Fundamentals of Nursing Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the foundational principles and skills necessary for effective nursing practice. The course covers essential topics such as patient care, safety, hygiene, infection control, vital signs assessment, communication, documentation, and the nursing process. Through a blend of theoretical instruction and practical laboratory sessions, students develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and compassionate care techniques to support patients' physical and emotional well-being. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, cultural competence, and teamwork within healthcare settings, preparing students to provide holistic and patient-centered care in diverse environments.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 16th Edition by Clayton
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50 Chapters
994 Verified Questions
994 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information
Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most authoritative reference for medications that are injected?
A)Physician's Desk Reference
B)Handbook on Injectable Drugs
C)DailyMed
D)Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is transcribing new orders written for a patient with a substance abuse history.Choose the medication ordered that has the greatest risk for abuse.
A)Lomotil
B)Diazepam
C)Phenobarbital
D)Lortab
Answer: D
Q3) Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
A)USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names
B)Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database
C)United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)
D)Drug Interaction Facts
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug
Interactions
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When obtaining a patient's health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism?
A)History of liver disease
B)Intake of a vegetarian diet
C)Sedentary lifestyle
D)Teacher as an occupation
Answer: A
Q2) A patient receives 200 mg of a medication that has a half life of 12 hours.How many mg of the drug would remain in the patient's after 24 hours?
Answer: 50
The half life is defined as the amount of time required for 50% of the drug to be eliminated from the body.If a patient is given 200 mg of a drug that has a half life of 12 hours, then 50 mg of the drug would remain in the body after 24 hours.
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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the ideal time for a nursing mother to take her own medications?
A)Before the infant latches on to begin to breastfeed
B)As soon as the mother wakes up in the morning
C)Right before the mother goes to sleep at night
D)As soon as the infant finishes breastfeeding
Answer: D
Q2) Which life threatening illness may occur as a result of aspirin (salicylate) administration during viral illness to patients younger than 20 years of age?
A)Anaphylactic shock
B)Reye's syndrome
C)Chickenpox
D)Influenza A
Answer: B
Q3) Which drugs cause birth defects?
A)Teratogens
B)Carcinogens
C)Metabolites
D)Placebos
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the priority nursing diagnosis for an older adult with diabetes who is hospitalized for pneumonia?
A)Deficient knowledge related to lack of information about diabetic medication
B)Risk for falls related to weakness
C)Impaired gas exchange related to decreased pulmonary ventilation
D)Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements related to obesity
Q2) Which statement regarding nursing diagnoses is accurate?
A)Nursing diagnoses remain the same for as long as the disease is present.
B)Nursing diagnoses are written to identify disease states.
C)Nursing diagnoses describe patient problems that nurses treat.
D)Nursing diagnoses identify causes related to illness.
Q3) The nurse is prioritizing care of a pediatric patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse consider the highest priority?
A)Risk for altered nutrition: less than body related to decreased appetite
B)Altered breathing pattern related to thickened mucus secretions
C)Knowledge deficit related to disease process
D)Impaired skin integrity related to decreased mobility
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Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse and patient are participating in cooperative goal setting regarding drug therapy.The nurse is aware that it is imperative to encourage the patient to perform which task(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Contact the hospital for advice regarding discontinuation of medication.
B)Keep records of essential data needed to evaluate prescribed therapy.
C)See the health care provider regularly.
D)Avoid community based agencies for assistance.
E)Monitor parameters used to evaluate therapy.
Q2) Which is the most intangible portion of the learning process?
A)Cognitive
B)Affective
C)Psychomotor
D)Eminent
Q3) The nurse caring for a Spanish speaking patient uses the assistance of an interpreter to help with preoperative teaching.While implementing the education, the nurse should:
A)look directly at the patient.
B)never use pantomime gestures.
C)ask lengthy questions to provide clarity.
D)ask a family member to assist with interpretation.
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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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Sample Questions
Q1) 15 kg = _____ lb
Q2) 5/12 * 3/4 = _____
Q3) 1/0.5 = _____
Q4) 200 mL of solution containing 2 g of boric acid in water: _____
Q5) 1 1/2 - 7/11 = _____
Q6) 1 tbs = _____ tsp
Q7) 1 L = _____ mL
Q8) 300/125* 5/1 = _____
Q9) 1.5 + 0.75 = _____
Q10) 0.6 ÷ 2 = _____
Q11) 10 7/9 - 6 1/6 = _____
Q12) 0.5 = _____
Q13) Zephrin chloride solution 1:5000 is ordered for an irrigation.How much 1:2000 stock solution is needed to prepare 1000 mL? _____ mL
Q14) 1 kg = _____ pounds
Q15) 0.125 + 0.25 = _____
Q16) 32% = _____ (ratio), _____ (fraction), _____ (decimal)
Q17) 10,000 * 0.75 = _____
Q18) 1/18 + 1/9 + 1/12 + 1/4 = _____
Q19) 0.125 * 10 = _____
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Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is medication reconciliation?
A)Comparing the patient's current medication orders to all of the medications actually being taken
B)The administration of high alert medications that have been ordered on admission to an acute care facility
C)The completion of an incident report following a variance that resulted in a serious complication
D)A printout of computerized patient data that identifies the times that all of the ordered medications are to be administered
Q2) Which medication route provides the most rapid onset of a medication, but also poses the greatest risk of adverse effects?
A)Intradermal
B)Subcutaneous (subcut)
C)Intramuscular (IM)
D)Intravenous (IV)
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying nitroglycerin topically, which nursing intervention is correct?
A)Secure the paper on two sides with tape.
B)Shave the area prior to application of the paper.
C)Wear gloves while placing the new paper.
D)Remind the patient to discontinue use of the medication if chest pain is relieved.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin ointment.Which is an advantage of this form of the medication?
A)It does not give the patient a bad taste in the mouth.
B)The amount of ointment does not matter in obtaining a therapeutic response.
C)It does not cause headaches as an adverse effect.
D)It provides relief of anginal pain for several hours longer than sublingual medication.
Q3) Which action will the nurse perform when doing a wet to dry dressing every 4 hours on a patient with a deep wound?
A)Pack the wound tightly with gauze.
B)Saturate the dressing with as much liquid as possible.
C)Use Montgomery tapes or a binder to secure the dressing.
D)Apply the new moist dressing over the existing one.
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Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a medication in tablet form to a patient.In administering this medication, the nurse will encourage the patient to:
A)drink a large amount of water prior to administration so that swallowing is easier.
B)place the medication on the front of the tongue.
C)keep the head forward while swallowing.
D)minimize the amount of fluid taken following medication administration.
Q2) Which is a characteristic of medication administration via the rectal route?
A)Irritation of the mouth
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Bypassing of the digestive enzymes
D)Use of the first pass metabolism
Q3) An adult patient is to receive 10 mL of cough syrup at 0800.The nurse can prepare to administer this medication in a(n): (Select all that apply.)
A)soufflé cup.
B)medicine cup.
C)oral syringe.
D)teaspoon.
E)nipple.
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Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the syringe contains the calibrations for drug volume measurement?
A)Plunger
B)Tip
C)Luer Lok
D)Barrel
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer insulin.What does U 100 indicate?
A)100 mL per unit
B)10 units per mL
C)100 units per mL
D)10 units per 100 mL
Q3) An adult patient is to receive two medications IM.Which action by the nurse is most important in order to mix the medications in one syringe?
A)Assess for the presence of adequate muscle mass.
B)Ensure that the combined medication amount is less than 2 mL.
C)Determine the compatibility of the medications.
D)Use a needle that is 25 gauge.
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13
Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique by the nurse is accurate when administering heparin to a thin, older adult patient?
A)Aspirate before injecting the medication.
B)Inject at a 45-degree angle.
C)Inject at a 90-degree angle.
D)Massage site following injection.
Q2) The vastus lateralis muscle is appropriate for injections for which patient(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Children younger than 3 years of age
B)Elderly
C)Debilitated
D)Nonambulatory
E)Ambulatory
F)Healthy
Q3) Which parenteral route has the longest absorption time?
A)Intradermal
B)Subcut
C)IM
D)Intravenous (IV)
14
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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which potential complication will the nurse expect in patients with a venous access device?
A)Circulatory overload
B)Extravasation
C)Infection
D)Pain
Q2) What is the composition of hypotonic intravenous solutions such as 0.45% NaCl?
A)Fewer dissolved particles than blood
B)Approximately the same number of dissolved particles as blood
C)Higher concentrations of dissolved particles than blood
D)Electrolytes and dextrose
Q3) A patient is admitted with hypovolemia resulting from lack of fluid intake and requires an infusion of isotonic fluids.Which IV solution will the nurse administer?
A)D<sub>5</sub>0.2 NS
B)D<sub>5</sub>W
C)0.45 NS
D)0.9 NS
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15
Chapter 13: Drugs That Affect the Central Nervous System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s) is/are true about efferent nerves? (Select all that apply.)
A)They transmit signals to the spinal cord and brain.
B)They leave the CNS to carry impulses to other body parts.
C)They are part of the peripheral nervous system.
D)They transmit signals that control contractions of smooth and skeletal muscle.
E)They transmit signals that control contractions of some glandular secretions.
Q2) Which disorder(s) would indicate the use of anticholinergic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A)Glaucoma
B)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
C)Bradycardia
D)Parkinson's disease
E)Preparation for surgery
F)Stimulation of the vagus nerve
Q3) A patient with Parkinson's disease asks the nurse why anticholinergics are used in the treatment.Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A)"These drugs help you urinate."
B)"These drugs will decrease your eye pressure."
C)"These drugs inhibit the action of acetylcholine."
D)"These drugs will assist in lowering your heart rate."
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Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an older patient recently admitted to an assisted living center who is experiencing insomnia associated with the recent relocation.At bedtime, which nursing action will assist the patient to sleep?
A)Offering the patient hot tea
B)Encouraging the patient to ambulate in the hallway
C)Performing back massage
D)Administering an analgesic
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient prior to discharge from same day surgery following an incisional breast biopsy.When assessing the patient's central nervous system (CNS) function following sedative hypnotic therapy, what will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A)Level of alertness
B)Orientation
C)Ability to perform motor functions
D)Blood pressure
E)Usual pattern of sleep
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Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pharmacologic action of entacapone, a potent catechol O methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor?
A)Slows the deterioration of dopaminergic nerve cells
B)Inhibits the relative excess of dopaminergic activity
C)Reduces the destruction of dopamine in peripheral tissues
D)Enhances the cholinergic symptoms of Parkinson's disease
Q2) The nurse is preparing to begin administration of apomorphine to a patient.Before administering, the nurse will perform a baseline assessment of the patient's: (Select all that apply.)
A)mobility.
B)orientation.
C)intellectual ability.
D)alertness.
E)vital signs.
Q3) What is the rationale for administering levodopa instead of dopamine for treatment of Parkinson's disease?
A)Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier when administered orally.
B)Levodopa is much less expensive.
C)The half life of dopamine is too short.
D)Dopamine has too many reactions with other medications.
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Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment(s) would be included in the evaluation of a patient with anxiety?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Physical examination
B)Psychological evaluation
C)History of precipitation stressors
D)Medication history
E)Substance abuse history
F)Blood glucose level
Q2) A newly admitted psychiatric patient repetitively states, "I wish I were dead.I just want to kill myself." The priority nursing at this time is to:
A)establish a trusting relationship.
B)encourage a nonstimulating environment.
C)provide for patient safety.
D)identify signs of increased anxiety.
Q3) Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence?
A)It is easier to treat than physiological dependence.
B)It is not considered a true addiction.
C)It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions.
D)It requires medical intervention to treat.
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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lithium (Eskalith) is the drug of choice for which of the following disorders?
A)Psychotic episodes
B)Obsessive compulsive disorders (OCDs)
C)Bipolar disorders
D)Depressive disorders
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking a newly prescribed drug, nefazodone, for treatment of depression.Which physical assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider immediately?
A)Bradycardia
B)Dizziness
C)Drowsiness
D)Urinary retention
Q3) Which psychological manifestation of depression will improve in response to antidepressant therapy?
A)Loss of energy
B)Palpitations
C)Sleep disturbances
D)Social withdrawal
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking clozapine (Clozaril) to have weekly blood tests for the first 6 months of treatment to monitor for which potential complication?
A)Agranulocytosis
B)Vitamin deficiencies
C)Clotting abnormalities
D)Polycythemia
Q2) Which is/are extrapyramidal adverse effect(s) of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.)
A)Spasmodic movements of muscle groups
B)Masklike expression
C)Lip smacking
D)Inability to sit in one place for an extended period
E)Weight gain
Q3) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A)Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B)Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C)Milligram doses used for the medication
D)Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is included in the nursing management of the patient with generalized tonic clonic seizure activity? (Select all that apply.)
A)Restraining the patient's arms to avoid further injury
B)Placing padding around or under the patient's head
C)Attempting to insert a tongue depressor into the patient's mouth
D)Positioning the patient on the side once the relaxation stage is entered to allow oral secretions to drain
E)Requesting additional assistance and/or necessary equipment in case the patient does not begin breathing spontaneously when the seizure is over
Q2) What information would be most important for the nurse to provide to a patient when teaching about the adverse effects of succinimide therapy?
A)Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion are common during the initiation of therapy.
B)Avoid taking the medication with food or milk to minimize adverse effects.
C)Sedation, drowsiness, and dizziness tend to worsen with continued therapy.
D)Reducing the dosage of medication will relieve symptoms of nausea.
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22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient who is starting therapy with NSAIDs, the nurse must be sure to mention drug interactions with which drug(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Warfarin (Coumadin)
B)Lithium (Eskalith)
C)Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D)Insulin
E)Diuretics
F)Digitalis (Digoxin)
Q2) A patient is taking meperidine (Demerol) as needed for moderate to severe pain following an open appendectomy.The nurse assesses the following: current pain level 2, temperature 99° F, BP 130/76, respirations 10, lung sounds clear, abdomen soft and tender, bowel sounds present.Based on this assessment information, the priority nursing diagnosis is:
A)altered breathing pattern.
B)risk for altered body temperature.
C)risk for constipation.
D)pain.
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic syndrome includes which key characteristic(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Abdominal obesity
C)Low high density lipoproteins
D)Hypertension
E)Osteoporosis
Q2) Weight: 140 pounds.Height: 5 feet 4 inches.What is the BMI?
Q3) What is the incidence of metabolic syndrome in the United States?
A)1 in 4000
B)1 in 400
C)1 in 40
D)1 in 4
Q4) Which ethnic group or gender is at greatest risk for developing metabolic syndrome?
A)Hispanic women
B)Asian men
C)African American men
D)White women
Q5) Weight: 70 kilograms.Height: 164 cm (1.65 m).What is the BMI?
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has completed an admitting patient history and notes the patient's current medications to be simvastatin (Zocor) and warfarin (Coumadin).What is the result of the interaction of these drugs?
A)Abdominal distention
B)Increased INR
C)Low serum level of simvastatin
D)Hypertension
Q2) Which antilipemic agent is most potent?
A)Niacin
B)HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
C)Bile acid-binding resin
D)Fibric acid
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated for hyperlipidemia.Which assessment will most increase the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A)Blood pressure, 168/90 mm Hg
B)Hemoglobin A<sub>1c</sub>, 6%
C)Walks 3 miles briskly, usually 4 days a week
D)Eats five servings of fruits and vegetables daily
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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to assess blood pressure on a patient who has had two prior readings of 160/100.Physician's notes from a prior visit indicate that the patient is suspected to have hypertension.When reassessing this patient for hypertension, the nurse will do what? (Select all that apply.)
A)Instruct patient to sit on the exam table.
B)Choose a cuff encircling at least 80% of the arm.
C)Support patients arm at heart level.
D)Encourage patient to sit quietly for 5 minutes before assessing blood pressure.
E)Instruct the patient that one more increased reading is required before hypertension is diagnosed.
Q2) Which common adverse effect of an angiotensin II receptor antagonist will the nurse expect to assess in a patient?
A)Bradycardia
B)Headache
C)Hypokalemia
D)Insomnia
Q3) If blood pressure is 120/70, what is the MAP?
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Q1) A patient is taking amiodarone (Cordarone) for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and begins to complain of dizziness.What will the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A)Discontinue the medication immediately.
B)Decrease the medication dosage for 1 week, and then resume the original order.
C)Change positions slowly.
D)Increase the dosage per health care provider directions.
Q2) Amiodarone is contraindicated for patients with which condition?
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Severe sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer procainamide hydrochloride for the first time to a patient newly diagnosed with atrial fibrillation.Before administering this medication, the nurse will assess: (Select all that apply.)
A)cardiac rhythm.
B)blood pressure.
C)oxygen saturation.
D)blood glucose levels.
E)liver function tests.
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Page 27
Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) When are sustained release nitroglycerin tablets administered?
A)Once a day
B)At bedtime
C)When symptoms of acute angina appear
D)Every 8 to 12 hours
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin prior to discharge to home.Which instruction will the nurse provide the patient?
A)"Report any headaches following self administration to your health care provider."
B)"Carry the medication in a pocket directly next to the body."
C)"Carry the medication with you at all times."
D)"Store nitroglycerin in a clear glass container with a tight lid."
Q3) Which statement about ranolazine (Ranexa), a fatty oxidase enzyme inhibitor, is true?
A)It causes coronary artery vasodilation.
B)It causes no gastrointestinal (GI) side effects.
C)It causes QT interval prolongation.
D)It elevates LDL levels.
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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing the patient's leg for peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and is unable to palpate the pedal pulse in either foot.Which action will the nurse take first?
A)Contact the health care provider for further orders.
B)Request x-ray studies of the lower extremities.
C)Request that the patient lie flat.
D)Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation.
Q2) The nurse advises a patient taking papaverine to consult the health care provider or pharmacist before taking which over the counter (OTC) medication?
A)Laxatives
B)Cough and cold remedies
C)Vitamin supplements
D)Acetaminophen
Q3) The nurse observes a patient taking papaverine hydrochloride to be flushed and diaphoretic following the initial dose.The nurse's best response is to:
A)hold the next dose.
B)assess blood glucose.
C)provide comfort measures.
D)immediately notify the physician.
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has provided instruction to a patient recently prescribed warfarin (Coumadin).Which statement by the patient indicates to the nurse the need for further teaching?
A)"I will always wear a medical alert bracelet."
B)"I will check with my health care provider before I take any OTC medications."
C)"I will be careful when I use a knife or other sharp objects."
D)"I will rinse my mouth with mouthwash instead of brushing my teeth."
Q2) Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is ordered on a patient following knee replacement surgery.When providing education on this medication to the patient, the nurse conveys that treatment will continue:
A)only while hospitalized.
B)for 35 days postsurgically.
C)for 12 days postsurgically.
D)as long as creatinine clearance is less than 30.
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of drugs used to treat thromboembolic disease?
A)Dissolving clots and preventing formation of new clots
B)Making platelets more flexible and preventing formation of new clots
C)Causing vasodilation and increased blood flow
D)Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation
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Page 30
Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51072
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse monitors a patient receiving digoxin closely for toxicity when which other medication is prescribed?
A)Potassium supplements
B)Furosemide (Lasix)
C)Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
D)Antibiotics
Q2) Which instruction by the nurse will be included when teaching an adult patient about digoxin (Lanoxin) for management of heart failure?
A)"Report nausea and vomiting to your health care provider."
B)"Decrease the amount of high potassium foods you eat."
C)"Omit your dose of digoxin if your pulse is 60 beats/min."
D)"Visual disturbances are common adverse effects."
Q3) Which statements about vasodilators is/are true? (Select all that apply.)
A)They reduce systemic vascular resistance.
B)They increase afterload.
C)They reduce preload.
D)They decrease pulmonary congestion.
E)They increase tissue perfusion to muscles and organs.
F)They increase the volume of blood returning to the heart.
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Page 31
Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51073
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition warrants the use of acetazolamide (Diamox) as a diuretic?
A)Increased intracranial pressure
B)Increased extravascular fluid pressure
C)Increased intraocular pressure
D)Periorbital edema
Q2) How soon will diuresis be expected to occur after the nurse has administered 20 mg of furosemide (Lasix) intravenously (IV) to a patient with heart failure?
A)As soon as injected
B)Within 10 minutes
C)After 2 hours
D)After 4 hours
Q3) The nurse is reviewing lab work received on a patient admitted with the diagnosis of dehydration.The nurse will notify the physician of which lab value?
A)Serum sodium level: 115 mEq/L
B)Serum potassium level: 5.0 mEq/L
C)Serum sodium level: 140 mEq/L
D)Serum potassium level: 3.5 mEq/L
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32
Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51074
Sample Questions
Q1) What initiates the sneeze reflex?
A)Stimulation of the vagus nerve
B)Irritation of the nasal mucosa by foreign particulate matter
C)Stimulation of the tonsils
D)Enervation of the olfactory cranial nerve
Q2) Which action(s) is/are true of antihistamines? (Select all that apply.)
A)Reduce inflammation locally
B)Antagonize H<sub>1</sub> receptors
C)May be administered orally
D)Are systemically distributed
E)Reduce nasal congestion
Q3) Which medication may be given to patients with allergic seasonal rhinitis who do not respond to antihistamines and sympathomimetics?
A)Leukotrienes
B)Mineralocorticoids
C)Corticosteroids
D)Cortisol
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33
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent) to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy?
A)Anxiety
B)Dry mouth
C)Tachycardia
D)Urine retention
Q2) The health care provider in an outpatient clinic has prescribed omalizumab (Xolair) to a patient.Which primary outcome will the nurse teach the patient to expect?
A)Easier expectoration of phlegm
B)Less frequent asthma exacerbations
C)Increased moisture of the mucous membranes
D)Liquefaction of thick secretions
Q3) What is the reason for administering potassium iodide to a patient with emphysema?
A)To increase blood iodide levels
B)To decrease mucus viscosity
C)To reduce metabolic needs of the body
D)To decrease bronchial irritation
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Page 34
Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51076
Sample Questions
Q1) What will the nurse include when educating a 12-year-old patient about care of a cold sore? (Select all that apply.)
A)"Keep the cold sore clean with mild soap."
B)"Use an astringent to assist in drying the cold sore and promote rapid healing."
C)"Keep the cold sore moist to prevent cracking."
D)"Note signs of infection, including the presence of pus.Contact the health care provider if this occurs."
E)"Oral analgesics may help alleviate pain."
Q2) In addition to discomfort, which are adverse effects of xerostomia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Reduced taste and appetite
B)Excessive salivation
C)Difficulty chewing and swallowing food
D)Increase in dental caries
E)Difficulty with speech
F)Improved taste and enjoyment of food
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Diseases
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking NSAIDs to treat arthritis asks the nurse why misoprostol has also been prescribed.Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A)NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers.
B)NSAIDs promote the production of prostaglandins and reduce the incidence of gastric irritation.
C)Antiulcer medications eradicate the presence of bacteria in the stomach that cause ulcers.
D)Drug interactions are prevented when antiulcer medications are used in combination with NSAIDs.
Q2) Which is considered an acceptable time frame for a patient with gastric distress to self medicate with over the counter antacids?
A)Hours
B)Days
C)Weeks
D)Months
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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which herb has been used in many cultures to provide relief of nausea associated with pregnancy?
A)Mint
B)Hyssop
C)Echinacea
D)Ginger
Q2) Why is drug therapy important for selected causes of nausea and vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A)Relieves the distress associated with nausea and vomiting
B)Prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lung
C)Prevents dehydration
D)Prevents electrolyte imbalances
E)Increases intracranial pressure
Q3) What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan) IV postoperatively?
A)Prolong the effects of anesthesia.
B)Decrease the potential for thrombus formation.
C)Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.
D)Decrease postoperative pain.
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Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51079
Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom is the patient with a lactase deficiency most likely to exhibit?
A)Constipation
B)Excessive salivation
C)Diarrhea
D)Vomiting
Q2) The nurse in a long term care facility is preparing to pass medications to the residents.To which of the following residents should the nurse administer an antidiarrheal? (Select all that apply.)
A)An 80-year-old woman with diarrhea of sudden onset that has lasted 3 days
B)A 76-year-old man with infectious diarrhea
C)A 92-year-old man with diarrhea secondary to inflammatory bowel disease
D)A 70-year-old woman with a history chronic diarrhea from GI surgery
E)An 88-year-old man that has had two episodes of stress induced diarrhea
Q3) Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a patient taking psyllium?
A)"Administer with a full glass of water."
B)"Limit the intake of high fiber foods."
C)"Avoid mixing in juice."
D)"Fat soluble vitamin deficiency is common."
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Page 38
Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is educating a patient with diabetes mellitus regarding urine testing for ketones.Information provided will include that ketone testing should be done: (Select all that apply.)
A)when illness occurs.
B)during pregnancy.
C)before and after physical exercise.
D)when blood glucose is above usual range.
E)every morning upon awakening.
Q2) A patient received the evening dose of Lispro subcutaneously at 1630.What time will symptoms of hypoglycemia likely occur?
A)1900
B)1830
C)0130
D)0600
Q3) Which is the most important for the successful management of diabetes mellitus?
A)A network of community resources
B)The level of self management
C)Preventative education
D)Frequent follow up with the health care provider
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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51081
Sample Questions
Q1) What is characteristic of antithyroid drugs that act on the thyroid gland? (Select all that apply.)
A)They are a physiologic hormone replacement.
B)They block synthesis of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub> in the thyroid gland.
C)They destroy T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>.
D)Immediate improvement is observed.
E)They may be used before subtotal thyroidectomy.
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of propylthiouracil?
A)Blocks reuptake of thyroid hormone in the liver
B)Destroys hormone in the thyroid gland
C)Increases synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
D)Blocks synthesis of hormone in the thyroid gland
Q3) The nurse is providing instruction to a patient recently prescribed a radioactive iodine isotope.Which is the correct action of this medication?
A)Stimulates the synthesis of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub> hormones
B)Increases the storage of thyroxine before thyroid surgery
C)Destroys hyperactive thyroid tissue
D)Replaces deficient thyroid hormone
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just received a new prescription for a corticosteroid medication.The nurse is educating a patient on symptoms to report to the health care provider.When providing this education, the nurse will inform the patient to report: (Select all that apply.)
A)productive cough.
B)dyspnea.
C)confusion.
D)chest pain.
E)weight gain.
F)None of above
Q2) A patient on a high dosage of corticosteroids over a period of time may develop which type of psychiatric complication?
A)Lethargy
B)Psychotic behaviors
C)Manic phases
D)Anxiety attacks
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching a patient about estrogen therapy, which drug(s) will the nurse identify as causing drug interactions? (Select all that apply.)
A)Diazepam (Valium)
B)Warfarin (Coumadin)
C)Thyroid hormones
D)Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E)Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Q2) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with seizures about estrogen therapy?
A)Phenytoin reduces the effectiveness of estrogen.
B)Estrogen reduces the effectiveness of phenytoin.
C)Phenytoin may inhibit the metabolism of estrogen.
D)Estrogen may inhibit the metabolism of phenytoin.
Q3) Which statement is true regarding androgen therapy?
A)Androgen use may cause hyperglycemia.
B)Androgen should be administered with food or milk to avoid gastric irritation.
C)Signs of masculinization will appear and are reversible.
D)Electrolyte imbalances are extremely rare.
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Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is characterized by seizures?
A)Pregnancy induced hypertension
B)Preeclampsia
C)Eclampsia
D)Premature rupture of membranes
Q2) The nurse administers hydralazine IV to control the blood pressure of a woman diagnosed with preeclampsia.If the nurse administered this medication at 0800, the next assessment of blood pressure should occur at:
A)0803.
B)0815.
C)0830.
D)1000.
Q3) Which assessment(s) will the nurse complete during routine pregnancy visits?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Blood pressure
B)Hemoglobin
C)Weight
D)Fetal heart sounds
E)Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
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Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy asks why tamsulosin (Flomax), an alpha<sub>1</sub> adrenergic blocking agent, has been prescribed.Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A)It inhibits the action of testosterone.
B)It improves sexual function.
C)It reduces the size of the prostate.
D)It increases urinary flow.
Q2) What is the mechanism whereby estrogen functions as a contraceptive?
A)Inhibiting luteinizing hormone (LH), blocking release of ovum from a follicle
B)Thinning cervical mucus, which inhibits sperm migration
C)Trapping the ovum in the endometrial wall, preventing its growth
D)Blocking follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), thereby preventing release of ovum
Q3) Why must caution be used when taking a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to enhance male sexual function?
A)It can become habit forming.
B)Life-threatening consequences can occur with cardiovascular disorders.
C)It is an ineffective treatment.
D)It is expensive and available only by special prescription.
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44
Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 14-year-old male is taking tolterodine (Detrol).What is the action of this drug?
A)Restores bladder tone and function
B)Decreases the urge to void
C)Prevents urinary retention
D)Acidifies urine
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a single dose packet of fosfomycin to a patient diagnosed with a UTI.When preparing this medication, the nurse will:
A)pour contents into a souffle cup and administer by mouth.
B)mix with 3 mL of normal saline and inject subcutaneously.
C)pour contents into 90 mL of juice, stir, and administer by mouth.
D)mix contents with 120 mL of water and administer by mouth.
Q3) What is the action of urinary antimicrobial agents?
A)Reduce pain associated with bladder spasms caused by the infection
B)Enhance output enough to flush out the infection from the urinary tract
C)Eliminate urinary retention
D)Have an antiseptic effect on the urine and the urinary tract
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51087
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the action of timolol maleate (Timoptic), a beta adrenergic blocking agent?
A)Draws aqueous humor from the eye into the circulatory network
B)Increases the production of aqueous humor
C)Increases the outflow of aqueous humor
D)Decreases the production of aqueous humor
Q2) Which medication is used to produce miosis following a diagnostic procedure?
A)Pilocarpine (Pilocar)
B)Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C)Atropine (Isopto Atropine)
D)Epinephrine (EpiPen)
Q3) What information will the nurse include when instructing a patient on the correct method of instilling eye drops? (Select all that apply.)
A)With an infection, prevent cross contamination and use a separate source of medication and droppers for each eye.
B)Wash hands before and after administration.
C)Place the lid on the surface area as instructed to avoid contamination.
D)Never touch the tip of the dropper or opening of the ointment container.
E)Wipe eye from the outer to inner canthus.
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51088
Sample Questions
Q1) The cell cycle-specific agent vincristine sulphate (Oncovin) acts in which phase of the cell's life cycle?
A)S phase
B)Mitotic phase
C)Phase G<sub>1</sub>
D)Phase G<sub>0</sub>
Q2) The nurse is educating a patient with cancer about combination chemotherapy.Which is an accurate statement?
A)"Combination chemotherapy is the administration of an antineoplastic drug that will be toxic during a specific phase of cellular growth."
B)"Combination chemotherapy is the administration of an antineoplastic drug that is active throughout the cell cycle."
C)"Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs that change the way the body responds to cancer or strengthens the immune system."
D)"Combination chemotherapy is the administration of antineoplastic drugs, which results in cell death during different phases of the cell cycle."
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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms resulting from a back injury?
A)Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B)Morphine sulfate
C)Bethanechol (Urecholine)
D)Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Q2) The nurse receives a conscious patient from the postoperative unit after administration of a neuromuscular blocker.Once the patient's vital signs are stable, the best position for the nurse to assist the patient into is _____ position.
A)Sims'
B)semi-Fowler's
C)supine
D)prone
Q3) Which common adverse effects occur with neuromuscular-blocking agents?
A)Fever
B)Flushing
C)Nausea
D)Ataxia
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect?
A)Hepatic toxicity
B)Ototoxicity
C)Nephrotoxicity
D)Splenotoxicity
Q2) A patient has been receiving home health care and IV antimicrobial therapy for osteomyelitis (infection of the bone) of the lower right leg for the past 4 weeks.What will the nurse assess to evaluate the effectiveness of the antimicrobial agent? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pain of the right leg
B)Patient temperature
C)Presence of edema, redness, or swelling in the right lower leg
D)Culture and sensitivity parameters at the drug completion
E)Complete blood count (CBC) and sedimentation rate laboratory values
Q3) Which patient can safely be treated with a fluoroquinolone medication?
A)A 40 year old on steroid therapy
B)A 15 year old with a sore throat
C)A 70 year old with a gait abnormality
D)A 30 year old with a fractured tibia
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Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly admitted patient asks the nurse why the physician has ordered the DASH diet for him.The nurse informs the patient that this diet is ordered to encourage healthy eating specifically for the diagnosis of:
A)diabetes.
B)hypertension.
C)arthritis.
D)seizure disorder.
Q2) Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber?
A)Eggs, bacon, orange juice
B)Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach
C)Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk
D)Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips
Q3) A patient is being discharged on psyllium (Metamucil).Which explanation(s) by the nurse would be accurate regarding fiber intake? (Select all that apply.)
A)It adds bulk to fecal content.
B)It enhances gastric emptying.
C)It decreases blood cholesterol concentration.
D)It decreases postprandial blood glucose concentration.
E)It stimulates the appetite.
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Page 50
Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system?
A)Aloe
B)Echinacea
C)Chamomile
D)Ginger
Q2) Which statement about dietary supplements is true?
A)Dietary supplements are considered safe and effective.
B)Dietary supplements have not been tested for safety or efficacy.
C)There are no serious adverse effects to taking dietary supplements.
D)Dietary supplements have full FDA and USP approval.
Q3) What is St.John's wort used to treat?
A)Rheumatoid arthritis
B)Asthma
C)Depression
D)Viral infections
Q4) What is black cohosh used for?
A)Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester
B)Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
C)Providing antispasmodic activity of the gastrointestinal (GI) system
D)Controlling migraine headaches
51
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clonidine (Catapres) is used in treating which opioid withdrawal symptom(s)?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Hypertension
B)Tremors
C)Agitation
D)Depression
E)Sweating
F)Nausea
Q2) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?
A)It indicates illegal drug use.
B)It verifies drug dependency.
C)It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.
D)It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.
Q3) A nurse working the night shift suspects that a colleague is abusing alcohol.Which action by the nurse is most important?
A)"Good faith" reporting is unfaithful to a colleague.
B)Reporting will result in loss of the colleague's license.
C)It is not of concern, and the nurse won't be penalized for refusing to get involved.
D)State guidelines may mandate to report substance abuse.
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Page 52
Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in a long term care facility is caring for a resident diagnosed with moderate dementia.The physician recently started the resident on tacrine (Cognex).Baseline serum ALT levels were completed.The nurse will ensure that follow up ALT levels will be done:
A)every other week for 16 weeks, then monthly.
B)once a month then yearly.
C)every 6 months.
D)once a year.
Q2) Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine?
A)Administer the medication subcutaneously.
B)Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8 ounce glasses daily.
C)Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.
D)Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of memantine (Namenda)?
A)Increases production of dopamine
B)Decreases production of serotonin
C)Blocks N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors in the central nervous system (CNS)
D)Enhances reuptake of central neurotransmitters
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