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Fundamentals of Nursing is an introductory course designed to provide students with the foundational knowledge and skills necessary for professional nursing practice. The course covers essential concepts such as the nursing process, basic patient care techniques, communication skills, safety procedures, infection control, and ethical and legal considerations in healthcare. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and compassionate care through hands-on practice in laboratory and clinical settings. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to deliver safe, effective, and patient-centered care in a variety of healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a clinical environment, evidence-based practice has the ability to improve: (Select all that apply.)
A)the quality of care provided.
B)patient outcomes.
C)clinician satisfaction.
D)patients' perceptions.
E)None of above
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) A well-developed PICOT question helps the nurse:
A)search for evidence.
B)include all five elements of the sequence.
C)find as many articles as possible in a literature search.
D)accept standard clinical routines.
Answer: A
Q3) Evidence-based practice requires good ______________.
Answer: nursing judgment
Evidence-based practice requires good nursing judgment; it does not consist of finding research evidence and blindly applying it.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered "advance directives"? (Select all that apply.)
A)Living will
B)Power of attorney for health care
C)Notarized handwritten document
D)Nursing progress note
Answer: A, B, C
Q2) An unconscious patient is admitted through the emergency department.How and when is identification of the patient made?
A)Determined only when the patient is able
B)Postponed until family members arrive
C)Given an anonymous name under the "blackout" procedure
D)Determined before treatment is started
Answer: B
Q3) When does the plan for patient discharge from a health care facility begin?
A)At admission
B)After a medical diagnosis has been determined
C)When the patient's physical needs are identified
D)After a home environment assessment is completed
Answer: A
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Q1) The nurse is attempting to teach the patient and his family about his care after discharge.The patient and the family demonstrate signs of anxiety during the teaching session.The nurse should consider doing what?
A)Using more gestures or pictures
B)Focusing on the physical complaints
C)Getting another staff member to speak to the patient
D)Repeating information to the patient and the family at a later time
Answer: D
Q2) The patient is sitting at the bedside.He has not been eating and is just staring out of the window.The nurse approaches the patient and asks, "What are you thinking about?" What type of communication technique is this?
A)Restating
B)Clarification
C)Broad openings
D)Reflection
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) When making written entries in the patient's medical record, describe the nursing care provided and the ____________.
Q2) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the ________________.
Q3) The nurse manager is attempting to determine the staffing needs of the unit.One tool that she may use to determine the level of care needed would be:
A)the standardized care plan.
B)the acuity record.
C)the patient care summary.
D)flow sheets.
Q4) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a patient's health status and progress.
Q5) Which is a delivery model that coordinates and links health care services to patients and families?
A)Critical pathways
B)Charting by exception
C)SOAP
D)Case management
Q6) The abbreviation for every day (___) is no longer used.
Page 6
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 1-year-old male infant who is admitted with possible sepsis.The patient is irritable and agitates easily.What should the nurse do to assess the patient's temperature?
A)Take an oral temperature before doing anything else.
B)Take an axillary temperature using the upper axilla.
C)Place the child in Sims' position for a rectal temperature.
D)Take a rectal temperature as the last vital sign.
Q2) An appropriate procedure for measurement of an adult's temperature with a tympanic membrane sensor is:
A)pulling the ear pinna down and back.
B)moving into the ear in a figure-eight pattern.
C)fitting the probe loosely into the ear canal.
D)pointing the probe toward the mouth and chin.
Q3) An irregular heartbeat, often found in children, that speeds up with inspiration and slows down with expiration is known as a sinus ___________.
Q4) To take a manual blood pressure, the nurse places the cuff of the _____________ around the patient's upper arm.
Q5) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production, ____________ is the result.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse document an exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine found during the assessment of a 90-year-old patient?
A)Lordosis
B)Osteoporosis
C)Scoliosis
D)Kyphosis
Q2) What technique should the nurse implement for assessment of the carotid artery?
A)Massaging the arteries briskly
B)Using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
C)Palpating each carotid artery separately
D)Placing the patient in a supine position
Q3) The patient is 3 days post abdominal surgery.The nurse uses her stethoscope to listen for bowel sounds.This assessment technique is known as _________________.
Q4) During assessment of a patient with anemia, a nurse is alert for the presence of:
A)pallor.
B)jaundice.
C)cyanosis.
D)erythema.
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing) microorganisms.
Q2) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:
A)put the patient in a private room.
B)place the patient on standard precautions.
C)wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient.
D)place the patient on contact precautions.
Q3) The patient is admitted to the pediatric unit with severe pertussis.The nurse explains to the parents and the child that the patient will be treated with the use of:
A)airborne precautions.
B)standard precautions only.
C)droplet precautions.
D)contact isolation.
Q4) OSHA and CDC guidelines require health care workers who care for suspected or confirmed TB patients to wear special ________________.
Q5) Infection control practices that reduce and eliminate sources and transmission of infection are known as _______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient may the nurse suspect will be at risk for a latex allergy?
A)Patient with food allergies
B)Patient with diabetes
C)Patient with arthritis
D)Patient with hypertension
Q2) A sterile field consists of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Sterile tray
B)Work surface draped with a sterile towel
C)Table covered by a large sterile drape
D)Patient's bedside table
Q3) A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a dressing change using surgical aseptic technique.The nurse gathers supplies to prepare the sterile field using a packaged drape.Which option correctly describes how the nurse should set up the field?
A)Don sterile gloves before opening the packaged drape.
B)Clean the bottle of irrigation solution with alcohol before placing the bottle on the field.
C)Avoid dropping sterile supplies close to the 1-inch border around the drape.
D)Leave the sterile field unattended to obtain needed supplies.
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse prevents self-injury by using which of the following when transferring a patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)Correct posture
B)Maximal muscle strength
C)Effective body mechanics
D)Effective lifting techniques
Q2) Proper alignment for a patient in sitting position includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Head erect
B)Four-inch space between edge of seat and popliteal space
C)Vertebrae straight
D)Both feet elevated
Q3) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
Q4) Positioning of patients to maintain correct body alignment is essential to prevent which of the following complications? (Select all that apply.)
A)Thrombus
B)Pressure ulcer
C)Kyphosis
D)Contractures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virchow's triad (hypercoagulability of blood, venous wall damage, and stasis of blood flow) has been found to contribute to ________________.
Q2) The patient had a stroke and is currently immobile.The nurse realizes that increasing mobility is critical because immobility can result in alterations in which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cardiovascular function
B)Pulmonary function
C)Skin integrity
D)Elimination
E)None of above
Q3) _________________ increase muscle tension but do not change the length of muscle fibers.
Q4) Static exercises that involve tightening or tensing of muscles without moving a body part are known as ______________.
Q5) Factors that contribute to the development of DVT are: (Select all that apply.)
A)elevated sodium (Na+) levels.
B)hypercoagulability of the blood.
C)venous wall damage.
D)stasis of blood flow.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of traction does the nurse anticipate will be used for an adult patient with a fractured humerus?
A)Bryant's traction
B)Dunlop's traction
C)Gallows traction
D)Buck's extension
Q2) For a patient with a fractured femur, a nurse is alert to the possibility of a fat embolus.What should the nurse specifically watch for?
A)Bradypnea
B)Restlessness
C)Bradycardia
D)Calf pain
Q3) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
Q4) In planning nursing care, the nurse knows that she will need to provide an abduction pillow for which patient?
A)A patient who will be immobilized for a long time
B)A patient who has undergone repair of a fractured right arm
C)A patient who is post hip replacement surgery
D)A patient who has a severely sprained ankle
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Sample Questions
Q1) An air-suspension bed is contraindicated for the patient with:
A)burns.
B)traction.
C)osteoporosis.
D)respiratory insufficiency.
Q2) The patient requires a support surface to help prevent pressure ulcers.He has a large open wound on his leg that is dressed daily.The nurse must choose which support surface would be most appropriate.What does the nurse realize when comparing the different types of support surfaces?
A)Water mattresses are better for patients with open wounds.
B)Air surface beds cannot be used if the patient needs CPR.
C)Water mattresses make it hard to regulate patient body temperature.
D)Air mattresses reduce shear and friction.
Q3) Use of the bariatric bed is contraindicated in patients with
Q4) What is the most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers?
A)Proper use of foam or air mattresses
B)Proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C)Frequent repositioning of the patient
D)Proper use of a low-air-loss bed
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health care facilities must provide employees access to information about the properties of particular chemicals and information for handling substances in a safe manner.Facilities do this by providing ______________.
Q2) As part of an attempt to implement a restraint-free environment, the nurse:
A)provides constant activity for the patient.
B)covers or camouflages tubes and drains.
C)changes caregivers as often as possible.
D)reduces visiting hours and times in therapy.
Q3) A safe health care environment is one in which: (Select all that apply.)
A)the patient's basic needs are met.
B)physical hazards are reduced.
C)transmission of microorganisms is reduced.
D)sanitary measures are carried out.
E)None of above.
Q4) More than ____________ patients are injured in falls in inpatient settings annually in the United States.
Q5) The use of physical restraints is one safety strategy that has been used to protect patients from injury.However, physical restraints should be used as a ______________ and are used only when reasonable alternatives have failed.
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been exposed to a toxic chemical.The nurse's first priority is
Q2) The strategic plan of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the event of a disaster first focuses on __________________.
Q3) Which of the following are goals of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Prevention of terrorist attacks
B)Response to disasters
C)Recovery from disasters
D)Coordination of efforts among agencies
Q4) The patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible smallpox exposure.The patient has never had a smallpox immunization.The nurse prepares to administer a smallpox vaccination, realizing that vaccination:
A)within 3 days of exposure will completely prevent the disease.
B)is effective only if received before exposure.
C)4 to 7 days after exposure will completely prevent the disease.
D)within 3 days will offer only some protection from disease.
Q5) An outbreak of influenza A in the same geographical location is known as an __________.
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39785
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has morphine sulfate ordered for pain every 4 hours "prn." The patient complains of severe pain and usually requests more morphine an hour before it is due.The nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A)Request a "placebo order" from the physician.
B)Offer the patient medication "around the clock" instead of "prn".
C)Offer the patient massage between medication doses.
D)Offer the patient a nonopioid medication between morphine doses if ordered.
Q2) While reviewing a patient's medication history, the nurse determines that intraspinal analgesia is contraindicated as a result of:
A)previous spinal anesthesia.
B)recent administration of anticoagulants.
C)a history of cardiac problems.
D)a diagnosis of advanced cancer.
Q3) The application of touch and movement to muscles, tendons, and ligaments without manipulation of the joints is called _________________.
Q4) ________________ is a method of preventing pain while reducing overall opioid use.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse-initiated or independent activity for promotion of respiratory function in a terminally ill patient is to:
A)limit PO fluid intake.
B)position the patient in semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position.
C)reduce narcotic analgesic use.
D)administer bronchodilators.
Q2) Before allowing the family of a deceased patient to view the body, the nurse should:
A)insert the patient's dentures.
B)lower the head of the bed.
C)fold the arms and hands over the chest.
D)leave all of the old dressings and tape in place.
Q3) The patient is being admitted to the hospital for injuries received when a hurricane destroyed her home.She is upset from the loss of her home and possessions.What type of loss is this considered?
A)Necessary loss
B)Maturational loss
C)Situational loss
D)Perceived loss
Q4) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching parents how to provide oral care to their child, the nurse instructs them to:
A)give bottles with juice at bedtime.
B)begin dental visits after the child is 8 years old.
C)allow the preschool child to floss his teeth without parental supervision.
D)limit snacks to three or four per day.
Q2) The patient requires postural drainage three times a day.Which of the following bed positions would be most appropriate for this task?
A)Fowler's position
B)Trendelenburg's position
C)Reverse Trendelenburg's position
D)Semi-Fowler's position
Q3) The nurse assesses the patient's skin and notices an abrasion.Which of the following best describes this type of skin abnormality?
A)A papulopustular skin eruption
B)Rough texture on the skin surface
C)Erythema and scaly, oozing areas
D)A scraping away of the epidermis
Q4) _____________ is balding patches in the periphery of the hairline.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aggressive prevention measures should be implemented for a patient in the general population with a pressure ulcer risk on the Braden Scale of less than or equal to: A)16.
B)18.
C)20.
D)24.
Q2) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
Q3) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q4) In a long-term care facility, how often should the nurse reassess a patient for risk of a pressure ulcer?
A)Every 1 to 2 days
B)Every time the nurse sees the patient
C)Weekly for the first few weeks of stay
D)Monthly for the first 4 months of stay
Q5) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward, ________ damage occurs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to provide eye care for a comatose patient.The nurse realizes that comatose patients do not have natural protective mechanisms to protect the cornea.These protective mechanisms include: (Select all that apply.)
A)blinking.
B)squinting.
C)lubrication.
D)dilation.
Q2) A _____________ is a small, battery-powered, electronic device that amplifies sound.
Q3) The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient who has an artificial eye.To determine which eye is artificial, she shines a light into the patient's eyes.Why does the nurse do this?
A)The light will cause the eye to move differently than the natural eye.
B)An artificial eye pupil does not react to changes in light.
C)It is essential to remove the prosthesis for cleaning.
D)The implant can be seen only by shining a light.
Q4) The substance found in the ear canal that has an antibacterial effect and maintains an acid pH is called ______________.
Q5) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a liquid medication.Which action is most appropriate?
A)Pour the liquid medication toward the label.
B)Draw the liquid quickly into a syringe.
C)Place the medication cup on a flat surface at eye level.
D)Measure the poured liquid to the top of the meniscus.
Q2) The hospital has implemented a computerized physician order entry system ( CPOE ) to eliminate the need for written orders.The benefits of this system include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Automatic drug allergy checks
B)Automatic dosage indications
C)Identification of potential drug interactions
D)Reduced number of medical errors
E)None of above
Q3) The prescribed dose of Tylenol is given to a patient.The nurse recognizes the name Tylenol as which of the following?
A)Chemical name
B)Trade name
C)Generic name
D)United States Pharmacopeia
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is administering a buccal medication.Which instruction should be given to the patient?
A)Hold the medication under the tongue.
B)Swallow the medication after 30 seconds.
C)Chew the medication before swallowing.
D)Hold the medication against the cheek membranes.
Q2) What should the nurse do to assist a patient who is having difficulty swallowing tablets?
A)Administer the medication with less fluid.
B)Insert a nasogastric tube and instill the medication.
C)Crush the medications and administer with a small amount of food.
D)Administer the tablets one at a time with plenty of water.
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient how to use a metered-dose inhaler without a spacer.Which action by the patient demonstrates correct use of the device?
A)Being careful not to shake the canister
B)Positioning the mouthpiece in front of the mouth while not touching the lips
C)Depressing the canister fully, waiting 3 to 5 seconds, then inhaling slowly and deeply
D)Taking another puff of the medication within 10 seconds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a medication using a volume-controlled administration set or Volutrol.Which action should the nurse do first?
A)Open the clamp between the Volutrol and the main IV bag.
B)Open the air vent on the Volutrol.
C)Inject the medication into the Volutrol.
D)Clean the injection port on top of the Volutrol.
Q2) The nurse is preparing a medication that comes in an ampule.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Tapping the ampule so fluid moves from the bottom of the ampule to the neck
B)Avoiding inversion of the ampule after opening to prevent spillage of the medication
C)Using a filter needle long enough to reach the bottom of the ampule
D)Guiding the needle against the rim of the ampule to access the medication
Q3) A patient has medication ordered to be given by IV bolus.The nurse recognizes which advantage of this type of administration?
A)There is a slower onset of medication effects.
B)Medications are given over a longer time frame.
C)Medications given by IV bolus are less irritating to the veins.
D)Small volumes are used, so fluid overload can be avoided.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient with hypoxemia.The nurse is aware that which of the following results may worsen the patient's hypoxemia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Low sodium levels
B)Low hemoglobin levels
C)Increased blood pH
D)Decreased blood pH
Q2) The patient is on mechanical ventilation.Which actions by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A)Keep the patient in a supine position.
B)Note and mark the level of the endotracheal (ET) tube at the lips or nares.
C)Have suction equipment available for immediate use.
D)Perform mouth care at least twice daily.
Q3) A patient with a tracheostomy tube has an order for oxygen.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Apply sterile gloves to connect the oxygen to the tracheostomy tube.
B)Check the oxygen tubing frequently to make sure water is present in the tubing.
C)Attach the T tube to a humidified oxygen source.
D)Monitor the response to oxygen with hourly arterial blood gas levels.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Percussion and vibration is ordered on a patient with retained pulmonary secretions.Which action by the student nurse should the nursing instructor question?
A)Performs percussion for 3 to 5 minutes in each position as tolerated
B)Uses the wrist and elbow to create movement when performing percussion
C)While the patient inhales, gently pushes down and vibrates the chest wall with the flat part of the hand
D)Repeats the vibration 3 times and then instructs the patient to take a deep breath and cough while exhaling
Q2) To move secretions from small distal airways into larger central airways, the nurse would use ________________ and _______________.
Q3) The health care provider orders percussion on a patient to help clear airway secretions.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Performing percussion over the ribs, while avoiding the clavicles and sternum
B)Administering pain medication before performing the percussion because the vibrations will be painful
C)Performing percussion during exhalation only with the flat part of the palm
D)Creating a rocking motion by slightly leaning on the patient's chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with head trauma following a motor vehicle accident is on mechanical ventilation with an endotracheal tube.Which action by the nurse will reduce the risk for elevations in intracranial pressure during suctioning?
A)Avoid hyperoxygenating the patient before suctioning.
B)Insert the suction catheter just to the end of the endotracheal tube.
C)Apply suction while inserting the catheter.
D)Limit suctioning to 2 times with each suctioning procedure.
Q2) A patient using a nasal cannula has gurgling on inspiration.The nurse notes a productive cough but the inability to clear the secretions from the mouth.Which action should the nurse take first to prepare for oropharyngeal suctioning?
A)Apply clean gloves and a mask.
B)Insert the suction device to the back of the throat.
C)Remove the patient's nasal cannula.
D)Connect the tubing to a standard suction catheter.
Q3) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
Q4) A patient has extremely copious and thick oral secretions.The nurse provides oropharyngeal suctioning using a _________________ suction device.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What condition is indicated when a patient with a chest tube experiences sharp, stabbing chest pain without a change in pulse or blood pressure?
A)Pneumonitis
B)Tube displacement
C)A myocardial infarction
D)A tension pneumothorax
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is comatose and on a ventilator.When she enters the room, she notices that the patient's trachea has shifted toward the left side of the patient's neck, and he has become tachycardic.She assesses the patient's blood pressure and notes that it is 84/38.The nurse calls for help, having recognized that the patient has developed which of the following conditions?
A)Hemothorax
B)Pneumothorax on the left side
C)Pneumothorax on the right side
D)Myocardial infarction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse finds a patient lying on the bathroom floor.The patient is unresponsive and has a pulse but is not breathing.What is the nurse's first action?
A)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device.
B)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device and watch for chest movement.
C)Give two breaths using a bag-mask device.
D)Start chest compressions until an AED is available.
Q2) The nurse in the ICU is caring for a newly admitted patient with chest pain.She is aware that dysrhythmia may be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Electrolyte disturbances
B)Heart damage
C)Medications
D)Respiratory arrest
E)None of above
Q3) A semicircular, minimally flexible, curved piece of hard plastic that is inserted into the mouth so it extends from just outside the lips to the pharynx is known as an

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Q1) The order is for the patient to receive 500 mL over 4 hours.The nurse has an electronic infusion device ( EID ) in place that provides for the regulation of hourly infusion.The IV tubing available is 10 gtt/mL.What is the setting for the infusion device?
A)125 mL/hr
B)500 mL/hr
C)21 gtt/min
D)32 gtt/min
Q2) The nurse is preparing to draw blood from a central venous access device for blood cultures.Which of the following steps is part of that process?
A)Apply sterile gloves.
B)Flush the port with 5 to 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride.
C)Slowly aspirate 5 mL of blood and discard the syringe.
D)Use the distal lumen to draw blood.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 150 mL per hour.During her assessment, the nurse notes that the patient is having more labored respirations, and that crackles have developed in the patient's lungs.The nurse reduces the IV rate and notifies the physician.She does this while recognizing that the patient is experiencing signs of _______________.
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Q1) The patient is to receive 2 units of packed RBCs.The units are cold, and the nurse is concerned that this could lead to dysrhythmias and/or a reduction in core temperature.What action may the nurse take to prevent this?
A)Warm the blood in a microwave.
B)Warm the blood using hot water.
C)Warm the blood using a blood warmer.
D)Allow the blood to warm to room temperature before administering.
Q2) For how long may blood preserved with CPD be stored (unfrozen) before use?
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)3 months
Q3) The presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells determines ___________________ in the ABO system.
Q4) Under the ABO system, the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
Q5) A transfusion in which the donor is the patient is known as an ______________ transfusion or autotransfusion.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39800
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted to the hospital for evaluation for sleep apnea.The nurse calculates his body mass index (BMI) at 42 kg/m².What does this indicate about the patient's weight?
A)The patient is overweight.
B)The patient falls into the class 1 range of obesity.
C)The patient falls into the class 2 range of obesity.
D)The patient falls into the class 3 range of extreme obesity.
Q2) A stroke patient has residual dysphagia.The nurse notes that the ordered diet is the national dysphagia diet.She knows this diet comprises which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Dysphagia puree diet
B)Dysphagia mechanically altered diet
C)Dysphagia advanced diet
D)Regular diet
E)None of above
Q3) What must the nurse do before assisting the patient with feeding?
A)Assess the patient's gag reflex.
B)Make sure that the consistency of the food is thin.
C)Remove the patient's dentures to prevent gagging.
D)Prepare the patient to be fed by a staff member.
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Q1) Of the patients listed below, which would be a candidate for nasoenteric feeding tube placement?
A)Post-motor vehicle accident victim with a broken nose and jaw
B)Patient with a bleeding ulcer and possible esophageal varices
C)Elderly patient with a diagnosis of failure to thrive and an inability to chew
D)Patient with an esophageal tumor
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube in place.What interventions would the nurse perform to reduce the risk of clogging the feeding tube? (Select all that apply.)
A)Use the smallest barrel syringe possible to reduce the pressure in the tube.
B)Mix medication with feedings to thoroughly dilute the medication.
C)Flush the tube liberally with water before, between, and after each medication instillation.
D)Use the largest barrel syringe possible to reduce the pressure in the tube.
E)Crush solid medications thoroughly and mix them in water before administration.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient in a chronic vegetative state with inadequate gastric emptying.The nurse would anticipate finding in a ________ tube placed to assist with this patient's nutritional needs.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39802
Sample Questions
Q1) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
Q2) To detect a common untoward effect of interrupting a PN infusion, the nurse should assess the patient for development of which symptom?
A)Fever
B)Chest pain
C)Erythema and induration
D)Shaking and dizziness
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving PN.As part of therapy, the patient undergoes routine bedside glucose monitoring that reveals which expected outcome?
A)Lower than normal blood glucose to determine adequate tolerance for PN
B)Slightly higher than normal blood glucose to meet increased cellular needs
C)Slightly higher than normal blood glucose to prevent infection or systemic sepsis
D)Normal blood glucose to prevent associated complications
Q4) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing the patient for a bladder scan to determine PVR.Which of the following is part of the preparation?
A)Limit food intake for 2 hours before the scan.
B)Begin scan 10 minutes after the patient has voided.
C)Limit liquid intake for 30 minutes before the scan.
D)Administer an analgesic 30 minutes before the scan.
Q2) _________________ is the volume of urine in the bladder after a normal voiding.
Q3) An ______________ has a separate lumen that is used to inflate a balloon so the catheter remains in the bladder for short- or long-term use.
Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an indwelling urinary catheter.Which intervention is most important to include in this patient's plan of care?
A)Maintaining tension on the tubing
B)Emptying the urinary collection bag every 24 hours
C)Cleaning in a circular motion from the meatus down the catheter
D)Keeping the drainage bag on the bed or attached to the side rails
Q5) The risk for catheter-associated urinary tract infection can be reduced by using ___________ when inserting the catheter.
Q6) Catheter use in older adults has been associated with increased
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to verify nasogastric (NG) tube placement? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ask the patient to speak.
B)Inspect the posterior pharynx.
C)Aspirate back on the syringe.
D)Obtain an x-ray of the placement.
E)Auscultate the lung fields.
Q2) When providing care for a patient who is disoriented during a nasogastric (NG) tube placement, which intervention is important for the nurse to implement?
A)Halt the procedure.
B)Request assistance with insertion.
C)Administer a hypnotic medication.
D)Continue the procedure as with any other patient.
Q3) A bedpan that is designed for patients with body or leg casts or for patients restricted from raising their hips (e.g., following total joint replacement) is known as a
Q4) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an ostomy.The nurse notices that the effluent ranges from a thick liquid to a semi-formed stool.The nurse recognizes that this is indicative of which location?
A)Descending colon
B)Ileal portion of the small intestine
C)Sigmoid colon
D)Transverse or ascending colon
Q2) In caring for a patient who has a pouching for a noncontinent urinary diversion, which nursing intervention is essential?
A)Empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full.
B)Remove the ureteral stents after 2 days.
C)Pouch the stoma with the patient sitting up.
D)Dispose of used pouches in the toilet.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to catheterize a patient who has a urostomy and uses a two-piece pouch system.The nurse should take which action?
A)Place the patient in a semi-recumbent position.
B)Remove both pieces of the pouch system.
C)Remove the pouch and leave the barrier attached.
D)Use sterile gloves to remove the system.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching the patient about positive expiratory pressure therapy (PEP) and "huff" coughing, the nurse incorporates which of the following in the plan of care?
A)Instruct the patient to remain flat in bed.
B)Place a nose clip on the patient's nose.
C)Instruct the patient to breathe through his nose.
D)Instruct the patient to exhale with long slow breaths.
Q2) The nurse is helping the patient prepare for surgery.The patient has removed her jewelry and glasses.Which action should the nurse take to keep the jewelry safe?
A)Put these items in the patient's bedside stand.
B)Inventory the items and give them to the family.
C)Place the items in a plastic bag and send them to the OR with the patient.
D)Keep these items with her until the patient returns.
Q3) Upon entering a patient's room, the nurse finds that the abdominal surgical wound has eviscerated.Which intervention is safest for the nurse to implement?
A)Cover the site with dry sterile dressings.
B)Report the incident to the oncoming shift.
C)Attempt to replace the organs.
D)Cover the site with saline-soaked sterile gauze.
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Q1) While the patient is in the OR and the OR team is gowned and gloved, the nurse recommends completion of a safety checklist.The nurse understands that the checklist verifies which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Patient identity
B)Patient allergies
C)Accurate marking of surgical site
D)Patient cultural preferences
E)Questions posed by the patient
Q2) When one prepares to enter the operating room, which technique demonstrates the safest outcome?
A)Keeping the hands below the elbows
B)Applying surgical gloves before the scrub
C)Scrubbing for at least 3 to 5 minutes with an antimicrobial
D)Drying the hands and arms, starting at the elbow and moving toward the fingers
Q3) The _______________ phase begins when the patient enters the operating room suite and ends with admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU).
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Q1) The Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain relies on the presence of a vacuum to withdraw drainage and is considered a __________ drainage system.
Q2) ___________ is black, brown, or tan tissue in the wound that should be removed before wound healing can begin.
Q3) The physician reports that he is expecting that the patient's wound will have an output of close to 500 mL per day.The nurse anticipates placement of which of the following?
A)Dry sterile dressing
B)Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain
C)Hemovac drain
D)No drain
Q4) The nurse prepares to irrigate the patient's wound.What is the primary reason for this procedure?
A)Decrease scar formation.
B)Remove debris from the wound.
C)Improve circulation from the wound.
D)Decrease irritation from wound drainage.
Q5) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who had a negative-pressure wound dressing.The nurse realizes that the system is working properly when the vacuum setting is set at which of the following levels?
A)-40 mm Hg
B)-210 mm Hg
C)-125 mm Hg
D)-25 mm Hg
Q2) Dressings serve several functions.Which of the following is a function of a dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A)Maintains a moist environment
B)Prevents the spread of microorganisms
C)Increases patient comfort
D)Controls bleeding
E)None of above
Q3) What should the nurse do for a patient who is having a wet-to-dry dressing applied?
A)Moisten the old inner dressing to remove it.
B)Pack the gauze in flat pieces into the wound.
C)Wet the new inner dressing with a cytotoxic solution.
D)Apply a secondary dressing over the inner wet packing.
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Q1) When reviewing the documentation of patients on the unit, a nurse determines that one of the patients is at higher risk for injury from a local heat application to an extremity.Which condition poses this risk?
A)Arthritis
B)Renal calculi
C)Pulmonary disease
D)Peripheral neuropathy
Q2) Advantages of moist heat over dry heat include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Reduces drying of skin
B)Softens wound exudate
C)Does not cause skin maceration
D)Penetrates deeply into tissue layers
Q3) When the skin is exposed to warm or hot temperatures, which of the following occurs? (Select all that apply.)
A)Vasodilatation
B)Vasoconstriction
C)Perspiration
D)Piloerection
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Q1) Activities of daily living (ADLs) include the patient's ability to bathe, dress, go to the toilet, transfer, maintain continence, and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone, prepare meals, travel, do housework, take medication, and shop.
Q2) The nurse is assessing the home of an elderly patient for safety issues.Which of the following would reassure the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cleaning the stove top
B)Putting a shower chair in the bathroom
C)Installing adequate lighting in all living areas
D)Placing emergency numbers close to the telephone
E)None of above
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient for mobility problems that could lead to falls.She has the patient perform a Timed Up and Go (TUG) test.The nurse uses this test to gauge:
A)the patient's ability to perform advanced ambulation maneuvers.
B)whether the patient can walk 30 feet without fatiguing.
C)whether the patient can tolerate the activity for longer than 30 seconds.
D)how quickly the patient can perform the test.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following types of thermometers available, which is not recommended for home use?
A)Digital
B)Tympanic
C)Mercury
D)Disposable single-use
Q2) When teaching the patient and family about CISC, why is it important for the nurse to teach about the signs and symptoms of complications?
A)Although rare, complications are always severe.
B)It is part of the process; complications almost never occur.
C)Urinary complications are common with CISC.
D)The only major complication is infection.
Q3) What does the nurse teach the patient and caregiver to do when setting up and changing administration sets for continuous tube feedings to preserve medical asepsis?
A)Add formula to formula already hung to prevent waste.
B)Store unused formula at room temperature to prevent spasm.
C)Hang only enough formula that will be infused in a 4- to 6-hour period.
D)Change the administration set every 48 hours.
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Q1) The patient has come to the emergency department complaining of coughing up bloody sputum.The patient has a 30-year history of smoking and has lost 15 pounds in the last month.What will the nurse expect the sputum specimen to be evaluated for?
A)Culture and sensitivity
B)AFB
C)Cytology
D)Chemical analysis
Q2) A common test performed on fecal material is the ________ test for fecal occult blood.
Q3) How should the nurse identify a patient before obtaining a laboratory specimen from him?
A)Use at least two patient identifiers.
B)Look at the chart before entering the room.
C)Ask the patient his name.
D)Check the patient's armband twice.
Q4) ______________ is often indicated to collect sputum from patients unable to spontaneously produce a sample for laboratory analysis.
Q5) The least traumatic method of obtaining a blood specimen is known as __________.
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Q6) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow aspiration on a 3-month-old infant.The nurse may expect that the physician will use which site to perform the aspiration?
A)Sternum
B)Anterior iliac crest
C)Proximal tibia
D)Posterior iliac crest
Q2) The patient is a 56-year-old man who has terminal cirrhosis and severe ascites.He is lethargic but is demonstrating signs of discomfort and respiratory distress.The physician has spoken with the patient's wife and has obtained consent to perform an abdominal paracentesis on the patient.After the physician leaves to prepare for the procedure, the wife asks the nurse whether the procedure is really necessary.The nurse should respond by saying this:
A)is the first step in the patient's recovery.
B)may help the patient feel better.
C)is needed to detect increased intracranial pressure.
D)is needed to analyze pleural fluid.
Q3) _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.
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