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Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential concepts, skills, and professional behaviors required in nursing practice. The course covers foundational topics such as health assessment, infection control, patient safety, communication, vital signs measurement, documentation, and basic patient care techniques. Emphasis is placed on the nursing process, critical thinking, ethical and legal considerations, and the development of compassionate, culturally competent care. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical experiences, students begin to develop the competence and confidence necessary to deliver holistic nursing care across diverse health care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing in Canada 3rd Canadian Edition by Lewis
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72 Chapters
1742 Verified Questions
1742 Flashcards
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Q1) An emaciated older adult patient is admitted to the critical care unit.The nurse plans a schedule of turning the patient every two hours to prevent skin breakdown.This is considered to be what type of nursing action?
A) Dependent
B) Cooperative
C) Independent
D) Collaborative
Answer: D
Q2) Which phase of the nursing process is too often not addressed sufficiently?
A) Planning
B) Diagnosis
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Answer: D
Q3) Which characteristic is consistent with critical thinking?
A) Do not use abstract ideas.
B) Think within alternative systems of thought.
C) Encourage cooperative relationships from positions of power and authority.
D) Use the trial-and-error method for effective problem-solving options.
Answer: B

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Q1) A recent RN graduate is assessing a newly admitted non-English-speaking Chinese patient.Which action would alert the preceptor to intervene and assist the nurse with culturally appropriate care?
A) Sitting down at the bedside
B) Calling for a medical interpreter
C) Beginning the physical assessment with palpation
D) Avoiding eye contact with the patient
Answer: C
Q2) What is a primary factor that shapes the health of Canadians?
A) Medical treatments
B) Living conditions
C) Lifestyle choices
D) Obesity
Answer: B
Q3) Which best describes culturally appropriate nursing care?
A) Asking permission to touch a patient
B) Avoiding questions about male-female relationships
C) Explaining how Western medical care differs from cultural folk remedies
D) Applying knowledge of a culture to patients of the same cultural group
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does a negative finding obtained from the patient during the initial nursing history indicate?
A) The patient is healthy.
B) The symptom related to the specific health problem presented is delayed.
C) The patient uses health promotion practices.
D) A symptom normally associated with the patient's health problem is absent.
Answer: D
Q2) When assessing using mediated percussion,which finger of which hand will the nurse use on the patient's body?
A) Middle finger of dominant hand
B) Index finger of dominant hand
C) Middle finger of nondominant hand
D) Index finger of nondominant hand
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is a technique to enhance patient learning?
A) Keep patient expression of needs at a minimum.
B) Focus on "nice to know" information initially.
C) Emphasize relevancy of information to patient's lifestyle.
D) Maintain a formal physical environment at all times.
Q2) Which following teaching strategy is most efficient,versatile,and economical to implement?
A) Role play
B) Print materials
C) Lecture
D) Discussion
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with breast cancer following a needle biopsy of a breast lump.Considering the teaching process,what is the priority goal?
A) Learning to live with the disease
B) Selecting and using treatment options
C) Preventing the recurrence of the tumour
D) Minimizing the untoward effects of treatment
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Q1) Which patient history indicates multimorbidity?
A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a urinary tract infection
B) Chronic kidney disease requiring an appendectomy
C) Lung cancer and pneumonia
D) Diabetes with exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) Which characteristic reflects a nonmodifiable risk factor for chronic illness?
A) The risk factor cannot be changed.
B) The risk factor requires intervention in order to change.
C) The risk factor can be altered to benefit health outcomes.
D) The risk factor can be changed with patient perseverance.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an environment contextual factor according to the World Health Organizations' ICF Bio-Psycho-Social Model?
A) Social background
B) Behaviour pattern
C) Social attitudes
D) Coping style
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a foundational concept of home health nursing?
A) Acute care management
B) Health promotion
C) Chronic disease management
D) Health restoration
Q2) How should the nurse describe home care services to a patient requiring extended care?
A) Home care services are limited to visits by nurses or home health aides.
B) For the expenses of home care to be covered,the patient must be confined to bed.
C) The patient's family will need to be included in planning and teaching about the patient's care.
D) Technologically complex therapies,such as parenteral chemotherapy and mechanical ventilators,cannot be managed at home.
Q3) Which of the following is a key principle of primary health care?
A) Universal access to health care on an economic basis
B) Focus on acute illness and cure
C) Partnership with other professions and sectors for health
D) Individuals as passive recipients of health care
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Q1) Which of the following functions declines during old age?
A) Fluid intelligence
B) Spatial perception
C) Mental performance speed
D) Short-term recall memory
Q2) Which of the following is an appropriate approach that the nurse should use to facilitate learning in older adults?
A) Using peer educators
B) Avoiding issues of a personal nature
C) Presenting material quickly to avoid fatigue
D) Acknowledging the older adult's dependence
Q3) Which of the following is a normal physiological age-related change of the cardiovascular system?
A) Elastin and smooth muscle increases.
B) Vessel rigidity decreases.
C) Heart muscle decreases.
D) Mitral valve constriction increases.
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Q1) According to the general adaptation theory,which of the following occurs when a patient is in the alarm reaction phase?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Peripheral vasodilatation
C) Decreased stroke volume
D) Decreased gastrointestinal secretions
Q2) Which initial area is stimulated when an individual experiences stress?
A) Anterior pituitary gland
B) Hypothalamus
C) Adrenal cortex
D) Posterior pituitary gland
Q3) A woman is brought to the emergency department after she was assaulted in a shopping centre parking lot.Her purse was stolen,and she was thrown to the pavement,suffering minor abrasions and contusions.What finding related to the general adaptation syndrome would the nurse expect to find on assessment of the patient?
A) Uncontrolled sobbing
B) Repeatedly describing the attack
C) Hypoglycemia with tremors and hunger
D) Increased blood pressure,pulse,and respirations
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Q1) Which of the following is a common misconception about sleep in the older adult?
A) Older adults need less sleep than middle-aged adults.
B) Insomnia symptoms in the older adult frequently occur with depression.
C) Older female adults report more trouble falling asleep than their male counterparts.
D) Diabetes in the older adult can increase the prevalence of insomnia.
Q2) Which of the following is a relatively noninvasive method of monitoring rest and activity cycles?
A) Self-report
B) Actigraphy
C) Polysomnography
D) Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index
Q3) Healthy adults spend what percentage of sleep time in non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep?
A) 20% to 25%
B) 45% to 50%
C) 75% to 80%
D) 85% to 90%
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Q1) Which of the following is true of persistent pain?
A) It occurs within the normal healing time.
B) The course of pain decreases over time.
C) It is accompanied by an increased heart and pulse rate.
D) It is often accompanied by changes in affect and withdrawal from other people.
Q2) In developing a concept of pain to use in working with patients experiencing pain,what does the nurse acknowledge about pain?
A) Pain always causes suffering.
B) All pain serves a physiological purpose.
C) Pain is a phenomenon.
D) Pain is present whenever nociception occurs.
Q3) An 86-year-old man has severe degenerative arthritis in his hips.In planning care for the patient,what does the nurse recognize about chronic pain in an older adult?
A) It is more readily tolerated than in younger patients.
B) It does not require the use of narcotic drugs for control.
C) It is poorly tolerated because of past experiences with pain.
D) It is often believed by the patient to be an inevitable part of aging.
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Q1) While the night nurse is giving a morning report on a patient who has been admitted with an opiate overdose,one nurse says,"I don't know why we should waste our efforts on her.This is her third admission,and she'll be back on the needle as soon as we save her life." What is the most appropriate response by the night nurse to this remark?
A) "That's a totally unprofessional attitude,and you should be ashamed of yourself."
B) "You know the patient always comes first,even though we feel that way about her."
C) "You probably shouldn't care for this patient since you have such negative feelings about her."
D) "It is important for us to recognize and deal with the feelings we have about caring for difficult patients like this woman."
Q2) During which stage of alcohol withdrawal would the nurse expect to see a patient experience delirium tremens?
A) Early
B) Minor
C) Intermediate
D) Major
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Q1) Which of the following patients does the nurse deduce is seeing an alternative medical practitioner?
A) A patient who prevents and treats migraine headaches with acupuncture
B) A patient who uses progressive relaxation to control the nausea of cancer chemotherapy
C) A patient who supplements chiropractic manipulation for low back pain with muscle relaxants
D) A patient who takes vitamin and mineral supplements as treatment for gastrointestinal malabsorption
Q2) Which one of the following patients is most likely to use complementary and alternative therapies?
A) A patient who is a vegetarian
B) A patient who is of Asian heritage
C) A patient who is an older adults with a chronic condition
D) A patient who is pregnant
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Q1) The nurse consults with the physician to arrange a referral for hospice care for a patient with end-stage kidney disease,based on what knowledge regarding when hospice care is indicated?
A) Family members can no longer care for dying patients at home.
B) Patients and families are having difficulty coping with grief reactions.
C) Preparation for death with palliative care and comfort are the goals of care.
D) Patients have unmanageable pain and suffering as a result of their condition.
Q2) Which of the following is a lay term used to describe instructions about future medical care?
A) DNR orders
B) Living will
C) Advance directive
D) Power of attorney for personal care
Q3) For two months after a patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer,she did not admit that she was ill and in need of health care.What is the emotional response associated with this stage of grief?
A) Yearning and protest
B) Acceptance and accommodation
C) Denial,disbelief,and avoidance
D) Anger,despair,and confrontation
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Q1) A patient is brought to the health care facility with abdominal pain and fever.A complete blood count and white blood cell differential are completed and indicate a shift to the left.What does the nurse understand this finding to indicate?
A) An infection caused by pyogenic pathogens
B) An infection that is in the vascular response phase of inflammation
C) A chronic infection that stimulates the increased release of monocytes into the bloodstream
D) An acute inflammation with release of increased immature neutrophils into the circulation
Q2) During which stage of the febrile response would the nurse expect to see the patient sweating?
A) Chill
B) Flush
C) Prodromal
D) Defervescence
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Q1) When counselling parents about hemophilia A,an X-linked recessive trait,which of the following would be the basis for the nurse's response related to offspring?
A) Daughters will not be affected with the trait or be carriers.
B) Sons will not be affected with the trait or be carriers.
C) Fifty percent of sons will be normal,and 50% will be affected with the trait.
D) Fifty percent of daughters will be normal,and 50% will be affected with the trait.
Q2) When completing a pedigree,the nurse knows to use the symbol g (blue square)to denote which of the following?
A) Unknown sex,normal
B) Normal male
C) Female heterozygote
D) Affected male
Q3) What is the name given to a family tree that contains the genetic information and disorders of the family?
A) Genome
B) Hereditary
C) Phenotype
D) Pedigree
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Q1) A patient who is employed as a laboratory technician is scheduled for knee surgery.While obtaining a health history from the patient,the nurse learns that the patient has a history of allergic rhinitis,asthma,and multiple food allergies.What is most important that the nurse do with this information?
A) Document the allergic history,and be alert for the possibility of a type I latex allergy.
B) Encourage the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case a type IV allergic reaction to latex develops.
C) Advise the patient to use oil-based hand creams to decrease contact with natural proteins in latex gloves.
D) Recommend that the patient use vinyl gloves instead of latex gloves in preventing bloodborne pathogen contact.
Q2) Which of the following is a side effect of corticosteroids?
A) Peptic ulcers
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Decreased appetite
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Q1) A 24-year-old woman who uses injectable,illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing AIDS.The nurse should inform the patient that which of the following activities can eliminate the risk of HIV infection from drug use?
A) Participating in a needle exchange program
B) Cleaning drug injection equipment before use
C) Asking those she shares equipment with to be tested for HIV
D) Not having sexual intercourse when under the influence of the drugs
Q2) At the health promotion level of care for HIV infection,what should the nurse assess for?
A) Symptoms the patient may be experiencing
B) Drug side effects or interactions that may be present
C) The patient's need for assistance from the community
D) Behaviours that place the patient at risk for HIV infection
Q3) During which period of chronic HIV infection would the patient experience lymphadenopathy and nervous system manifestations?
A) Early
B) Intermediate
C) Late
D) Terminal

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Q1) External beam radiation is planned for a patient with cancer of the colon.Because the treatment area is in the lower abdomen and pelvic area,which of the following measures should the nurse teach the patient is important to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
A) Maintain a high-residue,high-fat diet.
B) Test all stools for the presence of blood.
C) Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.
D) Perform perianal care with sitz baths and meticulous cleaning.
Q2) A patient has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer.For what common side effects should the nurse assess the patient?
A) Nausea,vomiting,and diarrhea
B) Fever,chills,fatigue,and malaise
C) Opportunistic infections,such as candidiasis
D) Renal damage with increased serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant neoplasm?
A) Usually encapsulated
B) Normally differentiated
C) Moderate to marked vascularity
D) Cells similar to parent cells
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Q1) What is the normal approximate fluid balance in the adult?
A) 1000 mL
B) 1500 mL
C) 2000 mL
D) 2500 mL
Q2) A patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide,a potassium-wasting diuretic,for treatment of hypertension.What symptoms should the nurse teach the patient to report?
A) Fatigue and muscle weakness
B) Anxiety and muscle twitching
C) Abdominal cramping and diarrhea
D) Confusion and personality changes
Q3) For which of the following reasons would the nurse recognize that a patient's serum sodium level may not accurately reflect changes in total body sodium?
A) Total body sodium is not reflected in serum sodium levels.
B) Excess serum sodium is taken into the cells in exchange for potassium.
C) Increased serum sodium causes increased retention of water in the blood.
D) Serum sodium concentration is kept constant by the effect of ADH on the kidney.
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Q1) What does appropriate preoperative teaching for a patient scheduled for abdominal surgery include?
A) How to care for the wound
B) How to breathe deeply and cough
C) What medications will be used during surgery
D) What drains and tubes will be present after surgery
Q2) A patient with diabetes that is well controlled with insulin injections has been on nothing by mouth (NPO)status since midnight before having a mastectomy.The nurse notes that there are no preoperative orders regarding the patient's daily insulin dose.What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Withhold any insulin dose because none is ordered and the patient is on NPO status.
B) Call the physician to clarify whether insulin should be given and at what dosage.
C) Give the patient half of her usual daily insulin dose because she will not be eating in the morning.
D) Give the patient her usual daily insulin dose because the stress of surgery will increase her blood glucose level.
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Q1) What is one of the most important goals of the registered nurse first assistant?
A) Safety of the patient
B) Monitoring of the activities of others
C) Documentation of the intraoperative care
D) Admission of the patient to the OR
Q2) What is the intraoperative activity that is performed by the perioperative nurse and is specific to the circulating function?
A) Identifying and assessing the patient
B) Counting sponges,needles,and instruments
C) Passing instruments to the surgeon and assistants
D) Preparing the instrument table and organizing sterile equipment
Q3) Which of the following is a principle of basic aseptic technique in the OR?
A) All supplies for the day are opened at the beginning of the shift in the sterile surgical room.
B) Torn items can be used as long as they are opened in the sterile room.
C) Sterile items can be opened and flipped onto the sterile table.
D) Each wrapper should be checked for wrapper integrity and changed chemical indicators.
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Q1) A postoperative patient has not voided for 7 hours after return to the postsurgical unit.Initially,what should the nurse do?
A) Call the physician.
B) Palpate and percuss the bladder.
C) Ambulate the patient to the bathroom.
D) Check the postoperative orders for catheterization orders.
Q2) When a patient is transferred from the PACU to the clinical surgical unit,what is the first nursing action on the surgical unit?
A) Assess the patient's pain.
B) Take the patient's vital signs.
C) Check the rate of the IV infusion.
D) Check the physician's postoperative orders.
Q3) A patient is one day postoperative for abdominal surgery and has an indwelling catheter.Which of the following amounts represents the normal daily range of urine volume?
A) 200 to 400 mL
B) 500 to 700 mL
C) 800 to 1000 mL
D) 1500 to 2000 mL
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Q1) When examining a patient's eyes,the nurse suspects a weakness or imbalance of the extraocular nerves on finding which of the following data?
A) A limited field of vision
B) A sluggish papillary reflex
C) An irregular corneal light reflex
D) Conjugate movement of the eyes through the cardinal fields of gaze
Q2) For which reason would a patient be having the diagnostic test keratometry?
A) To determine field of vision
B) To determine papillary response
C) To measure the corneal curvature
D) To provide a magnified view of the optic nerve head
Q3) During assessment of a patient's eyes,the nurse notes that the pupil of the right eye is irregular and appears to protrude into the iris.The nurse should question the patient about a history of which of the following?
A) Pinguecula
B) Eye trauma
C) Corticosteroid use
D) Glaucoma surgery
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Q1) A patient is seen at a clinic for repeated hordeolum of her eyes during the last 6 months.To help prevent further infection,what should the nurse advise the patient to do?
A) Discard all open or used eye cosmetics.
B) Avoid wearing contact lenses as much as possible.
C) Use an antiseborrheic shampoo on the scalp and eyebrows.
D) Be evaluated for the presence of sexually transmitted infections.
Q2) During a routine health examination at the clinic,the patient tells the nurse that he is legally blind.In planning care for the patient,what does the nurse recognize?
A) The patient probably has some light perception but no usable vision.
B) No vision enhancement techniques would be appropriate for the patient because he has a total lack of vision.
C) Further assessment is needed to determine how the patient's visual impairment affects his normal functioning.
D) The patient would be expected to have some usable vision,which enables him to function at an acceptable level.
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Q1) How would the nurse document a papule?
A) Firm,edematous,irregularly shaped area
B) Elevated,solid lesion smaller than 1 cm in diameter
C) Circumscribed,flat area with a change in skin colour,less than 1 cm in diameter
D) Circumscribed,elevated solid lesion,larger than 1 cm in diameter
Q2) Where would you find apocrine sweat glands?
A) Scalp
B) Eyelids
C) Back
D) Upper chest
Q3) When examining a patient,the nurse notes a musky body odour and relates this finding to activity of which of the following glands?
A) Melanocyte glands
B) Ductless glands
C) Apocrine glands
D) Sebaceous glands
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Q1) A patient with multiple commonly acquired nevi expresses concern about their presence and the possibility of malignant changes.How should the nurse advise the patient?
A) To consult the physician if the moles develop irregular coloration or borders
B) To request removal of all nevi larger than 4 mm to prevent malignant changes
C) That only moles occurring on the back and chest are likely to become malignant
D) That malignant changes are characterized by scaling,ulceration,and an opaque appearance of the moles
Q2) Which one of the following diseases has a dermatological manifestation of eczematous patches of the nipple and areola area?
A) Primary syphilis
B) Paget's disease
C) Hodgkin's disease
D) Hyperpituitarism
Q3) What is the most common reason that people undergo a cosmetic procedure?
A) To increase longevity
B) To obtain different employment
C) To improve their body image
D) To improve function of the area that is involved
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Q1) A patient is admitted to the emergency department after suffering an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current.In addition to the burn injuries,the nurse should initially assess for the presence of what?
A) Renal failure
B) Cerebral edema
C) Spinal fractures
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q2) When does the nurse recognize that the patient with a burn injury moves from the emergent phase to the acute phase?
A) When inflammatory symptoms subside
B) When the burn area is completely covered
C) When granulation tissue forms in the wounds
D) When diuresis occurs with low urine specific gravity
Q3) The nurse determines that fluid replacement for a patient with major electrical burns is adequate based on which of the following findings?
A) A stable weight
B) A blood pressure of 90/58 mm Hg
C) A urinary output of 80 mL/hour
D) An intake equal to urinary output
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Q1) The nurse is observing a student who is auscultating a patient's lungs.Which action by the student indicates that the nurse should intervene?
A) The student compares breath sounds from side to side.
B) The student starts at the base of the posterior lung and moves to the apices.
C) The student places the stethoscope over the scapulae and then auscultates.
D) The student listens only over the posterior part of the chest.
Q2) A patient is admitted with a metabolic acidosis of unknown origin.Based on this diagnosis,the nurse would expect the patient to have which one of the following?
A) Kussmaul's respirations
B) Slow,shallow respirations
C) A low oxygen saturation (SpO<sub>2</sub>)
D) A decrease in PVO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following is a measure of the elasticity of the lung?
A) Inspiration
B) Compliance
C) Elastic recoil
D) Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
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Q1) Which is the most common infection causing acute pharyngitis?
A) Fungal
B) Viral
C) Acute follicular
D) Peritonsillar
Q2) A patient with an uncuffed tracheostomy tube coughs violently during suctioning and dislodges the tracheostomy tube.Initially,what should the nurse do?
A) Call the physician.
B) Attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube.
C) Position the patient in a lateral position with the neck extended.
D) Cover the stoma with a sterile dressing,and ventilate the patient with a manual bag-mask until the physician arrives.
Q3) When the nurse is deflating the cuff of a tracheostomy tube to evaluate the patient's ability to swallow,what is it most important to do?
A) Deflate the cuff during the patient's inhalation.
B) Clean the inner cannula of the tracheostomy tube.
C) Suction the mouth and trachea before deflation of the tube.
D) Measure the amount of air removed from the cuff during deflation.
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78735
Sample Questions
Q1) A 56-year-old normally healthy patient at the clinic is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia.The nurse anticipates that empirical treatment of the patient could include the administration of which of the following medications?
A) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B) Azithromycin (Zithromax)
C) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
D) A second- or third-generation cephalosporin
Q2) Following discharge teaching,the nurse evaluates that the patient with pneumonia understands measures to prevent a relapse of the pneumonia when the patient gives which of the following responses?
A) "I will increase my food intake to 2400 calories a day."
B) "I must use home oxygen therapy for 3 months."
C) "I will seek medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections."
D) "I should continue to do deep breathing and coughing exercises for at least 6 weeks."
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42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78734
Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old patient has had moderate asthma for 10 years.She uses an salbutamol (Apo-Salvent)inhaler when she develops chest tightness and wheezing but does not use her salmeterol (Serevent)as prescribed.To increase the patient's management and control of her asthma,what should the nurse teach the patient?
A) She should use the salmeterol when the albuterol does not relieve her symptoms.
B) Using the salmeterol helps prevent the early-phase response of bronchospasm and thus further inflammatory changes.
C) Salmeterol should be used when she uses the-agonist inhaler to decrease the late-phase inflammatory reaction of asthma.
D) Asthma attacks can be prevented if she uses both the albuterol and the salmeterol as prescribed and not just when symptoms develop.
Q2) What is the best nursing action when a patient with COPD is receiving oxygen?
A) Avoid administration of oxygen at a rate of more than 2 L/min.
B) Minimize oxygen use to avoid oxygen dependency.
C) Administer oxygen according to the patient's level of dyspnea.
D) Maintain the pulse oximetry level at 90% or greater.
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78733
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells function to provide protection from parasitic infections?
A) Monocytes
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following is a normal age-related change in hematological studies?
A) MCV slightly decreased
B) Hemoglobin slightly increased in men
C) Ferritin level increased
D) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)decreased
Q3) How would the nurse document a physical assessment finding of a small group of conditions characterized by ecchymosis on the skin and mucous membranes?
A) Excoriation
B) Angioma
C) Purpura
D) Spider nevus
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78732
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia is placed in a private room,and protective isolation is instituted.The care plan the nurse develops with the patient is based on the knowledge that which of the following sources of infection is the most common in patients with neutropenia?
A) Normally nonpathogenic microorganisms of the patient's own flora
B) Microorganisms that are not sensitive to broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) Microorganisms transmitted to the patient by the hands of health care providers
D) Microorganisms transmitted to the patient by health care providers with transmissible infections
Q2) A patient with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital in crisis with severe abdominal pain.While caring for the patient,what is it most important for the nurse to do?
A) Limit the patient's intake of oral fluids.
B) Evaluate the effectiveness of narcotic analgesics.
C) Encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated.
D) Teach the patient about high-protein,high-calorie foods.
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78731
Sample Questions
Q1) While monitoring a patient's cardiac activity,the nurse recognizes that stimulation of which of the following is a normal physiological mechanism responsible for an increase in heart rate (HR)and force of cardiac contractions?
A) The vagus nerve
B) Baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus
C) (?)-Adrenergic receptors in the vascular system
D) Chemoreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid body
Q2) Upon auscultation,the nurse identifies an arterial bruit.What is a possible cause?
A) Cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Aneurysm
C) Pericarditis
D) Cardiac valve disorder
Q3) Which of the following is a normal cardiac index (CI)assessment finding?
A) 2 L/min
B) 3 L/min/m<sup>2</sup>
C) 6 L/min
D) 8 L/min/m<sup>2</sup>
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78730
Sample Questions
Q1) During the change-of-shift report,the nurse obtains all of this information about a hypertensive patient who received the first dose of nadolol pindolol (Visken)during the previous shift.Which of the following information will be of most concern to the nurse?
A) The patient's heart rate has dropped from 64 to 58 beats/min.
B) The patient has developed wheezes throughout the lung fields.
C) The patient complains that the fingers and toes feel quite cold.
D) The patient's most recent BP is 156/94 mm Hg.
Q2) A patient with hypertension has just developed an abrupt elevation in BP.Which of the following would indicate that the patient is in a hypertensive crisis?
A) Widening pulse pressure
B) Systolic above 110 mm Hg
C) Diastolic above 120 mm Hg
D) Mean arterial pressure of 82 mm Hg
Q3) Which of the following is a correct mechanism action of aldosterone?
A) Increased sodium reabsorption
B) Decreased water reabsorption
C) Decreased blood volume
D) Increased potassium excretion
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78729
Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient who was admitted the previous day to the CCU with an AMI,the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about which one of the following?
A) The pathophysiology of CAD
B) When patient cardiac rehabilitation will begin
C) Home-discharge drugs such as aspirin and b-blockers
D) Typical emotional responses to MI
Q2) A patient who is being admitted to the ED with severe chest pain gives the nurse the following list of medications taken at home.Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient's care?
A) Captopril (Capoten)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Sildenafil (Viagra)
D) Diazepam (Valium)
Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
A) Diabetes
B) Pregnancy
C) Intercranial neoplasm
D) Laser eye surgery

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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78728
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of her chronic heart failure tells the nurse she was fine when she went to bed but woke up feeling as if she were suffocating.What is the best way for the nurse to document this assessment information?
A) Pulsus alternans
B) Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
C) Two-pillow orthopnea
D) Acute bilateral pleural effusion
Q2) Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in a patient with left-sided heart failure?
A) Nausea
B) Dyspnea
C) Anorexia
D) Dependent edema
Q3) What is the most common form of initial heart failure?
A) Left-sided
B) Right-sided
C) Biventricular
D) All types occur equally;there is no one common form of heart failure.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78727
Sample Questions
Q1) During the change-of-shift report,the nurse learns that a patient with a large MI has been having frequent PVCs.What will the nurse check when monitoring the patient for the effects of PVCs?
A) The patient's medications
B) The patient's oxygen saturation
C) The patient's apical-radial heart rate
D) The patient's recent electrolyte values
Q2) A patient who has been successfully resuscitated twice following sudden cardiac death has a transvenous ICD implanted for management of ventricular dysrhythmias.When performing discharge teaching with the patient,what is most important for the nurse to instruct the patient and family about?
A) He will no longer need to take medications to control his dysrhythmias.
B) If the ICD fires and he loses consciousness,911 should be called.
C) His family will not need to learn CPR because he has the automatic defibrillator available.
D) The ICD device rarely sets off airport security alarms,and travel without restrictions is allowed.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78726
Q1) During assessment of a patient with mitral valve stenosis,which findings would the nurse recognize are characteristic of the pressure gradient differences occurring with mitral valve stenosis?
A) Angina and syncope
B) Dyspnea and hemoptysis
C) JVD and peripheral edema
D) Hypotension and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Q2) The nurse obtains a health history from a patient with a prosthetic mitral valve who has symptoms of infective endocarditis (IE).Which is the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask?
A) "Do you have a history of a heart attack?"
B) "Have you had any recent immunizations?"
C) "Have you been to the dentist lately?"
D) "Do you have a family history of endocarditis?"
Q3) What is the term for flat,painless,small red spots on the palms and soles of a patient who has IE?
A) Osler's nodes
B) Roth's spots
C) Janeway's lesions
D) Palmar surface paradoxus

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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78724
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of a 4-cm fusiform abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)is admitted to the emergency department with severe back pain and bilateral flank ecchymosis.His vital signs are blood pressure (BP)90/58 mm Hg,pulse 138 beats/min,and respiration 34 breaths/min.The nurse plans interventions for the patient based on the expectation that which of the following treatments will be included?
A) Immediate surgery
B) An immediate angiogram
C) A paracentesis when vital signs are stabilized with fluid replacement
D) Admission to the intensive care unit for observation while diagnostic tests are completed
Q2) The nurse has identified the collaborative problem of "potential complication: pulmonary embolism" for a patient with DVT.What is an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent embolization of a thrombus?
A) Maintain bed rest until edema resolves.
B) Monitor vital signs and pulmonary status every 4 hours.
C) Apply compression-gradient stockings while the patient is on bed rest.
D) Perform passive range of motion of the affected extremity to increase venous return.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78723
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an obstructed common bile duct has a T-tube placed in the common bile duct to drain bile produced by the liver.How much would the nurse expect the daily bile drainage to be?
A) 50 mL
B) 400 mL
C) 1000 mL
D) 2500 mL
Q2) A patient has an abnormally high serum ammonia level.Which of the following does the nurse recognize this finding to be indicative of?
A) A decreased bile flow into the intestine
B) A decrease in the number of bowel bacteria that deaminate amino acids
C) Failure of the liver to convert ammonia absorbed from the bowel to urea
D) An increased reabsorption of urobilinogen from the bowel into the blood
Q3) Which following finding would the nurse expect to be present during auscultation of the abdomen of a patient with a bowel obstruction?
A) Decreased,low-pitched bowel sounds
B) Frequent clicking sounds
C) Absence of bowel sounds
D) Loud gurgles
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78722
Sample Questions
Q1) A 22-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa.She is 163 cm tall and weighs 41 kg.On admission,her laboratory tests reveal hypokalemia,hypercholesterolemia,and iron-deficiency anemia.In planning care for the patient,the nurse places the highest priority on which of the following nursing diagnoses?
A) Risk for activity intolerance related to anemia and weakness
B) Ineffective health maintenance related to obsession with body image
C) Risk for decreased cardiac output related to electrolyte imbalance
D) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat
Q2) A 72-year-old patient is seen at the clinic for symptoms of a urinary tract infection.She is 155 cm tall and weighs 42 kg.The nursing history reveals that she drinks tea and eats toast twice a day for her meals because it is easy to fix and she has no appetite.Laboratory results include hemoglobin 6.5 mmol/L (10.5 g/dL)and albumin 20 g/L (2.0 g/dL).The nurse determines that the patient is near starvation with severe protein depletion when which of the following additional findings is observed?
A) A small,nodular liver
B) Generalized weakness
C) Edema of the face and extremities
D) Increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78721
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has completed initial instruction with a patient regarding a weight-loss program.The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the patient makes which following statement?
A) "I will keep a diary of daily weights to illustrate my weight loss."
B) "I plan to lose 1.8 kg a week until I have lost the 27-kg goal."
C) "I should not exercise more than what is required because increased activity increases the appetite."
D) "I plan to join a behaviour modification group to help establish long-term behaviour changes necessary for weight control."
Q2) After discussing appropriate exercise activities with a patient who is overweight who is starting to exercise as part of a weight-loss program,the nurse will determine that the instructions have been understood when the patient reports which of the following?
A) Playing soccer for an hour on the weekend
B) Running for 10 to 15 minutes three times a week
C) Walking for 40 minutes 6 or 7 days a week
D) Lifting weights with friends three times a week
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78720
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse that when he feels nauseous,he takes ginger.The nurse should instruct the patient that he should not take ginger if he is also taking which one of the following medications?
A) Digoxin
B) Penicillin
C) Tetracycline
D) Protein pump inhibitor
Q2) A patient with chronic gastritis associated with the presence of Helicobacter pylori is treated with triple-drug therapy.Which of the following medications should the nurse explain to the patient are commonly included in this regimen?
A) Tetracycline,bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol),and amoxicillin
B) Tetracycline,metronidazole (Flagyl),and bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
C) Amoxicillin,clarithromycin (Biaxin),and omeprazole (Losec)
D) Metronidazole (Flagyl),clarithromycin (Biaxin),and omeprazole (Losec)
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45 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78719
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with Crohn's disease asks the nurse what to expect in the future.What is the best response?
A) "You need to know that lifelong,unpredictable periods of remissions and recurrences are probable."
B) "You can expect to lead a normal life and may have long periods without episodes of diarrhea or other symptoms."
C) "Most patients with Crohn's disease require an ostomy to control the disease,but you can adjust to that."
D) "After about 10 years,patients with Crohn's disease have a high risk for colon cancer unless the colon is removed."
Q2) A patient with Crohn's disease has a megaloblastic anemia.The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about the ongoing need for which of the following?
A) Oral ferrous sulphate tablets
B) Cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)injections
C) Iron dextran (Imferon)injections
D) Regular blood transfusions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78718
Sample Questions
Q1) While the nurse is obtaining a nursing history from a patient diagnosed with hepatitis C,what information reported by the patient indicates the highest risk factor for hepatitis C?
A) Sexual exposure
B) Injection drug use
C) Eating contaminated shellfish
D) Recent travel to an underdeveloped country
Q2) A physician who has never been immunized for hepatitis B is exposed to the hepatitis B virus (HBV)through a needle stick from an infected patient.What should the infection control nurse inform both the physician and patient that treatment for the exposure should include?
A) Evaluation of liver function tests in 60 days
B) Active immunization with hepatitis B vaccine
C) Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG)injection
D) Both the hepatitis B vaccine and HBIG
Q3) Which hepatitis virus has DNA as its characteristic virus type?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78717
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an age-related change in the urinary system?
A) Increased amount of renal tissue
B) Increased number of nephrons
C) Decreased function of the loop of Henle
D) Decreased prevalence of unstable bladder contractions
Q2) When teaching a patient scheduled for a cystogram via a cystoscope about the procedure,which following statement would the nurse make to the patient?
A) "Your doctor will place a catheter into an artery in your groin and inject a dye that will visualize the blood supply to the kidneys."
B) "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder and inject a dye into your kidneys through little catheters inserted into the ureters."
C) "Your doctor will insert a lighted tube into the bladder through your urethra,inspect the bladder,and instill a dye that will outline your bladder on radiography."
D) "Your doctor will inject a dye into a vein in your arm that is carried to the urinary system.Then a lighted tube in your bladder will be used to see when the dye appears."
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78716
Sample Questions
Q1) One week after using an over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug to treat aches resulting from a fall,a patient noticed the development of progressive edema throughout his body.Diagnostic studies confirmed a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome.When teaching the patient about his condition,the nurse uses the knowledge that the edema results from which of the following changes?
A) Increased serum oncotic pressure exerted by dyslipidemia
B) Loss of protein through the kidney,resulting in a fall in plasma colloid osmotic pressure
C) Loss of albumin in the urine,creating an osmotic diuresis and low tissue hydrostatic pressure
D) Fluid retention caused by decreased glomerular filtration rate through kidneys damaged by trauma
Q2) What is the most common type of urinary tract calculi?
A) Uric acid
B) Cystine
C) Calcium oxalate
D) Struvite
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78715
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being initiated on peritoneal dialysis.What should the nurse teach the patient in relation to fluid allowance?
A) Limit intake to 1000 mL per day.
B) Adjust intake to equal output plus 300 mL per day.
C) Adjust intake to equal output plus 600 mL per day.
D) Often there is no fluid restriction.
Q2) A patient with ARF has an arterial blood pH of 7.30.Which of the following will the nurse assess for?
A) Tachycardia
B) Rapid respirations
C) Poor skin turgor
D) Vasodilation
Q3) A patient with congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema develops early symptoms of ARF.The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that collaborative care of the renal failure will be directed toward which of the following goals?
A) Promoting diuresis
B) Replacing fluid volume
C) Maintaining cardiac output
D) Diluting nephrotoxic substances
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78713
Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has ordered a serum cortisol level to rule out adrenal dysfunction in a patient who is a night security guard who works from 2300 hours to 0700 hours and normally sleeps from 0800 hours to 1600 hours.To ensure the most reliable test results,when does the nurse arrange the blood specimen to be drawn?
A) At 0300 hours
B) At 2300 hours
C) In the early morning
D) In the late afternoon
Q2) A patient is scheduled for a 24-hour urine collection for 17-ketosteroids.The nurse will plan to do which of the following?
A) Insert a retention catheter.
B) Keep the specimen on ice.
C) Have the patient void and save that specimen to start the collection.
D) Encourage the patient to drink 2 to 3 L of fluid during the 24 hours.
Q3) Which of the following is an age-related change affecting the endocrine system?
A) Increase in TSH secretion
B) Decreased parathyroid secretion
C) Increased glucose intolerance
D) Decreased secretion of norepinephrine
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39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78712
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking high doses of prednisone to control the symptoms of an acute exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus.When teaching the patient about the use of prednisone,which information is most important for the nurse to include?
A) Call the doctor if you experience any mood alterations with the prednisone.
B) Do not stop taking the prednisone suddenly;it should be decreased gradually.
C) Weigh yourself daily to monitor for weight gain caused by water or increased fat.
D) Check your temperature daily because prednisone can hide signs of infection.
Q2) A patient has an adenoma of the adrenal zona glomerulosa causing hyperaldosteronism and is scheduled for surgery to remove the affected gland.During care before surgery,the nurse should do which of the following?
A) Limit fluids to 1000 mL/day.
B) Provide a potassium-restricted diet.
C) Monitor the blood pressure every 4 hours.
D) Elevate the patient's extremities to relieve edema.
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38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78711
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes has sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs and peripheral vascular disease evidenced by decreased peripheral pulses and dependent rubor.What will the nurse teach the patient?
A) The feet should be soaked in warm water on a daily basis.
B) Flat-soled leather shoes are the best choice to protect the feet from injury.
C) Heating pads should always be set at a very low temperature.
D) Over-the-counter callus remover may be used to remove calluses and prevent pressure.
Q2) When assessing the patient experiencing the onset of type 1 diabetes,which question should the nurse ask?
A) "Have you lost any weight lately?"
B) "Do you crave fluids containing sugar?"
C) "How long have you felt anorexic?"
D) "Is your urine unusually dark-coloured?"
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes?
A) Incidence in young people is increasing
B) Insidious onset
C) Absent islet-cell antibodies
D) Patient prone to ketosis at onset
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78710
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman calls the clinic because she is having an unusually heavy menstrual flow.She tells the nurse that she has saturated two pads in the past 2 hours.At which of the following approximate amounts does the nurse estimate the amount of blood loss?
A) 10 to 20 mL
B) 20 to 30 mL
C) 30 to 40 mL
D) 40 to 60 mL
Q2) A patient with a possible ovarian cyst is scheduled for ultrasonography.The nurse will teach the patient which of the following?
A) She should not eat or drink for 4 hours before the procedure.
B) She will experience minimal discomfort during the procedure.
C) She should discontinue taking aspirin before the procedure.
D) She will receive intravenous contrast solution during the procedure.
Q3) When is menopause usually considered to be complete?
A) Cessation of menses for a period of 1 year
B) Once a woman turns 55 years of age
C) When estrogen levels drop 10% below normal
D) Once ovulation has ceased for a period of 2 years
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78709
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient returns to the surgical unit following a right modified radical mastectomy with dissection of axillary lymph nodes.Postoperative orders include diet as tolerated,up to ad libitum,Hemovac drain,and patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)at 1 mg morphine every 10 minutes.What is an appropriate intervention for the nurse to include in implementing postoperative care for the patient?
A) Teaching the patient to use the PCA every 10 minutes for the best pain relief
B) Insisting that the patient examine the surgical incision when the dressings are removed
C) Posting a sign at the bedside warning against blood pressures or venipunctures on the right arm
D) Encouraging the patient to obtain a permanent breast prosthesis as soon as she is discharged from the hospital
Q2) Which one of the following statements is true regarding nipple-areolar reconstruction?
A) All breast reconstructive surgery requires nipple-areolar reconstruction.
B) The function of lactation is maintained.
C) It is not possible to have the nipples project away from the breast.
D) It is usually completed a few months after breast reconstructive surgery.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate question for the nurse to ask when obtaining a detailed and accurate sexual history?
A) "Are you a homosexual?"
B) "Do you only have sex with those of the opposite sex?"
C) "Do you have sex with men or women or both?"
D) "Have you ever had anal sex?"
Q2) Which virus is responsible for genital warts?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) HSV
C) Human immunodeficiency virus
D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Q3) The nurse should inform women who have a history of STIs that the risk of infertility or ectopic pregnancies is highest following infection by which of the following STIs?
A) Treponema pallidum
B) N.gonorrhoeae
C) Condylomata acuminata
D) Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)
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Q1) Stage III ovarian cancer is diagnosed in a 63-year-old woman.Based on the nurse's understanding of this disorder,what nursing diagnosis would the nurse document as being likely to be appropriate for this patient?
A) Sexual dysfunction related to loss of vaginal sensation
B) Risk for infection related to impaired immune function
C) Anxiety related to threat of a malignancy and lack of knowledge about the disease process and prognosis
D) Situational low self-esteem related to guilt about delaying medical care
Q2) A perimenopausal woman does not want to use hormone therapy but is interested in complementary and alternative therapies.Which of the following herbal or supplemental preparations should the nurse suggest is the safest to control menopausal symptoms?
A) Valerian
B) Dong quai
C) Black cohosh
D) Dietary soy products
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78706
Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered for the patient to block the action of testosterone by competing with receptor sites for the treatment of prostate cancer?
A) Goserelin (Zoladex)
B) Buserelin (Suprefact)
C) Leuprolide (Lupron)
D) Flutamide (Euflex)
Q2) When obtaining a nursing history from a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH),which of the following data would the nurse expect the patient to report?
A) Grossly bloody urine
B) Difficulty maintaining an erection
C) A weak urinary stream and dribbling at the end of urination
D) Lower back pain that radiates to the hips during urination
Q3) A 41-year-old man asks the nurse what he can do to decrease the risk of BPH.What should the nurse explain?
A) Foods high in zinc have been shown to delay the development of BPH.
B) Decreasing butter and margarine and increasing fruits in the diet may help.
C) He can do nothing to prevent the disease because it is a fact of aging.
D) Taking a daily vitamin E supplement has reduced prostate size in some men.
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21 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78705
Sample Questions
Q1) Neurological testing of the patient by the nurse indicates impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX)and the vagus nerve (cranial nerve
X).Based on these findings,what should the nurse plan to do?
A) Insert an oral airway.
B) Withhold oral fluid or foods.
C) Provide highly seasoned foods.
D) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea.
Q2) During the neurological assessment,the patient cooperates with the nurse's directions to grip with the hands and to move the feet,but does not respond to the nurse's questions.The nurse will suspect which of the following?
A) A temporal lobe lesion
B) Injury to the cerebellum
C) A brainstem lesion
D) Damage to the frontal lobe
Q3) Which of the following is an age-related change in the nervous system?
A) Increased efficiency of temperature-regulating mechanism
B) Decreased size of ventricles in the brain
C) Decrease in electrical activity
D) Increase in deep-tendon reflexes
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78704
Sample Questions
Q1) ICP monitoring is instituted for a patient with a head injury.The patient's arterial blood pressure is 92/50 mm Hg,and her ICP is 18 mm Hg.Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A) Document and continue to monitor the parameters.
B) Elevate the head of the patient's bed.
C) Notify the physician about the assessments.
D) Check the patient's pupillary response to light.
Q2) A patient admitted with bacterial meningitis and a temperature of 38.9°C has orders for all of these collaborative interventions.Which one should the nurse accomplish first?
A) IV ceftizoxime (Cefizox)1 g now and every 6 hours
B) IV dexamethasone (Decadron)4 mg now
C) Hypothermia blanket to keep the temperature less than 38.7°C
D) Nasopharyngeal swab for culture and sensitivity
Q3) Rabies manifests as which of the following?
A) Bacterial meningitis
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Viral meningitis
D) Bacterial encephalitis
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28 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78702
Sample Questions
Q1) A 32-year-old patient has a stroke resulting from a ruptured aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage.Which intervention will be included in the care plan?
A) Encouraging the patient to cough and breathe deeply every 4 hours
B) Inserting an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction
C) Assisting the patient to dangle on the edge of the bed and assessing for dizziness
D) Applying intermittent pneumatic compression stockings
Q2) Twenty-four hours after admission,a patient with a stroke has progressive development of neurological deficits with increasing weakness and decreased level of consciousness.What is the primary goal of nursing management of the patient at this time?
A) Protecting the skin from breakdown
B) Monitoring for changes in neurological status
C) Maintaining the patient's respiratory function
D) Preventing joint contractures and muscle atrophy
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78701
Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old patient who was adopted at birth is diagnosed with early Huntington's disease.When teaching the patient and her family about this disorder,what should the nurse explain about Huntington's disease?
A) It is characterized by retarded voluntary and involuntary movement,resulting in immobility.
B) Genetic testing is available to determine the risk for your children.
C) It can be controlled by replacing the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and ?-aminobutyric acid.
D) It will result in limited physical and mental deterioration,requiring some planning and support for care.
Q2) A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)is hospitalized with pneumonia.Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
A) Observing for agitation and paranoia
B) Assisting the patient with active range of motion (ROM)
C) Using simple words and phrases to explain procedures
D) Administering muscle relaxants as needed for muscle spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A home care patient with Alzheimer's disease and mild dementia has a new prescription for donepezil.Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring compliance with the medication?
A) Setting the medications up weekly in a medication box
B) Calling the patient daily with a reminder to take the medication
C) Having the patient's spouse administer the medication
D) Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house
Q2) A 70-year-old woman visits her 72-year-old husband who has advanced Alzheimer's disease and is hospitalized with pneumonia.She tells the nurse that it is a relief to have someone besides herself care for her husband because she is physically and mentally exhausted from caring for him at home.She says she has no family to help her and that they cannot afford institutional care for her husband.What is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient's wife?
A) Anxiety related to financial insecurity
B) Ineffective health maintenance related to chronic stress
C) Caregiver role strain related to limited resources for caregiving
D) Social isolation related to unrelieved caregiving responsibilities
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78699
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a spinal cord transection at T1 is in spinal shock.While monitoring the patient,the nurse recognizes that alterations in sympathetic nervous system function may cause which of the following reactions?
A) Tachycardia
B) Bladder hyperirritability
C) Fluctuating body temperature
D) Hypermotility of the gastrointestinal system
Q2) A patient with a T2 spinal cord injury is beginning intensive rehabilitation.One morning as the nurse prepares to assist her to transfer to the wheelchair,the patient tells the nurse that she does not feel like getting up,that she has a throbbing headache,and that she is slightly nauseated.What is it most important that the nurse do?
A) Notify the physician.
B) Check the patient's blood pressure.
C) Tell her she will feel better if she sits upright in her wheelchair.
D) Do a digital rectal examination for the presence of an impaction.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78698
Sample Questions
Q1) During assessment of the musculoskeletal system,the nurse notes that the patient's gait is disturbed.To further assess this problem,what should the nurse do?
A) Measure the length of both legs.
B) Perform muscle strength testing of the legs.
C) Ask the patient to demonstrate active range of motion of the legs.
D) Perform deep palpation on the hip joints to identify the presence of pain.
Q2) Based on the nurse's understanding of the physiology of bone and cartilage,what is the injury that the nurse would expect to heal most rapidly?
A) Fractured nose
B) Severely sprained ankle
C) Fracture of the midhumerus
D) Torn cruciate ligament in the knee
Q3) The sacrum is classified as which type of bone?
A) Long bone
B) Short bone
C) Flat bone
D) Irregular bone
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38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78697
Sample Questions
Q1) Following the application of a hip spica cast for a patient with a fracture of the proximal third of the left femur,what is an appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Reposition the patient,using the support bar at the thighs.
B) Assess the patient for abdominal pain,and nausea and vomiting.
C) Psychologically prepare the patient for a long period of bed rest without ambulation.
D) Turn the patient to the prone position every 4 hours to promote drying of the posterior part of the cast.
Q2) A patient with severe ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for an arthroplasty of the right hand and fingers.The nurse determines that the patient has realistic expectations of the outcome of surgery when the patient gives which of the following responses?
A) "I will be able to use my fingers to grasp objects better."
B) "My fingers will appear normal in size and shape after this surgery."
C) "This procedure will prevent further deformity in my hands and fingers."
D) "I will not have to perform exercises of my hands as frequently as I did before the surgery."
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78696
Sample Questions
Q1) While working in a gerontology clinic,the nurse sees older adult women on a long-term basis.What is an assessment finding that alerts the nurse to the presence of osteoporosis in a patient?
A) The presence of bowed legs
B) Measurable loss of height
C) Poor appetite and aversion to dairy products
D) The development of unstable,wide-gait ambulation
Q2) A patient complains that he has a sore foot.Upon assessment,the nurse notes a localized thickening area of skin where the patient indicates that the pain is located.Based upon this assessment,which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's pain?
A) Corn
B) Soft corn
C) Callus
D) Plantar wart
Q3) Which reflex is affected in a patient with a disc herniation at the level of L3?
A) None
B) Patellar
C) Achilles
D) Deep-tendon reflex

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41 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78695
Q1) Following instruction for a patient with newly diagnosed SLE,the nurse determines that teaching about the disease has been effective when the patient gives which of the following responses?
A) "I should expect to have a fever all the time with this disease."
B) "I need to restrict my exposure to sunlight to prevent an acute onset of symptoms."
C) "I should try to ignore my symptoms as much as possible and have a positive outlook."
D) "If I become pregnant,a therapeutic abortion can prevent an exacerbation of symptoms."
Q2) In teaching a patient with ankylosing spondylitis about management of the condition,what should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
A) Sleep on his side with his hips flexed.
B) Take slow,long walks as a form of exercise.
C) Perform daily chest expansion and deep-breathing exercises.
D) Maintain 10 to 12 hours of bed rest daily to prevent pressure on weight-bearing joints.
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78694
Sample Questions
Q1) While suctioning a patient with an ET,the nurse notes the occurrence of premature ventricular contractions on the patient's cardiac monitor.What is the most appropriate nursing action on observing this finding?
A) Lower the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg.
B) Ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen with a bag-valve-mask.
C) Notify the physician of the need for antidysrhythmic medications.
D) Provide an explanation of the suctioning procedure to decrease the patient's anxiety.
Q2) A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage is intubated and placed on a mechanical volume-cycled ventilator in the spontaneous intermittent mandatory volume mode,FIO<sub>2</sub> 40%,rate 14,tidal volume 700,with 10 cm of PEEP.Which of the following indicates a need for the nurse to notify the physician?
A) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
B) O<sub>2</sub> saturation of 94%
C) Increased jugular vein distension
D) Greenish brown nasogastric tube drainage
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24 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78693
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of shock does the nurse suspect with a patient who is short of breath and has wheezes,rhinitis,and stridor?
A) Cardiogenic shock
B) Neurogenic shock
C) Anaphylactic shock
D) Septic shock
Q2) To monitor a patient with severe acute pancreatitis for the early organ damage associated with MODS,what should the nurse assess?
A) Stool guaiac and bowel sounds
B) Lung sounds and oxygenation status
C) Serum creatinine and urinary output
D) Serum bilirubin levels and skin colour
Q3) When caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock,the nurse evaluates the status of the patient,recognizing that which of the following is the goal of care?
A) To lower the HR and control dysrhythmias
B) To lower the BP and respiratory rate
C) To improve oxygen exchange and increase urinary output
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D) To decrease cardiac workload and increase systemic perfusion
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22 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78691
Sample Questions
Q1) To improve V/Q match and facilitate secretion removal in the patient with left lower lobe pneumonia,how should the nurse position the patient?
A) On the left side
B) On the right side
C) In high-Fowler's position
D) Sitting and leaning over the overbed table
Q2) The nurse suspects the possible onset of ARDS in a susceptible patient who develops which of the following symptoms?
A) Dyspnea,restlessness,and mild hypoxemia
B) Tachypnea and hypertension with elevated PaO<sub>2</sub>
C) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
D) Cough with blood-tinged sputum and respiratory alkalosis
Q3) Which assessment finding would the nurse expect in a patient with hypoxemia?
A) Apnea
B) Decreased respiratory rate
C) Increased SpO<sub>2</sub>
D) Prolonged expiration
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19 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78690
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a cause of a life-threatening condition that the nurse identifies during the primary survey?
A) Pneumonia
B) Controlled hemorrhage
C) Hyperthermia
D) Flail chest with pulmonary contusion
Q2) A construction worker is treated in the emergency department in the summer with heat cramps accompanied by nausea,weakness,and profuse diaphoresis.The nurse determines that discharge teaching regarding the prevention of another episode of heat cramps has been effective when the patient gives which of the following responses?
A) "I will take salt tablets when I work outdoors in the summer."
B) "I should double my water intake when the weather gets hot."
C) "I should drink commercially prepared electrolyte solutions when the weather is warm."
D) "If I notice swelling of my hands and feet,I should get into a cool environment for a while."
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a national disaster,which government agency is responsible for providing safe drinking water and supportive medical services?
A) Health Canada
B) Public Safety Canada
C) Department of National Defence
D) Canadian Red Cross
Q2) The Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START)system is based on all of the clinical indicators except which one of the following?
A) Mental status
B) Perfusion or blood circulation
C) Person's ability to respond verbally,ambulate,and breathe
D) Provision of the minimal 72-hour self-sufficient supplies
Q3) Which of the following is true of a disaster?
A) It negatively affects society.
B) It requires a rapid and skilled response to action.
C) It is managed by a community's existing resources.
D) It requires urgent intervention to avoid worsening of the situation.
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