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Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential principles, responsibilities, and skills required for nursing practice. The course emphasizes basic nursing concepts, patient-centered care, and the development of clinical reasoning necessary to promote health and well-being across the lifespan. Students learn about health assessment, patient safety, infection control, therapeutic communication, and the nursing process, blending theoretical knowledge with hands-on laboratory experience. Foundational values such as ethical practice, cultural competence, and professionalism are integrated throughout, preparing students for further clinical experiences and the evolving roles of the nurse in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Nursing 3rd Edition by Lois White
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61 Chapters
2346 Verified Questions
2346 Flashcards
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Q1) A disciplined intellectual process of applying skillful reasoning,imposing intellectual standards,and self-reflective thinking as a guide to belief or action is known as:
A)problem solving
B)metacognition
C)critical thinking
D)learning style
Answer: C
Q2) When an LP/VN is delegating or assigning the accomplishment of a specific task,which of these factors should be considered FIRST?
A)Should this task be delegated for a specific client?
B)Is this the appropriate client setting for this task to be performed?
C)Are there sufficient resources available for this task to be performed?
D)Can the task be clearly described to the assigned personnel?
Answer: A
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Q1) If a nurse suspects a coworker is taking clients' narcotics and using them on the job,which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A)Ask other staff if they have also noticed suspicious behavior related to this coworker.
B)Bring these concerns to the supervisor.
C)Post drug-abuse awareness materials where the coworker will see them.
D)Privately discuss these suspicions with the coworker.
Answer: B
Q2) One of the most important roles of the nurse is provide nursing of the person as a whole.This is accomplished by assisting clients to:
A)view themselves and their health care as more than physical health
B)focus on overcoming poor health habits such as overeating
C)recognize their limitations in self-care
D)practice moderation in use of alcohol
Answer: A
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Q1) Which nursing advocate worked to encourage respect for cultural diversity and was America's first African American professional nurse?
A)Lavinia Dock
B)Mary Mahoney
C)Adelaide Nutting
D)Linda Richards
Answer: B
Q2) Which of these concepts used in current nursing practice was introduced by Nightingale?
A)encouraging involvement of family and friends in a client's care
B)maintaining confidentiality
C)organizing a methodical system of nursing administration
D)organizing a system of differentiated nursing practice
Answer: B
Q3) In which civilization were hospitals first established?
A)Babylonian and Assyrian civilizations
B)ancient Greece civilization
C)Roman civilization of the Roman Empire
D)European civilization of the Middle Ages
Answer: C
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Q1) In which of the following cases could a recent nursing graduate,if sued,be found liable for not adhering to the standards of practice for a procedure the nurse had never before performed alone?
A)following the procedure as described in the facility's policy and procedure manual
B)recognizing signs and symptoms of an adverse reaction within 10 minutes of initial symptoms
C)requesting help from another nurse after stopping the procedure
D)stopping the procedure upon recognizing an adverse reaction
Q2) Which term describes omission of treatments and procedures such as orogastric feedings or ventilatory support to clients who are dying?
A)active euthanasia
B)assisted suicide
C)passive euthanasia
D)refusal of treatment
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Q1) What term describes the entry into the health care system that occurs through a point designated by the health maintenance organization plan?
A)exclusive provider
B)preferred provider
C)primary health care plan
D)single point of entry
Q2) Which of these statements about the role of the nurse in the multidisciplinary health care team is TRUE?
A)Nurses function in independent,interdependent,and dependent roles.
B)Nurses are responsible for leading the team in most situations.
C)Nurses are responsible for the follow-through of team decisions.
D)Nurses function only under the direction of other team members.
Q3) Which of these terms describes a health care system where the government is the only entity to reimburse health care costs?
A)exclusive provider organization
B)primary care system
C)prospective payment system
D)single-payer system
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client in a non-acute care setting.Which of the following is considered a non-acute care setting? (Select all that apply. )
A)hospitals
B)long-term care facilities
C)skilled nursing facilities
D)subacute care facilities
E) emergency rooms
Q2) When a specified state agency annually sends a team of surveyors to visit facilities and determine if they are in compliance with the rules and regulations of the state,the process is called:
A)accreditation
B)approval
C)certification
D)licensure
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Q1) The distance at which one person is comfortable interacting with another is influenced by age,cultural values,and:
A)location of interaction
B)time of day
C)topic of conversation
D)gender of those interacting
Q2) With which of the following clients is it important to continue verbal communication,even though they cannot respond?
A)clients with dysphasia
B)non-English-speaking clients
C)clients who are terminally ill
D)clients who are visually impaired
Q3) The nurse uses telecommunications equipment and communication networks to transfer a request for medical supplies to a different location.This is an example of:
A)the computerized client record
B)Internet health continuum
C)proxemics
D)telehealth
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Q1) A client must learn how to monitor blood sugar levels using a glucose monitor at home.The nurse demonstrates use of the monitor,asks the client to repeat the procedure under supervision,and provides time to answer questions and give feedback.What type of teaching method does this situation represent?
A)demonstration
B)return demonstration
C)supervised demonstration
D)question-and-answer session
Q2) During the initial phase of teaching,which of these aspects is essential for the nurse to assess?
A)actual client learning needs
B)potential client learning needs
C)involvement of family members
D)client time management
Q3) Which of these phrases BEST describes learning?
A)absorbing facts and concepts
B)sharing information with others
C)behavior change resulting from assimilation of information
D)acquisition of knowledge
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following purposes for client documentation,an essential communication tool,is MOST important?
A)It forms the basis for health care students learning about disease processes,medical and nursing diagnoses,and interventions.
B)It confirms the care provided to the client and outlines crucial information about the client.
C)It directs the need for research.
D)It notifies the health care provider and other health care team members about significant data obtained during nurse-client interaction.
Q2) What is the relationship between nursing practice acts and documentation?
A)Nursing practice acts establish guidelines for practice and standards of care that are evidenced by documentation.
B)Documentation ensures safe practice.
C)Documentation and nursing practice requirements differ from state to state.
D)Nursing practice acts are independent of documentation requirements.
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Q1) When working with the preadolescent,it is MOST important that the nurse exhibit:
A)compliance
B)discipline
C)neutrality
D)sensitivity
Q2) The nurse is aware that in the stage that includes the first 28 days of life following birth,the baby is considered to be:
A)an antenatal
B)a neonatal
C)a perinatal
D)a postnatal
Q3) Measurable changes in the physical size of the body and its parts is called:
A)adaptation
B)development
C)growth
D)maturation
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Q1) A dietary aide tells the nurse that an Asian American client won't eat anything on the tray being served because it is not balanced hot and cold.This situation represents an example of:
A)acculturation
B)cultural diversity
C)oppression
D)stereotyping
Q2) Which of these terms refers to the group whose values prevail in a given society?
A)cultural assimilation
B)cultural diversity
C)dominant culture
D)oppression
Q3) A client's belief that the existence of God cannot be proved or disproved is BEST described as:
A)agnosticism
B)atheism
C)Darwinism
D)existentialism
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Q1) Common approaches for managing stress include relaxation techniques and:
A)learning to play chess
B)joining a church group
C)attending college sports events
D)exercising
Q2) Which of the following are examples of maladaptive measures?
A)excessive eating
B)goal development
C)future-oriented planning
D)daydreaming
Q3) The client is experiencing physiologic signs and symptoms of stress,including which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)irritability
B)nausea
C)increased breathing
D)confusion
E)insomnia
F)headache
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Q1) If an individual's spouse is asked to make health care decisions for the spouse,which of these legal actions is being implemented?
A)durable power of attorney for health care
B)Good Samaritan law
C)health care surrogate law
D)Patient Self-Determination Act
Q2) The appearance of which of these signs indicates the beginning of pulmonary system failure in the dying client?
A)Cheyne-Stokes respirations
B)episodic breathing
C)respiratory distress
D)the death rattle
Q3) A client having a mastectomy might experience what type of loss?
A)actual and situational
B)physiologic and psychological
C)anticipated and situational
D)maturational and physiologic
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Q1) Which of the following groups is at the center of the prevention health care team as having the ultimate responsibility for health care?
A)specialist physicians
B)psychologists
C)clients
D)occupational therapists
Q2) Health care personnel who may be exposed to blood and body fluids should be immunized against hepatitis B.This is an example of :
A)physical prevention
B)primary prevention
C)secondary prevention
D)tertiary prevention
Q3) How often should an individual have a dental exam?
A)depends upon age
B)every 2 to 3 years until age 40,then yearly thereafter
C)every 6 to 12 months throughout life
D)depends upon the individual's overall health
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client who has lost her hair after undergoing chemotherapy treatments for cancer.How the client perceives her appearance can BEST be described as:
A)physical self
B)body image
C)hormonal changes
D)side effect of treatments
Q2) When teaching a client to keep a journal,the nurse recognizes that the client needs further teaching if he or she explains the purpose is a way to:
A)assist with issues of confidence
B)assist to bridge a person's thoughts and feelings
C)assist with exploring attitudes toward self
D)assist with discharge planning
Q3) Which ethnic groups have the highest incidence of suicide?
A)Native Americans and Hispanics
B)Native Americans and Island Pacifiers
C)Island Pacifiers and Alaskan Natives
D)Island Pacifiers and Hispanics
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Q1) The acronym FICA for spiritual assessment represents:
A)faith,importance or influence,community,and address
B)family,importance or influence,community,and address
C)faith,importance or influence,caring,and attitude
D)faith,importance or influence,caring,and address
Q2) Which of the following statements about spirituality is TRUE?
A)There is no evidence of a connection between spirituality and health.
B)Spiritual nursing requires specialized training in order to perform.
C)Spirituality and values are the same.
D)Spirituality is the core of a person's being.
Q3) Which of the following criteria for spiritual care has The Joint Commission recommended be included in their accreditation criteria?
A)Agency will provide for these needs by promoting religious beliefs.
B)Agency will provide for these needs through pastoral care.
C)Agency will provide for these needs by allowing time for prayer.
D)Agency will provide for these needs by training nurses in spiritual care.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The practice of entering altered states of consciousness with the intent of helping others is known as:
A)Ayurveda
B)meditation
C)mental imagery
D)shamanism
Q2) Unstable molecules that alter genetic codes and trigger the growth of cancer in cells are called:
A)antioxidants
B)free radicals
C)herbs
D)phytochemicals
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client using therapies along with conventional medical therapies.This client's plan of care includes the use of:
A)alternative therapies
B)complementary therapies
C)congruent therapies
D)nonconventional therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of food group servings needed by an individual depends upon which of these factors?
A)food guide pyramid
B)individual food preferences
C)health of absorbing tissues
D)number of calories the individual needs
Q2) When a nutrient that does not naturally occur in a food is added to the food,the food is described as:
A)enriched
B)fortified
C)incomplete
D)nutritious
Q3) A client has had dentures for 2 years but rarely uses them at mealtimes.Which of these actions should the nurse request from the health care provider?
A)Prescribe a mechanical soft or edentulous diet.
B)Order a dental consult to correct the client's problem.
C)Order a dietary consult to assist the client in making educated food choices.
D)Prescribe a liquid diet.
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Q1) Which of these approaches can be used successfully to treat sleep apnea?
A)drinking warm milk before bedtime
B)using nasal continuous positive airway pressure
C)reducing use of caffeine and nicotine
D)elevating the head on two pillows
Q2) How does sleep differ from rest?
A)Rest is a state of mental and physical relaxation in which no activities occur.
B)Sleep is a state of altered consciousness.
C)Rest involves being in a quiet environment.
D)Individuals require at least 8 hours of sleep for it to be restorative.
Q3) When a nurse is assessing a client's altered sleep patterns,which of these questions is MOST important to be included?
A)"Do you experience fatigue,confusion,or irritability during the day?"
B)"How much sleep do you expect to get every night?"
C)"How would you rate the quality of your sleep?"
D)"Do you get up several times during the night?"
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Q1) The use of restraints for a hospitalized client is indicated in which of these situations?
A)when close observation and supervision of the client cannot be provided by nursing personnel
B)when all other interventions have been tried first
C)when other disciplines prefer not to deal with the client's underlying problem
D)when only jacket restraints are indicated
Q2) Which type of bath requires a health care provider's order?
A)complete bed
B)partial
C)therapeutic
D)tub
Q3) When discussing the use of crutches by a client,a nurse should include which of these safety measures?
A)Position the crutch tips to move with the stronger side while allowing the weaker side to rest.
B)The axillary crutch should fit firmly under the arms to bear weight properly.
C)Metal crutches provide greater stability than wooden crutches.
D)The rubber tips should be inspected regularly and replaced if loose or worn.
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Q1) During an initial exposure to an antigen,the T cells stimulate the production of B cells,which then produce antibodies specific to the antigen.This process is collectively referred to as:
A)acquired immunity
B)humoral immunity
C)specific immune defense
D)vaccination
Q2) Which of these terms is applied to a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia?
A)biological agent
B)carrier
C)compromised host
D)susceptible host
Q3) Microorganisms that cause influenza,chickenpox,and hepatitis B are:
A)bacteria
B)fungi
C)protozoa
D)viruses
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Q1) When client care equipment is soiled with blood,body fluids,secretions,or excretions,nurses can avoid contaminating their skin,mucous membranes,and clothing by doing which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)requesting new supplies each day
B)careful handling or disposal of the equipment
C)keeping them in the client's room until discharge to prevent contamination
D)using personal protective equipment
E)using adequate environmental control procedures
Q2) The family of a client who has tuberculosis keeps leaving the isolation room door open.They tell the nurse the client "feels closed in." The client is in a private room with monitored negative air pressure.Which of these actions should the nurse take immediately?
A)Educate the client and the family as to why the door must remain closed.
B)Notify the charge nurse and the client's physician.
C)Post a "no visitors" sign and ask the family to leave.
D)Spend more time with the client during the shift.
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Q1) The nurse suspects the client has had exposure to a chemical blood agent,such as cyanide.Which of the following symptoms of exposure would the nurse expect to note?
A)anxiety,headache,shortness of breath,coma
B)anxiety,irregular heartbeat,tightness in chest,shortness of breath
C)shortness of breath,tightness in chest,muscle cramps,convulsions
D)tightness in chest,shortness of breath,paralysis
Q2) At the scene of a terrorist attack,the nurse assists with triaging victims.Which victim should be seen as first priority or most urgent? (Select all that apply. )
A)Victim is pulseless.
B)Victim has chest pain.
C)Victim has multiple fractures.
D)Victim has chest wound.
E)Victim has a head injury with loss of consciousness.
F)Victim has third-degree burns.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing care for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome.The nurse reviews the results of the arterial blood gases and determines the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis.The nurse would expect to find which of the following on the laboratory results?
A)pH 7.40,PCO 56 mmHg
B)pH 7.35,PCO 42 mmHg
C)pH 7.25,PCO 58 mmHg
D)pH 7.50,PCO 28 mmHg
Q2) Which of these terms describes negatively charged particles within the body?
A)anions
B)cations
C)electrolytes
D)elements
Q3) The movement of both water and substances as a result of hydrostatic pressure is called:
A)active transport
B)diffusion
C)filtration
D)osmosis
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Q1) The graduate nurse is aware that the count of the unit's narcotics and controlled substances at the change of shifts should involve:
A)everyone who has given or will be giving narcotics on both shifts
B)one nurse who is going off duty and one nurse coming on duty
C)one pharmacy technician and the unit's head or charge nurse
D)the unit's head nurse and a hospital pharmacist
Q2) Knowing a drug's half-life is essential for the health care provider because this factor determines the drug's:
A)onset of action
B)peak plasma level
C)duration of effectiveness
D)schedule for maintaining the drug level over 24 hours
Q3) Before delivering a drug through an enteral tube,it is MOST important for the nurse to do which of the following?
A)Assess the client's bowel sounds.
B)Check the tube patency.
C)Check the tube placement.
D)Instill 5 mL of water to rinse the tube.
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Q1) How should a beginning nursing student perform deep palpation of a client's liver?
A)by applying short jabs to the area with the palm
B)by exerting slight pressure over the area with the fingertips
C)by placing the heels of both hands over the area and pressing downward
D)only under an instructor's supervision
Q2) The client's upper extremity strength is assessed as normal when a handshake reveals which of the following?
A)Both hands are equal.
B)The dominant hand is stronger.
C)The nondominant hand is stronger.
D)Neither hand is stronger,because one hand will always dominate.
Q3) A client complains of dizziness when moving from a reclining position to a standing position.Which of these assessments will provide the nurse with the MOST pertinent data about the client's symptoms?
A)respiratory pattern
B)temperature
C)positional blood pressures
D)radial and carotid pulses
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Q1) Which of these statements about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is TRUE?
A)Clients receiving PCA must be monitored for overdose side effects.
B)Health care professionals allocate time for setting up and maintaining PCA when in use.
C)PCA can only be administered via the epidural route.
D)PCA can safely be used in pediatric and home health settings.
Q2) Transdermal opioid administration is indicated for a client in which of the following situations?
A)The exact dosing of medication is required.
B)Oral medication cannot be tolerated.
C)Pain is predictable,as in postsurgical clients.
D)Pain is continuous,and high dosage is required.
Q3) Which of these data provide the MOST accurate information about the pain a client is experiencing?
A)objective changes in vital signs such as increased respiratory rate,heart rate,and blood pressure
B)the amount of tissue damage actually occurring or already present
C)facial expressions and level of mobility
D)self-report
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Q1) Which of these findings would be considered normal in a urine specimen?
A)pH 7.4
B)glucose
C)protein
D)specific gravity 1.5
Q2) A pregnant client is scheduled for a fetal ultrasound.The nurse must instruct the client to:
A)request a lead apron be placed over the abdomen during the test
B)delay urination and ensure a full bladder at the time of the test
C)remove all jewelry prior to the test
D)eat a normal breakfast
Q3) All of these tests require the client to be NPO prior to the test.Which one requires that the client have no exposure to barium for at least 4 days before the test?
A)barium swallow
B)computed tomography
C)gallbladder series
D)renal angiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is pushing or pulling a client,which of these positions should the nurse assume?
A)Stand near the client with both feet firmly planted.
B)Stand near the client,and place one foot partially ahead of the other.
C)Lean into the client,and move the client with a swift motion.
D)Lean away from the client,and apply maximum pressure.
Q2) Which of these statements is TRUE about the care of a client who has an ocular prosthesis?
A)The eye socket should be cleansed before and after removal of the artificial eye.
B)The artificial eye is washed with soap and water,and then dried before reinsertion.
C)Removal of an artificial eye for daily cleansing is not always necessary.
D)Cover the eye socket with an eye pad while the artificial eye is being cleansed.
Q3) Which of the essential elements of hand hygiene is MOST important?
A)soap
B)chemical substance
C)water
D)friction
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Questions
Q1) One advantage of selecting continuous enteral feeding for a client who is unable to eat by mouth is that it:
A)is easier to administer and requires minimal equipment
B)keeps gastric volume small,reducing risk of aspiration
C)is less irritating than intermittent feedings
D)requires less effort for digestion to occur
Q2) While a nurse is pouring a cleansing solution into a container on a sterile field,some of the solution splashes over the side of the container.This field is now considered to be:
A)sterile
B)medically aseptic
C)surgically aseptic
D)contaminated
Q3) After a client has self-administered a vaginal medication,the nurse should suggest the client:
A)perform perineal care
B)allow the medication to remain in place at least 30 minutes before voiding
C)apply a perineal pad to collect any discharge or drainage
D)remain in the dorsal recumbent position for at least 10 minutes
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Q1) A nurse is preparing to draw blood from a client.Where should the tourniquet be applied?
A)2 inches above the venipuncture site
B)3 to 4 inches above the venipuncture site
C)5 inches above the venipuncture site
D)6 to 7 inches above the venipuncture site
Q2) A nurse is to remove an interrupted suture from an incision site.After the site has been cleansed,which of these steps is correct?
A)Use forceps to grasp the middle of the suture,cut it,and pull either end.
B)Use forceps to grasp the suture near the knot,place the curved edge of the scissors under the suture and cut close to the skin,and pull the long end to remove.
C)Use forceps to grasp every other suture,cut each with the curved edge of the scissors down,and pull the short end to remove.
D)Grasp the knot of the suture,cut with the scissors in a position of comfort,and pull either end.
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44564
Sample Questions
Q1) The client has received an anesthetic injected deeper into the body.The nurse is aware that toxicity is an infrequent complication of this type of anesthesia:
A)epidural anesthesia
B)local anesthesia
C)nerve block
D)spinal anesthesia
Q2) The client is receiving a medication to prevent pain during surgery.This is an example of:
A)analgesia
B)anesthesia
C)antiemetic
D)sedation
Q3) When a client emerges from general anesthesia,which of these side effects of anesthesia may be present?
A)increased heart and respiratory rates
B)hypothermia
C)decreased blood pressure
D)panic attacks
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44565
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients who have diabetes mellitus are prone to what postoperative complications?
A)atelectasis
B)hemorrhage
C)infection
D)pressure sores
Q2) A client who has diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery tomorrow.Which of the following accommodations will be made?
A)The dose of insulin for the morning of the surgery will be reduced.
B)IV fluids will be omitted.
C)Surgery will be scheduled as early in the morning as possible.
D)Serum glucose will be carefully monitored immediately after surgery.
Q3) Which of the following assessments of a client transferred to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)from the operating room would NOT necessarily indicate a postoperative complication to the nurse?
A)acute inspiratory stridor with sternal retractions
B)labored chest movement
C)snoring
D)peripheral cyanosis
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44566
Sample Questions
Q1) When medicating a client for cancer pain,the nursing goal should be to:
A)avoid the use of narcotics for as long as possible
B)give the correct amount of medication in relation to the client's level of pain
C)medicate the client within 10 minutes of each request for pain medication
D)prevent pain rather than treat it after its occurrence
Q2) Which of these statements related to cancer risk is FALSE?
A)Exposure to coal tar constitutes a risk factor for lung cancer.
B)Melanoma can develop with even limited exposure to ultraviolet rays.
C)Smokeless tobacco poses less risk for cancer than cigarettes.
D)Heavy alcohol consumption primarily increases risk for lung cancer.
Q3) A client has an insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant.When providing care,the nurse discovers the implant has come out.The MOST appropriate action for the nurse to take immediately is to:
A)call the physician
B)pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet
C)reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
D)pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place into a lead container
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44567
Sample Questions
Q1) Immediate treatment of epistaxis would include:
A)administration of supplemental oxygen
B)cauterizing of nasal mucosa
C)compression of the nares
D)fluid and blood replacement
Q2) Which of these factors can cause a closed pneumothorax?
A)mechanical ventilation
B)gunshot wound
C)blunt trauma
D)emphysema
Q3) Which of these statements about the pressure within the pleural space is TRUE?
A)It is always changing to compensate for inhalation or exhalation.
B)It is greater than outside air.
C)It is less than outside air.
D)It is the same as atmospheric pressure.
Q4) What is the name of the transparent membrane covering the lungs?
A)alveolar capillary membrane
B)pericardium
C)pleura
D)viscera
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44568
Sample Questions
Q1) During a client's routine physical examination,an aortic aneurysm is detected.The client is distressed and says,"I know this is wrong because I don't have any symptoms or problems!" Which of these responses should the nurse make?
A)"Aneurysms are caused by a hereditary lack of elastin in the arterial wall.Have any relatives had this problem?"
B)"Aneurysms are often asymptomatic until they start leaking or pressing on other structures."
C)"Didn't you see the X-ray pictures of the aneurysm?"
D)"Why don't you seek a second opinion?"
Q2) What is the MOST common cause of premature ventricular contractions?
A)alcohol abuse
B)coronary artery disease
C)excessive drug abuse
D)myocardial infarction
Q3) A heart rate of 60 bpm or less is called:
A)ectopic beat
B)sinus bradycardia
C)flutter
D)asymptomatic bradycardia
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44569
Sample Questions
Q1) The client who has chronic leukemia is MOST likely to die from which of these conditions?
A)aggressive chemotherapy
B)viral and fungal pneumonia
C)bone marrow transplantation
D)persistent blood loss
Q2) If a client's complete blood count reports an increased number of WBCs,the nurse knows this indicates the client is experiencing:
A)bone marrow failure
B)dietary deficiencies
C)drug toxicity
D)infection,inflammation,tissue necrosis,or leukemia
Q3) The nurse should recognize that a client may develop aplastic anemia when taking which of these medications?
A)ferrous sulfate
B)tetracycline
C)chloramphenicol
D)aspirin
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Q1) A client has recurrent ascites as a result of cirrhosis.Which of these procedures will the health care provider perform to allow extended control of this fluid buildup?
A)daily administration of aldactone
B)peritoneal venous shunt
C)albumin infusion
D)paracentesis
Q2) When caring for a client who is obese,which of the following are risk factors for increased complications? (Select all that apply. )
A)immobility
B)skin breakdown
C)hypocoagulopathy
D)increased dietary needs
E)difficulty breathing
F)safety
Q3) Which of these factors contributes to a client developing gastritis?
A)exposure to irritating substances such as ibuprofen
B)impaired esophageal sphincter function
C)high-fat diet
D)viral infection
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48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44571
Sample Questions
Q1) The medical treatment for prerenal acute renal failure (ARF)related to fluid volume deficit is focused on:
A)administering IV fluids,albumin,plasma,or blood
B)increasing the effective arterial blood volume (EABV)by dobutamine or Inocor
C)removing the obstruction
D)restoring perfusion to the kidney quickly
Q2) To assess a client who is experiencing symptoms of overflow incontinence,the nurse will focus on which area?
A)amount of caffeinated beverages consumed daily
B)use of diuretics
C)evidence of edema
D)presence of diabetes
Q3) Which of these observations would a nurse expect in a client who is in the recovery phase of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
A)a short period of rapid improvement,followed by rapid decline in the client's condition
B)return of normal urine output
C)elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)levels
D)rapid increase in volume of urinary output
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Q1) Client education for crutch walking for the client with a full left leg cast includes which of the following?
A)The tripod position is the basic stance.
B)Place crutch tips 12 to 15 inches in front of and lateral to the client's foot.
C)Change crutch tips frequently.
D)Place weight equally on the axilla pieces when moving the affected leg.
Q2) A client develops a red macule at the site of a deer tick bite,a rash with round rings around the site,headache,neck stiffness,and pain.The nurse should suspect the client has developed which of these conditions?
A)gout
B)Lyme disease
C)polymyositis
D)rheumatoid arthritis
Q3) What is the cause of gout?
A)ineffective purine metabolism
B)joint overuse,resulting in "wear and tear"
C)diminished mineral and protein matrix components of the bone
D)inflammation of the bone and bone marrow due to pathogenic bacteria
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44573
Sample Questions
Q1) How should a nurse assess a client's pupillary response to light?
A)Briefly shine a penlight into the client's eye by passing the light from the outer edge of the eye toward the center of the eye.
B)Have the client briefly close his or her eyes and then quickly open them.
C)Have the client turn his or her entire head away from a light source placed on one side of the client.
D)Turn the lights in the room on and off.
Q2) The chemical substance that excites,inhibits,or modifies the response of another neuron is an example of:
A)cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B)myelin
C)a neurotransmitter
D)white matter
Q3) Which portion of the peripheral nervous system,activated by stress,prepares the body for the fight-or-flight response?
A)cerebral nervous system
B)parasympathetic nervous system
C)somatic nervous system
D)sympathetic nervous system
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57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44574
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the outer coat of the eyeball composed posteriorly of the sclera and anteriorly of the transparent cornea?
A)fibrous tunic
B)nervous tunic
C)orbital tunic
D)vascular tunic
Q2) When caring for a client who has altered tactile sensation,the nurse's MOST important role is to:
A)perform passive range-of-motion exercises for the client every 2 to 4 hours to avoid atrophy
B)provide clear,concise explanations of treatments while avoiding information overload
C)provide sensory stimulation by using auditory,visual,and gustatory stimuli to help compensate for tactile loss
D)reduce or prevent impairment of skin integrity
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44575
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Q1) Which nursing intervention is indicated for a client who has myxedema?
A)Take frequent baths or showers.
B)Encourage an increasingly vigorous exercise program.
C)Teach the client to monitor intake and output.
D)Provide a high-fiber diet.
Q2) The MOST appropriate nursing goal for a client with hypoparathyroidism would be:
A)to prevent infections
B)to maintain adequate calcium intake
C)to monitor fluid intake
D)to verbalize feelings about changed appearance
Q3) The nurse is caring for a client who has a family history of diabetes,is obese,and is aging.Which type of diabetes would the nurse suspect this client has?
A)gestational diabetes mellitus
B)immune-mediated diabetes mellitus
C)type 1 diabetes mellitus
D)type 2 diabetes mellitus
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Q1) A client who has diabetes with vascular complications and takes antihypertensives develops recent onset impotence.Which type of impotence do the client's symptoms suggest?
A)injury to the spermatic cord
B)anatomic
C)atonic
D)functional
Q2) A male client develops sudden abdominal and scrotal pain and scrotal edema.The client tells the nurse he recently had a bicycle accident.The nurse should suspect that the client has developed:
A)epididymitis
B)hydrocele
C)hypospadias
D)testicular torsion
Q3) Which medication is used to reduce the client's bladder spasms after prostate surgery?
A)alpha blockers
B)belladonna and opium suppositories
C)finasteride
D)meperidine
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44577
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the preferred treatment of a client who has trichomoniasis?
A)1 week of Cipro
B)3 days of doxycycline
C)up to 1 week of Flagyl
D)a single penicillin injection
Q2) Which population group is MOST at risk for developing human papillomavirus (HPV)infection?
A)males between the ages of 17 and 25 years old
B)males or females in their early 20s who have had multiple sexual partners
C)teenage girls or young women in their 20s
D)females in their mid-20s to 30s
Q3) The nurse should be aware that which sexually transmitted infection (STI)is often seen in combination with chlamydia?
A)gonorrhea
B)herpes genitalis
C)syphilis
D)trichomoniasis
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Q1) Which of the following is a major symptom of contact dermatitis?
A)scaling
B)blanching of skin
C)loss of skin surface
D)pruritus
Q2) A client has a stasis ulcer on the left ankle.Nursing assessment of this open area involves which skin assessment parameter?
A)integrity
B)moisture
C)turgor
D)vascularity
Q3) Which of these statements about the cause of significant skin damage is TRUE?
A)It results from cumulative sun exposure.
B)It is genetically inherited.
C)It results from ingesting carcinogenic foods and other substances.
D)It results from tanning bed usage.
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44579
Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventions would apply when caring for a client at high risk for an allergic response to a latex allergy? (Select all that apply. )
A)Use nonlatex gloves.
B)Keep a latex-free supply cart available for the client's use.
C)Only use a blood pressure cuff from an electronic device to measure the blood pressure.
D)Use medications from glass ampoules.
E)Do not puncture rubber stoppers with needles.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that which statement about myasthenia gravis (MG)is TRUE?
A)It is a chronic,progressive,incurable autoimmune disease affecting multiple body organs.
B)It involves the body's inability to transmit nerve impulses to voluntary muscles,causing extreme muscle weakness and fatigue.
C)It is a hypersensitive immune response.
D)It is an inadequate immunological response by the body.
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Q1) A client admitted with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is having a flashback.What is MOST important for the nurse to remember to do during this episode?
A)Avoid touching the client during the flashback.
B)Note and record the episode's length of time and any key ideas expressed.
C)Restrain the client as soon as possible,and administer sedation as ordered.
D)Speak to the client in a soft,calm voice.
Q2) What change,if any,should the nurse expect in the dietary patterns of a client who is clinically depressed?
A)either overeating or eating little to nothing
B)intake is decreased
C)intake is increased
D)none
Q3) An older adult client has been taking lithium for several months.The nurse should recognize that the client's age increases susceptibility to which of these potential complications?
A)"breakthrough" episodes despite appropriate medical management
B)developing lithium toxicity
C)noncompliance with drug regime
D)sodium depletion
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37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44581
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these drugs is classified as a central nervous system stimulant?
A)alcohol
B)cocaine
C)barbiturates
D)benzodiazepines
Q2) When teaching a client about substance abuse,the nurse would BEST define a substance as:
A)a street drug that is frequently abused
B)a readily obtained drug that compels a person to overdose
C)a homemade concoction that produces desired effects
D)a drug,legal or illegal,that may cause physical or mental impairment
Q3) Which of these terms describes the reversible effect on the central nervous system that occurs soon after the use of a substance?
A)abuse
B)intoxication
C)tolerance
D)withdrawal
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Q1) Which of these changes in the integumentary system are part of normal aging?
A)increased nail growth
B)hypopigmentation
C)decreased melanin production
D)increased sensitivity to pressure
Q2) Which of these statements about health promotion and disease prevention for older adult clients is TRUE?
A)No special efforts are needed to alter lifestyle practices.
B)It remains beneficial to teach components of healthy lifestyle and specific disease prevention.
C)Monitoring of prescription medications complicates the health care routine.
D)There are more specific interventions necessary for men than for women.
Q3) Which of these terms describes the study of the effects of normal aging and age-related disease on human beings?
A)ageology
B)geriatrics
C)gerontology
D)senescence
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a client on a rehabilitation unit.Which of the following is an appropriate restorative care goal for the client?
A)the client will have restored health
B)the client will return home after 2 weeks of therapy
C)the client will restore only activities of daily living
D)the client will reach optimal functional level
Q2) The function of the interdisciplinary health care team is to:
A)assess,maintain,and evaluate the abilities of clients upon completion of therapy
B)provide care and evaluate the abilities of clients in need of functional therapy
C)evaluate the effectiveness of treatment of clients in functional therapy
D)assess and provide care for the clients in need of functional therapy
Q3) When caring for a client in the home setting,the LP/VN would MOST likely perform which of the following skills?
A)respiratory therapy treatments
B)providing speech therapy
C)evaluating the nursing care plan
D)administer medications and provide client teaching
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Q1) A 3-year-old child has ingested a household cleaner,which the poison control center states is caustic.Which of these actions should the nurse take?
A)Administer 15 cc syrup of ipecac,and repeat in 20 minutes to induce vomiting.
B)Give copious amounts of water to dilute the substance.
C)Give two 8-ounce glasses of milk to neutralize the acidity of the poison.
D)Insert a nasogastric tube,and remove as much of the substance as possible.
Q2) A client who is a victim of a penetrating trauma has bowel loops protruding through the abdominal wall.Which of these actions should the nurse take FIRST?
A)Administer narcotics if indicated by pain level expressed by the client.
B)Cover the exposed intestine with saline-soaked gauze.
C)Insert a large-bore intravenous (IV)access.
D)Prepare the client for a peritoneal lavage procedure.
Q3) A disaster can BEST be described as:
A)a consequence of natural or man-made events
B)a situation or event posing a serious threat to public health
C)the result of conditions beyond the scope of normal emergencies
D)a legal term related to unexplained situations with unpredictable outcomes
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Q1) A 68-year-old female client notices the gradual development of muscular weakness,resting tremors in the upper extremities,and some muscular rigidity.Her health care provider makes a tentative diagnosis of Parkinson's disease and refers the client to a neurological specialist who confirms the diagnosis.What information could the nurse provide to the client and her family about the nature of Parkinson's disease? What are some of the things that the client and her family should prepare to cope with as the disease progresses? Describe key aspects of a teaching plan for the client and her family.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis.The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic,and crackles are heard on the auscultation of the lungs.The nurse suspects fluid volume excess secondary to congestive heart failure (CHF).What additional signs would the nurse expect to see if the cardiovascular system is being affected?
A)flat hand and neck veins
B)a weak and thready pulse
C)an increase in blood pressure
D)an increased urine output
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Q1) Couvade is BEST described as the:
A)development of physical symptoms of pregnancy by the expectant father
B)fluid that contains antibodies and is secreted by the breasts prior to breast milk
C)motion of rebound that the floating fetus experiences when pushed upward through the vagina or abdomen
D)soft blowing sound occurring at the same rate as the maternal heart rate when the abdomen of a pregnant mother is auscultated
Q2) In the fetus,the foramen ovale causes the majority of blood to bypass which of these structures?
A)coronary sinus
B)left ventricle
C)right ventricle
D)superior vena cava
Q3) At 34 weeks' gestation,a normal prenatal client should have a hematocrit of:
A)less than 25%
B)25% to 35%
C)34% to 40%
D)more than 40%
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Q1) To prevent fetal infection,a cesarean birth is required for the pregnant client who is infected with which of these organisms at the time of delivery?
A)cytomegalovirus
B)herpes genitalis
C)rubella
D)toxoplasmosis
Q2) A pregnant client has a nonstress test (NST)that is "nonreactive." The nurse should recognize that this means
A)the fetus has adequate oxygenation and an intact central nervous system
B)the fetus is asleep or is having problems
C)there is inadequate fetal activity
D)there were decelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR)
Q3) A high-risk client in labor is having electronic fetal monitoring (EFM).Which of these interpretations should the nurse recognize as normal,requiring no intervention?
A)a baseline rate of 180 bpm
B)early decelerations
C)late decelerations
D)variable decelerations
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Q1) Ten minutes after the cutting of the baby's umbilical cord,the nurse observes a sudden gush of blood,a lengthening of the cord at the vaginal orifice,and that the uterus has assumed a more globular shape.These signs are MOST indicative of:
A)hemorrhage due to uterine atony
B)inversion of the uterus
C)multiple birth
D)placental separation
Q2) When caring for a client receiving a secondary oxytocin infusion to induce or augment labor,the nurse would NOT discontinue the oxytocin in which of these situations?
A)when contractions occur every 2 minutes
B)when the fetal monitor shows no variability
C)when the contractions are of 40 to 60 seconds' duration
D)when the fetal monitor shows prolonged decelerations
Q3) What is the significance of crowning?
A)Birth is imminent.
B)Labor must be induced within 12 to 24 hours.
C)The placenta has separated from the wall of the uterus.
D)The recovery stage of labor begins.
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Q1) When conducting a telephone follow-up of all clients who are 2 weeks postpartum,the nurse would expect clients to describe their uterine and vaginal discharge as:
A)bright red
B)nonexistent
C)pinkish brown
D)yellowish white
Q2) During the immediate postpartum period,a client's fundus is firmly contracted,midline,and at the appropriate level,but she is exhibiting an excessive amount of bleeding.The nurse should suspect the cause of bleeding to be:
A)a full bladder
B)ambulation
C)breastfeeding
D)cervical or vaginal tears
Q3) What are the usual causes of maternal afterpains?
A)cesarean delivery and prolonged labor
B)multiparity and breastfeeding
C)postpartal hemorrhage and puerperal infection
D)uterine involution and breast engorgement
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Q1) A newborn admitted to the nursery has these vital signs: rectal temperature,99.2 degrees Fahrenheit;pulse,130;respirations,45.The nurse should recognize that this baby's vital signs indicate:
A)a temperature elevation that should be investigated for possible sepsis
B)essentially normal vital signs for a newborn
C)tachycardia,which should be reported to the health care provider
D)tachypnea,which should be monitored for possible oxygen administration
Q2) When a nurse cares for a newborn who has spina bifida occulta,which of these signs would be evident?
A)a dimple at the base of the spine on the infant's back
B)a mild degree of paralysis of the lower extremities with no visible defect
C)paralysis of the lower extremities,including lack of sphincter control
D)progressive hydrocephalus and a protrusion of the meninges through the skin of the back
Q3) Which of these tests is often done before birth to determine the maturity of the fetal lungs?
A)amniotic bilirubin level
B)amniotic creatine level
C)L/S ratio (lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio)
D)sonogram
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Q1) When a child is hospitalized,which of these factors must be the primary focus of nursing care?
A)client safety and protection
B)caregivers' comfort
C)access of grandparents and other family members
D)enforcing visiting hours
Q2) What is the normal percentile range for pediatric clients' height and weight on a percentile growth chart?
A)5% to 95%
B)25% to 75%
C)30% to 70%
D)45% to 55%
Q3) Preoperative nursing responsibilities for a child having surgery include which of the following? (Select all that apply. )
A)Prepare for separation from caregivers.
B)Complete presurgery assessment.
C)Provide beverage or bottle 1 hour prior.
D)Obtain vital signs.
E)Assess operative site.
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44592
Sample Questions
Q1) A child has a diagnosis of croup (laryngotracheobronchitis).He has received a corticosteroid and cool mist therapy.His caregiver asks the nurse why the doctor did not order antibiotics.The MOST appropriate response is:
A)the child is too young to receive antibiotics
B)the child may be allergic to antibiotics so the risks outweigh the benefit.
C)most antibiotics are used for bacterial germs and his type of croup is due to a virus.
D)the doctor would rather wait and see if he can get better without them.
Q2) Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect in an infant with Hirschsprung's disease?
A)foul-smelling fatty stool
B)currant jelly-like stool
C)thick,black,tarry stool
D)constipation alternating with ribbonlike stools.
Q3) Which of these congenital defects may recur,even after correction?
A)congenital talipes equinovarus
B)hip dysplasia
C)hydrocephalus
D)pyloric stenosis
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44593
Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a child diagnosed with cellulitis,which area of the body would the nurse expect to be affected?
A)face and lower extremities
B)hands and arms
C)torso only
D)upper extremities only
Q2) What is considered to be the treatment of choice for children who have Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A)a non-weight-bearing abduction brace
B)non-weight-bearing range-of-motion exercises and bed rest for a minimum of 2 months
C)surgical intervention
D)traction
Q3) In addition to topical steroid cream,the nurse would expect the health care provider to prescribe which of these for a client who has a severe case of contact dermatitis?
A)antifungal lotion
B)IV fluids
C)oral antibiotics
D)oral steroids
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Page 63