosis to guide self-care teaching for a client who has lymphedema is
A) Impaired Adjustment.
B) Risk for Disuse Syndrome.
C) Risk for Fluid Volume Excess.
D) Risk for Infection.
Q2) For a client admitted with a history of chronic arterial insufficiency, the nurse would anticipate that physical assessment will reveal
A) rubor with elevation of feet.
B) pallor when feet are dependent.
C) diminished pedal pulses.
D) warm, edematous skin.
Q3) When teaching foot care to a client with chronic arterial occlusive disease, the nurse would tell the client to avoid
A) using cornstarch on the feet.
B) using toenail clippers.
C) wearing canvas shoes.
D) wearing cotton socks.
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) The finding during a routine assessment that would most strongly suggest to the nurse the presence of serious heart or lung disease is
A) blanching of nail beds when compressed.
B) broken vessels in the legs.
C) duskiness of the buccal mucosa.
D) pulse rate greater than 90 beats/min.
Q2) The nurse performing an admission assessment of a 36-year-old client with cardiac valve disease would know the most relevant fact is that the client has
A) a childhood history of rheumatic fever.
B) a recent rash on the upper extremities.
C) allergies to shellfish.
D) been a smoker for the last 3 years.
Q3) In developing a standard teaching plan for the outpatient unit where stress testing is performed, the nurse would include information that the
A) test may cause chest pain and may need to be stopped.
B) test should not be interrupted for any reason.
C) client should attempt to exercise before arriving for the test.
D) client's balance must be good for performance of this test.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4053
Sample Questions
Q1) When a client is hospitalized with dilated cardiomyopathy, the nurse would examine the client's record for the characteristic history of A) long-term alcohol abuse.
B) previous streptococcal infection.
C) resistant hypertension.
D) uncontrolled diabetes.
Q2) When the client with rheumatic fever becomes irritable and impatient with the restrictions of the disease, the home health nurse would remind the client that manifestations of rheumatic fever usually abate in about A) 3 months.
B) 6 months.
C) 9 months.
D) 1 year.
Q3) In the discharge teaching plan of a client with chronic myocarditis, the nurse would include the suggestion that
A) family members should be screened for upper respiratory tract infection.
B) family members should learn cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
C) stairs in the home should be replaced with ramps.
D) the client should not operate a motor vehicle.
Page 57
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit who underwent a CABG earlier this morning. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority?
A) Decreased Cardiac Output
B) Impaired Gas Exchange
C) Pain
D) Risk for Hemorrhage
Q2) The nurse would recognize that the client at greatest risk for CHD is a
A) 35-year-old man who is 15 pounds overweight.
B) 40-year-old woman who repeatedly gains and loses 15 pounds.
C) 45-year-old man who lost 30 pounds by following a strenuous diet.
D) 50-year-old man 20 pounds overweight but a lifelong swimmer.
Q3) A nurse is preparing to administer IV digoxin to an elderly client in heart failure. Which nursing action takes priority?
A) Ask the client if he/she has ever had digoxin before.
B) Assess the client's pulse rate and hold the medication if it is less than 60 beats/min.
C) Prepare the client for any side effects of the medication.
D) Provide instruction to the client on the medication's expected effects.
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client being prepared to receive an automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD) after surviving two episodes of ventricular fibrillation, the nurse would address the client's
A) acute pain.
B) anxiety.
C) fatigue.
D) decreased cardiac output.
Q2) The client's ECG shows normal-appearing P waves that occur at regular intervals. Every third impulse from the atria is missing a QRS complex. The nurse would recognize this pattern as the dysrhythmia of
A) first-degree AV block.
B) second-degree AV block.
C) third-degree AV block.
D) fourth-degree AV block.
Q3) The nurse would be most concerned about premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) that
A) are uniform in appearance.
B) fall on a T wave.
C) occur at a rate of four per minute.
D) occur with angina.
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Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4056
Sample Questions
Q1) After instructing a client with stable angina, the nurse would evaluate that the client has a proper understanding of the condition when the client says
A) "Angina pain usually feels like being stabbed with a knife."
B) "Each time I have angina, my heart is damaged."
C) "If I have chest pain, then I'm probably having another heart attack."
D) "My chest pain can occur if I overexert myself."
Q2) A client admitted for angina reports experiencing pain of long duration while at rest and also early in the morning. The nurse would recognize this pattern as
A) angina decubitus.
B) nocturnal angina.
C) unstable angina.
D) variant angina.
Q3) Four hours after the onset of pain from an MI, the nurse would expect an increase in which laboratory result?
A) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
B) CK-MB
C) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D) Leukocyte count
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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4057
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse preparing a client for a bronchoscopy would include information about its (Select all that apply)
A) ability to visualize gas exchange at the alveolar level.
B) limitation of not being able to take tissue biopsies.
C) therapeutic use to remove retained secretions.
D) usefulness in diagnosing tumors, inflammation, and strictures.
Q2) A client has just returned from China and is concerned about possible respiratory disorders. The nurse would advise the client to have a screening to assess for exposure to
A) adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B) histoplasmosis.
C) tuberculosis.
D) Valley fever.
Q3) The nurse auscultating the chest of a client with chronic bronchitis would expect to hear the characteristic adventitious breath sound of
A) bronchovesicular sounds in the bases.
B) crackles throughout the lung fields.
C) rhonchi on expiration.
D) wheezes on inspiration.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a fenestrated tracheostomy tube in place. A tracheostomy plug will be used to allow the client to talk. The intervention by the nurse that would be essential before inserting the plug is
A) alerting the client to a new system of communication.
B) deflating the cuff on the tracheostomy tube.
C) evaluating the client's tidal volume.
D) positioning the client to facilitate air flow.
Q2) For a client who has undergone functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) as part of the surgical management of sinusitis, the nurse would instruct the client
A) "Don't blow your nose for 1 week."
B) "Eat only semi-solid foods."
C) "Lean forward when eating."
D) "Limit the amount of fluids you drink."
Q3) Noting the need to use 8 ml rather than 5 ml to inflate the tracheostomy cuff sufficiently, the nurse would
A) ask the client to swallow, and then cough.
B) completely deflate the cuff to relieve the dilation.
C) notify the physician to have an x-ray film obtained.
D) replace the entire tracheostomy tube with a larger size.
Page 62
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4059
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client with asthma would place the client in the A) Fowler position.
B) lithotomy position.
C) side-lying position.
D) supine position.
Q2) Important health promotion measures the nurse should encourage the client with COPD to consider are
A) getting influenza and pneumonia vaccinations.
B) increasing ambient humidity in the house or apartment.
C) installing a UV filter in the heating and air conditioning system.
D) moving to an area of the country with a dry climate.
Q3) The nurse is assessing the lab work of a client with a pulmonary embolism. The client's INR is 5.8. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) call the physician and ask to increase the Coumadin.
B) document the findings as normal and continue care.
C) encourage the client to order green leafy vegetables for dinner.
D) institute safety precautions for the client.
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4060
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has small cell carcinoma of the lung. The nurse should anticipate providing which intervention to the client?
A) Educating the client and family about planned chemotherapy
B) Instructing the client on home care of a chest tube system
C) Preparing the client for lung resection
D) Providing a referral to hospice
Q2) A young female client with cystic fibrosis (CF) wishes to become pregnant but is concerned about the effect of CF on fertility. The nurse bases a response with the understanding that
A) breastfeeding will not be possible because of plugged milk glands.
B) only about 20% of women with CF are infertile.
C) pregnancy carries a high risk of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage).
D) women with CF are unlikely to become pregnant.
Q3) On physical examination of a client with pneumonia, the nurse would expect
A) absence of whispered pectoriloquy over the affected area.
B) increased tactile fremitus over the affected area.
C) tympanic percussion notes over the affected area.
D) vesicular breath sounds over the affected area.
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4061
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain that emergency treatment of a tension pneumothorax requires
A) a small stab wound with a skin blade made into the pleural space.
B) covering the chest wall wound with gauze.
C) immediate tracheostomy.
D) insertion of an 18-gauge needle into the pleural space.
Q2) The nurse would explain that the use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) assists the client on mechanical ventilation by
A) gradually increasing the amount of oxygen delivered.
B) increasing the amount of expired carbon dioxide.
C) keeping the alveoli open.
D) using a pressure of 30 cm H<sub>2</sub>O.
Q3) Once a near-drowning victim is stabilized, the nurse would continue to assess the client for
A) bronchospasm.
B) dyspnea.
C) electrolyte imbalances.
D) shock.
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4062
Sample Questions
Q1) After completion of an eye examination using direct ophthalmoscopy, the assessment that the nurse would document as "normal" is
A) irregular margins to optic disc.
B) oval optic disc.
C) physiologic cup 75% of optic disc diameter.
D) retinal veins darker than arteries.
Q2) Before insertion of the otoscope speculum in the ear of an adult, the nurse would pull the pinna
A) down and back.
B) down and forward, and out.
C) up and back, and out.
D) up and forward.
Q3) The nurse performing an assessment of a client with a neuromuscular disorder finds that the left upper eyelid sags and covers a portion of the pupil. The nurse would note this finding on the client record as
A) amblyopia.
B) lid eversion.
C) presbyopia.
D) ptosis.
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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4063
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would consider that discharge teaching for a client after cataract surgery was not effective when the client states "I will
A) avoid lifting more than 5 pounds for a while."
B) only experience mild pain."
C) sleep on the side they operated on."
D) wear my eye shield to protect my eye."
Q2) A client has had vision loss because of glaucoma. The nurse identifies the diagnosis: Anticipatory Grieving related to loss of vision. Which interventions does the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allow the client to verbalize feelings.
B) Assess causative and contributing factors.
C) Examine the need for vocational rehabilitation.
D) Help the client explore avenues of support.
E) Instruct the client on home safety precautions.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4064
Sample Questions
Q1) The problem with the ear that the nurse would consider to be associated with the aging process is
A) amblyopia.
B) otalgia.
C) presbycusis.
D) tinnitus.
Q2) After assisting a client with insertion of a hearing aid, the nurse would
A) allow the client to adjust volume before speaking.
B) cup hand over the client's ear to check for feedback.
C) explain that the whistling noise will subside in a few minutes.
D) stand in front of the client and speak loudly.
Q3) A client has Ménière's disease. Which question by the nurse would elicit the most pertinent information related to client safety?
A) "Are your attacks at certain times of the day?"
B) "Do your attacks come on without warning?"
C) "How long does each attack last?"
D) "What seems to bring on your attacks?"
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In assessing a client for Babinski's reflex, the nurse would
A) press thumbs under the ball of the client's foot.
B) scrape the sole with a blunt object from heel toward great toe.
C) tap the sole with a percussion hammer at mid-arch.
D) tickle the sole of the client's foot with a fingernail.
Q2) In assessing function of cranial nerves (CN), the nurse offers a client toothpaste and the client can only identify it by smell. The nurse would record that
A) CN I is functional.
B) CN II is partially functional.
C) CN IV is non-functional.
D) CNs are unable to be assessed this way.
Q3) In assessing the cause of the decreased level of consciousness in a client in a coma, the diagnostic procedure that would provide the most accurate information is A) computed tomography (CT) scan.
B) detailed history of the accident.
C) physical examination.
D) skull x-ray film.
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69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4066
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse could appropriately assess for the doll's eye reflex in a client who is a/an
A) conscious man who has been diagnosed with acute cerebrovascular accident.
B) conscious young woman after an auto accident.
C) unconscious elderly man who has sustained a cervical spine injury.
D) unconscious teenager who has overdosed on drugs.
Q2) A nurse explains that a major characteristic of delirium is A) decline in social functions and sociability.
B) gradual onset and continuing decline.
C) multiple types of memory impairment.
D) reduced ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention.
Q3) The nurse will hyperoxygenate a comatose client before suctioning the airway to decrease the risk of A) dysrhythmias.
B) hypotension.
C) infection.
D) seizure.
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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has cyclical headaches accompanied by constricted pupils, unilateral lacrimation, and rhinorrhea. The nurse is exploring ways to prevent these headaches with the client. The nurse could focus questions and interventions on modifying the client's
A) daily level of stress.
B) family history of brain tumors.
C) pattern of caffeine consumption.
D) usual alcohol intake.
Q2) The nurse assesses for the most common manifestations of a post-traumatic brain abscess, which are
A) headache and lethargy.
B) photophobia and dizziness.
C) muscle spasms and tingling.
D) sluggish pupillary reactions.
Q3) The nurse observes for manifestations of typical migraine headaches, which include A) aura, visual disturbances, and nausea.
B) bilateral pain, abrupt onset, and tinnitus.
C) diarrhea, nasal congestion, and eye redness.
D) scalp tenderness, sensation of pressure, and nighttime onset.
Page 71
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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4068
Sample Questions
Q1) The assessment the nurse documents that supports the finding of apraxia would be the client's inability to
A) get dressed independently.
B) recognize a pencil.
C) see far objects.
D) understand the spoken word.
Q2) The critical care nurse explains to the family of a client who is to receive nimodipine following hemorrhagic stroke that the purpose of this drug is to treat A) dizziness.
B) hypertension.
C) spasticity.
D) vasospasm.
Q3) Self-care measures the nurse or speech therapist should teach the client who has residual dysphagia after a stroke include (Select all that apply)
A) chewing each bite thoroughly.
B) placing foods in the unaffected side of the mouth.
C) sticking to only semi-liquids and very soft foods.
D) turning the head to the unaffected side and checking for retained food.
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Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous
System Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assist the client with low back pain resulting from herniated lumbar disk into the position of
A) either to the right or left side with knees straight.
B) prone with a very small pillow under the head.
C) side-lying with knees flexed.
D) supine with head elevated 90 degrees.
Q2) The nurse explains that the assessment of the salivary nicotine levels before a spinal fusion surgery is done to reduce the risk of A) cardiac dysrhythmias.
B) nonunion.
C) sudden hypertension.
D) vasospasm.
Q3) The nurse would instruct a client who has undergone microvascular decompression surgery of the trigeminal nerve to
A) chew on the affected side of the mouth.
B) eat foods that are very warm or very cold for better taste.
C) resume a full diet immediately.
D) use a water jet device instead of a toothbrush.
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse instructs a group of nursing students that the pathologic changes that occur in the brain of a person with dementia of Alzheimer's disease include
A) abnormal accumulation of proteins.
B) damage to the myelin sheath of neurons.
C) destruction of neurons.
D) increase in production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Q2) Nursing activities for a client with ALS and family include helping them
A) decide on an acceptable level of care early in the course of the disease.
B) determine if they want to share the diagnosis to allow genetic testing.
C) incorporate nonpharmacologic pain control techniques in the plan of care.
D) plan for extensive rehabilitation after exacerbations.
Q3) When a client is admitted to the hospital with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), the most important assessment the nurse should make is for A) decreasing alertness.
B) respiratory difficulty.
C) seizure activity.
D) urinary retention.
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Page 74
Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with a spinal cord lesion experiences a sudden, painful spasm of his lower limbs. The priority action by the nurse is to
A) administer pain medication.
B) assess for bladder distention.
C) massage the client's legs.
D) position the client upright.
Q2) A client arrives in the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident; the client exhibits a complete loss of motor, sensory, autonomic, and reflex activity below the injury level. The nurse can determine if he is experiencing spinal shock by assessing
A) blood pressure and pulse rate.
B) for muscle spasm.
C) the presence of bowel sounds.
D) the pupillary response.
Q3) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
Page 75
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a client has a higher than normal reticulocyte count. This would indicate
A) bone marrow depression.
B) dehydration.
C) increased erythrocyte production.
D) polycythemia vera.
Q2) Several employees report allergic manifestations. The occupational health nurse would focus an investigation on the workplace's
A) food service vendor.
B) heating and cooling systems.
C) lighting.
D) water supply.
Q3) The nurse is monitoring the laboratory test results for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. The nurse is aware that the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for most clinical conditions requiring anticoagulation is
A) less than 1.
B) 1 to 2.
C) 2 to 3.5.
D) 3 to 5.5.
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Page 76
Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that the laboratory finding indicative of polycythemia vera is A) erythrocyte count of 5 million/mm<sup>3</sup>.
B) hemoglobin level of 22 g/100 ml.
C) leukocyte count of 6000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) platelets of 50,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
Q2) A client presents to the emergency department having a severe sickle cell crisis. The nurse should be prepared to do which of the following interventions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administer oxygen.
B) Offer heat therapy.
C) Order hydroxyurea from the pharmacy.
D) Prepare to give IV morphine.
E) Start an IV with normal saline.
Q3) The nurse is aware that the situation that would warrant administration of iron supplements to a client with pernicious anemia is
A) poor appetite.
B) increase in the total erythrocyte count in the peripheral circulation.
C) discrepancy between hemoglobin and erythrocyte levels.
D) paresthesia in the fingers.
Page 77
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has anaphylaxis. Which action by the nurse takes highest priority?
A) Administering oxygen
B) Giving epinephrine
C) Maintaining an open airway
D) Starting an IV
Q2) The nurse concerned about safety encourages a client to stop which medication?
A) Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Fexofenadine (Allegra)
D) Loratadine (Claritin)
Q3) A client will undergo testing for possible food allergy to chocolate. The nurse teaches the client to eliminate chocolate from the diet before the testing for A) 1 to 2 days.
B) 3 to 5 days.
C) 5 to 10 days.
D) 10 to 14 days.
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The caution the nurse should give the client who is taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as a remedy for arthritis is to
A) avoid taking NSAIDs with milk.
B) liberalize fluids while taking NSAIDs.
C) take NSAIDs with food.
D) watch for manifestations of skin damage.
Q2) A client with RA asks the nurse about the purpose of a synovectomy. The most appropriate response from the nurse is "This operation will provide you with A) improved appearance of the joint."
B) pain relief."
C) reduced amount of inflammation."
D) removal of infected material in the joint."
Q3) The nurse clarifies that a client can be diagnosed with RA when, out of the seven criteria, the client exhibits
A) two.
B) three.
C) four.
D) five.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The problem the nurse should plan for when a client with AIDS is infected with the Cryptosporidium parasite is A) delirium.
B) painful open lesions.
C) profuse, watery diarrhea.
D) severe respiratory tract infection.
Q2) The nurse understands the most significant laboratory study for the client who is HIV positive is the
A) CD4+ cell count.
B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test.
C) total white blood cell count.
D) Western blot test.
Q3) The nurse is assessing a client with AIDS for the presence of Kaposi's sarcoma (KS). The manifestation the nurse should look for is a
A) crusty lesion on the back and groin.
B) purple-red lesion on the body.
C) pustular lesion with yellow exudate.
D) thick, white exudate in the mouth.
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with acute leukemia has an extremely high white count and is going to receive chemotherapy. The nurse should anticipate administering which agents to this client? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Increased IV fluids
C) Rasburicase (Elitek)
D) Urine acidifiers
Q2) A client with Hodgkin's lymphoma has relapsed after completing chemotherapy. The nurse plans care for this client understanding the probable treatment will be
A) BMT or stem cell transplantation.
B) immunosuppressants.
C) more chemotherapy.
D) systemic steroids.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client who had a bone marrow transplant this morning should observe the client for manifestations of A) graft-versus-host disease.
B) hemorrhage.
C) pulmonary complications.
D) Sjögren's syndrome.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who had a liver transplant 4 days ago has developed a fever and decreased biliary tube drainage. The nurse anticipates an order for the client to have a A) liver biopsy.
B) set of blood cultures.
C) ultrasound.
D) white blood cell count.
Q2) A client is confused about Medicare coverage post-transplant. The nurse clarifies that in 1996 Medicare extended insurance coverage for A) all organ transplants.
B) postoperative immunosuppressants.
C) preoperative immunosuppressive protocol.
D) relocation expenses.
Q3) The nurse working in an emergency department assesses that the client near death who would be the best candidate for organ donation is the client with A) cancer.
B) cirrhosis.
C) coronary heart disease.
D) subarachnoid hemorrhage.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an elderly client who is receiving vasodilators as part of the treatment of shock. The alteration in care the nurse should plan for this client is to
A) ensure a patent Foley catheter.
B) keep the head of the bed flat.
C) provide oxygen by nasal cannula.
D) run IV fluids at a lower rate.
Q2) A client is receiving fluid replacement for treatment of shock and the nurse assesses a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 cm water. The nurse anticipates which of the following interventions?
A) Administration of vasoconstrictors
B) Administration of vasodilators
C) Decreasing fluid infusion
D) Increasing fluid infusion
Q3) A client is at risk for MODS. In caring for this client, the nurse should place the highest priority on
A) assisting with incentive spirometry.
B) hourly monitoring of urinary output.
C) maintaining adequate oral intake.
D) performing range-of-motion exercises.
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) A young man is admitted to the ED after sustaining a gunshot wound and dies within a short time. To prepare the body before the family's viewing, the nurse should
A) remove all clothing in order to give it to the family.
B) remove all tubes and instruments used in treatment.
C) wash the body thoroughly.
D) wrap all clothing already removed and place it in a paper bag.
Q2) The nurse clarifies that the law specifies that an ED client cannot be transferred to another facility until the client is stable. "Stable" is interpreted to mean that the client
A) has a blood pressure of at least 90/50 mm Hg.
B) has been evaluated by a physician.
C) is conscious and able to provide necessary information.
D) is not likely to deteriorate during transfer.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client brought to the ED after suffering amputation of a toe. The nurse should take care to avoid
A) cleansing the stump area with normal saline.
B) placing the toe directly on ice.
C) placing the wrapped toe in a plastic bag.
D) wrapping the toe in sterile gauze moistened with saline.
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