Fundamentals of Nursing
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential principles, concepts, and skills required for beginning nursing practice. This course covers foundational topics such as the nursing process, patient safety, health assessment, basic patient care, communication, documentation, infection control, and ethical and legal considerations in nursing. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on lab experiences, students learn to apply critical thinking, develop clinical competence, and provide compassionate, evidence-based care to individuals across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Lehnes Pharmacology for Nursing Care 10th Edition by Jacqueline Burchum
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110 Chapters
1439 Verified Questions
1439 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25895
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a desired outcome when a drug is described as easy to administer?
A) It can be stored indefinitely without need for refrigeration.
B) It does not interact significantly with other medications.
C) It enhances patient adherence to the drug regimen.
D) It is usually relatively inexpensive to produce.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient tells the nurse that an analgesic he will begin taking may cause drowsiness and will decrease pain up to 4 hours at a time. Based on this understanding of the drug's effects by the patient, the nurse will anticipate which outcome?
A) Decreased chance of having a placebo effect
B) Decreased motivation to take the drug
C) Improved compliance with the drug regimen
D) Increased likelihood of drug overdose
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Application of Pharmacology in Nursing Practice
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who will be taking an antihypertensive medication. Which action by the nurse is part of the assessment step of the nursing process?
A) Asking the prescriber for an order to monitor serum drug levels
B) Monitoring the patient for drug interactions after giving the medication
C) Questioning the patient about over-the-counter medications
D) Taking the patient's blood pressure throughout the course of treatment
Answer: C
Q2) A postoperative patient has orders for morphine sulfate 1 to 2 mg IV every 1 hour PRN for severe pain and acetaminophen-hydrocodone [Lortab] 7.5 mg PO every 4 to 6 hours PRN for moderate pain. The patient reports pain at a level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 4 hours.
B) Administer acetaminophen-hydrocodone 7.5 mg PO every 6 hours and change to every 4 hours if not effective.
C) Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 1 hour until pain subsides.
D) Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV and evaluate the patient's pain in 15 to 30 minutes.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Drug Regulation, Development, Names, and Information
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse about pharmaceutical research and wants to know the purpose of randomization in drug trials. The nurse explains that randomization is used to do what?
A) To ensure that differences in outcomes are the result of treatment and not differences in subjects
B) To compare the outcome caused by the treatment to the outcome caused by no treatment
C) To make sure that researchers are unaware of which subjects are in which group
D) To prevent subjects from knowing which group they are in and prevent preconception bias
Answer: A
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of nonproprietary names for drugs. The nurse tells them which fact about nonproprietary names?
A) They are approved by the FDA and are easy to remember.
B) They are assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council.
C) They clearly identify the drug's pharmacologic classification.
D) They imply the efficacy of the drug and are less complex.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pharmacokinetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving intravenous gentamicin. A serum drug test reveals toxic levels. The dosing is correct, and this medication has been tolerated by this patient in the past. Which could be a probable cause of the test result?
A) A loading dose was not given.
B) The drug was not completely dissolved in the IV solution.
C) The patient is taking another medication that binds to serum albumin.
D) The medication is being given at a frequency that is longer than its half-life.
Q2) A nurse is explaining drug metabolism to a nursing student who asks about glucuronidation. The nurse knows that this is a process that allows drugs to be:
A) excreted in hydrolyzed form in the feces to reduce drug toxicity.
B) reabsorbed from the urine into the renal circulation to minimize drug loss.
C) recycled via the enterohepatic recirculation to remain in the body longer.
D) transported across the renal tubules to be excreted in the urine.
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Chapter 5: Pharmacodynamics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two nurses are discussing theories of drug-receptor interaction. Which statements are true regarding the affinity of a drug and its receptor?
A) Affinity and intrinsic activity are dependent properties.
B) Affinity refers to the strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor.
C) Drugs with high affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
D) Drugs with low affinity are strongly attracted to their receptors.
E) The affinity of a drug for its receptors is reflected in its potency.
Q2) Which drugs will not be affected by interpatient variability?
A) Antiseptics applied to the skin to slow bacterial growth
B) Antacids to help with the discomfort of heartburn
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics that are effective against many organisms
D) Chelating agents that remove metal compounds from the body
E) Topical analgesics used to treat localized pain
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Chapter 6: Drug Interactions
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prescriber has ordered an antibiotic for a patient with a bacterial infection. The nurse provides patient education at discharge and instructs the patient to take the drug on an empty stomach. When should the patient take the drug?
A) 1 hour or more before a meal
B) Only after an 8-hour fast
C) Only after the patient has missed a meal
D) At least 2 hours after a meal
E) Shortly before a meal
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient about a prescription for a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor for depression. What will the nurse teach the patient to avoid while taking this drug?
A) Alcoholic beverages
B) Aged cheeses
C) Brussels sprouts and cabbage
D) Grapefruit juice
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8
Chapter 7: Adverse Drug Reactions and Medication Errors
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patients are at increased risk for adverse drug events?
A) A 2-month-old infant taking a medication for gastroesophageal reflux disease
B) A 23-year-old female taking an antibiotic for the first time
C) A 40-year-old male who is intubated in the intensive care unit and taking antibiotics and cardiac medications
D) A 7-year-old female receiving insulin for diabetes
E) An 80-year-old male taking medications for COPD
Q2) A patient is given a drug for the first time and develops shortness of breath. The patient's heart rate is 76 beats/min, the respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. The nurse checks a drug administration manual to make sure the correct dose was given and learns that some patients taking the drug experience shortness of breath. The nurse will contact the provider to report what?
A) An allergic reaction
B) An idiosyncratic effect
C) An iatrogenic response
D) A side effect
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9
Chapter 8: Individual Variation in Drug Responses
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which groups of people are especially sensitive to medication effects?
A) Older adults
B) Caucasians
C) Infants
D) Minorities
E) Women
Q2) A nurse administers the same medication in the same preparation in the same dose to several patients and notes that some patients have a better response to the drug than others. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon?
A) Altered bioavailability of the drug
B) Patient compliance with the therapeutic regimen
C) Pharmacogenomic differences among individuals
D) Placebo effects enhancing expectations of drug efficacy
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of women about medications. The women want to know why so many drugs have unpredictable effects in women. The nurse will tell them that:
A) drugs usually have more toxic effects in women.
B) most known drug effects are based on drug trials in men.
C) women have varying responses to drugs during menstrual cycles.
D) women metabolize drugs more slowly.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Drug Therapy During Pregnancy and Breast-Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of drugs taken by a pregnant patient are more likely to have effects on a fetus?
A) Drugs that are highly polar
B) Ionized drugs
C) Lipid-soluble drugs
D) Protein-bound drugs
Q2) A patient has just given birth to a baby boy with a cleft palate. The nurse will review the patient's medication history with special emphasis on drugs taken during which period?
A) Before she became pregnant
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
Q3) A nurse is teaching a class to a group of pregnant patients. The nurse correctly teaches that the highest risk of teratogen-induced gross malformations exists during which time?
A) Immediately before conception
B) During the first trimester
C) During the second trimester
D) During the third trimester
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Chapter 10: Drug Therapy in Pediatric Patients
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching nursing students about pediatric medication administration. What will the nurse include when discussing pediatric drug research?
A) Early studies revealed that less than 10% of drugs known to be effective in adults were effective in children.
B) Research findings show that drug doses may be safely calculated by extrapolating adult dosing.
C) Studies showed a significant percentage of unanticipated and potentially lethal side effects in children.
D) There is no need to continue with pediatric-specific drug research, since early studies were reassuring.
Q2) An infant has allergies and often develops a pruritic rash when exposed to allergens. The infant's parents ask the nurse about using a topical antihistamine. What should the nurse tell them?
A) Antihistamines given by this route are not absorbed well in children.
B) Applying an antihistamine to the skin can cause toxicity in this age group.
C) The child will also need oral medication to achieve effective results.
D) Topical medications have fewer side effects than those given by other routes.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Drug Therapy in Geriatric Patients
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25905
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is reviewing an older adult patient's chart before giving medications. Which patient information is of most concern?
A) Chronic constipation
B) Increased body fat
C) Low serum albumin
D) Low serum creatinine
Q2) A nurse is preparing to give medications to four older patients who are all taking multiple medications. Which patient is most likely to have an adverse drug reaction related to increased drug effects?
A) Obese patient
B) Patient with decreased serum creatinine
C) Patient with chronic diarrhea
D) Thin patient with a chronically low appetite
Q3) A nurse is concerned about renal function in an 84-year-old patient who is taking several medications. What will the nurse assess?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Sodium levels
C) Potassium levels
D) Serum creatinine
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Basic Principles of Neuropharmacology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25906
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has allergies and takes an antihistamine. The patient wants to know how the drug works. The nurse understands that antihistamines work because they are what?
A) Activators
B) Agonists
C) Antagonists
D) Antidotes
Q2) A patient receives morphine and shows signs of toxicity. The prescriber orders naloxone [Narcan] to reverse the effects of the morphine. The nurse understands that the naloxone reverses morphine toxicity by which action on morphine receptor sites?
A) Blocking transmitter reuptake
B) Inhibiting transmitter release
C) Interfering with transmitter storage
D) Preventing activation of receptors
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Peripheral Nervous System
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a patient about a medication that alters sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding, the nurse asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates. Which answer indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "The digestive functions of the body"
B) "The cardiovascular system"
C) "The 'fight-or-flight' response"
D) "Body temperature"
Q2) What is the target organ when a beta<sub>1</sub> agonist is administered?
A) Heart
B) Kidney
C) Respiratory
D) Liver
Q3) A nurse is explaining activation of beta<sub>2</sub> receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital. Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?
A) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in bronchodilation."
B) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in contraction of uterine muscle."
C) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in glycogenolysis."
D) "Beta<sub>2</sub> activation results in vasodilation of skeletal muscles."
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Chapter 14: Muscarinic Agonists and Antagonists
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25908
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient received atropine intravenously before surgery. The recovery room nurse notes that the patient is delirious upon awakening and has a heart rate of 96 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/78 mm Hg. The nurse notifies the anesthesiologist, who will order:
A) activated charcoal to minimize intestinal absorption of the antimuscarinic agent.
B) an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to compete with the antimuscarinic agent at receptors.
C) an antipsychotic medication to treat the patient's central nervous system symptoms. D) ipratropium bromide [Atrovent] to counter the respiratory effects of the antimuscarinic agent.
Q2) A patient has developed muscarinic antagonist toxicity from ingestion of an unknown chemical. The nurse should prepare to administer which medication?
A) Atropine [Sal-Tropine] IV
B) Physostigmine [Antilirium]
C) An acetylcholinesterase activator
D) Pseudoephedrine [Ephedrine]
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Chapter 15: Cholinesterase Inhibitors and Their Use in
Myasthenia Gravis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient who is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis about managing the disease. Which is important when teaching this patient about adverse effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?
A) "There are very few serious side effects associated with your medication."
B) "It is important to notify your provider if you have excessive saliva."
C) "If you experience urinary urgency, you may need to increase your dose."
D) "Excessive sweating is a minor side effect and will improve over time."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Diazepam is given to reverse inhibition of cholinesterase when overdose occurs."
B) "Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors are rapidly absorbed by all routes."
C) "These agents are often used to treat glaucoma."
D) "Toxic doses of these agents produce an anticholinergic crisis."
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Chapter 16: Drugs That Block Nicotinic Cholinergic
Transmission: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for an intubated patient who is receiving pancuronium for neuromuscular blockade. The patient's eyes are closed, and the patient is not moving any extremities. The heart rate is 76 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. The nurse caring for this patient will do what?
A) Request an order for an antihistamine to prevent a further drop in blood pressure.
B) Request an order for serum electrolytes to evaluate for hyperkalemia.
C) Review the patient's chart for a history of myasthenia gravis (MG).
D) Talk to the patient while giving care and explain all procedures.
Q2) While preparing a patient for a procedure in which a neuromuscular blocking agent will be used, the nurse reviews the patient's preprocedure laboratory values. Which abnormality would cause the most concern?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypokalemia
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Adrenergic Agonists
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25911
Sample Questions
Q1) Dopamine is administered to a patient who has been experiencing hypotensive episodes. Other than an increase in blood pressure, which indicator would the nurse use to evaluate a successful response?
A) Decrease in pulse
B) Increase in urine output
C) Weight gain
D) Improved gastric motility
Q2) A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment of shock. The prescriber orders isoproterenol [Isuprel]. The nurse expects this drug to increase tissue perfusion in this patient by activating:
A) alpha<sub>1</sub> receptors to cause vasoconstriction.
B) alpha<sub>1</sub> receptors to increase blood pressure.
C) beta<sub>1</sub> receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect.
D) beta<sub>2</sub> receptors to cause bronchodilation.
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Antagonists
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with migraines is started on a beta blocker. The nurse explains the benefits of taking the medication for migraines. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the medication's effects?
A) "I need to take it every day to reduce the frequency of migraines."
B) "I will take it as needed to get relief from migraines."
C) "I will take it to shorten the duration of my migraines."
D) "I will take this drug when a migraine starts."
Q2) A nurse is teaching nursing students about the use of alpha-adrenergic antagonists. Which statement by a student indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha<sub>1</sub> receptors on arterioles and veins."
B) "Dilation of arterioles has a direct effect on arterial pressure."
C) "Dilation of veins by alpha-adrenergic antagonists improves cardiac output."
D) "Venous dilation by alpha-adrenergic antagonists indirectly lowers arterial pressure."
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Chapter 19: Indirect-Acting Antiadrenergic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber orders transdermal clonidine [Catapres TTS] for a patient with hypertension. What will the nurse teach this patient?
A) That medication given by transdermal patch has fewer systemic side effects
B) That localized skin reactions are uncommon
C) To apply the patch to intact skin on the forearm or leg
D) To change the patch every week
Q2) A patient with hypertension has a previous history of opioid dependence. Which medication would the nurse question?
A) Clonidine [Catapres]
B) Guanabenz [Wytensin]
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine [Serpasil]
Q3) A prescriber orders clonidine [Kapvay] ER tablets for a 12-year-old child. The nurse understands that this drug is being given to treat which condition?
A) ADHD
B) Hypertension
C) Severe pain
D) Tourette's syndrome
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
B) "Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
C) "Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
D) "Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
Q2) Which monoamines act as neurotransmitters in the central nervous system?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
E) Epinephrine
F) Histamine
Q3) Which are medical applications of central nervous system drugs?
A) Analgesia
B) Anesthesia
C) Depression
D) Euphoria
E) Seizure control
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Chapter 21: Drugs for Parkinson Disease
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student wants to know how carbidopa can be effective for treating Parkinson disease if it prevents the conversion of levodopa to dopamine. The nurse explains that carbidopa:
A) can be taken with high-protein meals.
B) does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) has dopamine-like effects of its own.
D) reduces abrupt loss of effect.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease (PD) and begins treatment with levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. After several months of therapy, the patient reports no change in symptoms. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) add a dopamine agonist.
B) discuss the "on-off" phenomenon.
C) increase the dose of Sinemet.
D) re-evaluate the diagnosis.
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23
Chapter 22: Drugs for Alzheimers Disease
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine [Namenda] for Alzheimer's disease. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease."
B) "Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."
C) "Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves their function."
D) "Memantine and donepezil combined may stop progression of Alzheimer's disease."
Q2) A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer's disease. The nurse is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication. Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Gastrointestinal symptoms are common with this medication."
B) "People taking this drug should not take antihistamines."
C) "This drug helps neurons that aren't already damaged to function better."
D) "This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease."
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Chapter 23: Drugs for Multiple Sclerosis
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recently begun taking interferon beta reports feeling depressed. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Notify the provider of these symptoms.
B) Reassure the patient that these symptoms will subside.
C) Request an order for an antidepressant medication.
D) Suggest counseling to discuss the effects of this chronic disease.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with primary progressive multiple sclerosis for 1 year and reports a recent brief period of being symptom free. The nurse will tell the patient that this indicates what?
A) Hope for long-term remission
B) Temporary improvement
C) Development of relapsing-remitting MS
D) Development of secondary progressive MS
Q3) Immunomodulator drugs have shown effectiveness for what?
A) Preventing the development of MS
B) Primary progressive MS
C) Progressive-relapsing MS
D) Relapsing-remitting MS
E) Secondary progressive MS
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Chapter 24: Drugs for Seizure Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid [Depakote] for seizures. After a week of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient if she is taking the valproic acid with food, because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects.
B) Contact the provider to request an order for a blood ammonia level, because hyperammonemia can occur with valproic acid therapy.
C) Suggest that the patient perform a home pregnancy test, because valproic acid can reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives.
D) Suspect that hepatotoxicity has occurred, because this is a common adverse effect of valproic acid.
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Chapter 25: Drugs for Muscle Spasm and Spasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cerebral palsy has severe muscle spasticity and muscle weakness. The patient is unable to take anything by mouth. The nurse is correct to anticipate that which medication will be ordered for home therapy?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
Q2) Which drugs are used to treat spasticity?
A) Baclofen [Lioresal]
B) Dantrolene [Dantrium]
C) Diazepam [Valium]
D) Metaxalone [Skelaxin]
E) Tizanidine [Flexeril]
Q3) Which patient should receive dantrolene [Dantrium] with caution?
A) A 20-year-old woman with a spinal cord injury
B) A 45-year-old man with a history of malignant hyperthermia
C) A 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis
D) An 8-year-old child with cerebral palsy
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Chapter 26: Local Anesthetics
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assisting a physician who is performing a circumcision on a newborn. The physician asks the nurse to prepare lidocaine and epinephrine for injection to provide anesthesia. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the provider why an injectable anesthetic is being used for this procedure.
B) Draw up the medication as ordered and prepare the infant for the procedure.
C) Make sure that seizure precautions are in place.
D) Question the use of the epinephrine for this procedure.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first."
B) "Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves."
C) "Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception."
D) "Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects."
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Chapter 27: General Anesthetics
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for a patient after a cesarean section learns that the patient received isoflurane [Forane] during the surgery. What will the nurse monitor most closely in this patient?
A) Hypertension
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Constipation
D) Uterine tone
Q2) A postoperative patient complains of abdominal bloating and discomfort. The nurse caring for this patient will contact the provider to request which medication?
A) Bethanechol
B) Droperidol
C) Promethazine
D) Ondansetron
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29
Chapter 28:
Analgesics, Opioid Antagonists, and Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25922
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months' duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] and states that it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?
A) Fentanyl [Duragesic] transdermal patch
B) Hydrocodone [Vicodin] PO
C) Meperidine [Demerol] PO
D) Pentazocine [Talwin] PO
Q2) A patient with cancer has been taking an opioid analgesic 4 times daily for several months and reports needing increased doses for pain. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) PRN dosing of the drug may be more effective.
B) The risk of respiratory depression increases over time.
C) The patient should discuss increasing the dose with the provider.
D) The patient should request the addition of a benzodiazepine to augment pain relief.
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Chapter 29: Pain Management in Patients With Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25923
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse why the provider has ordered a combination product containing an opioid analgesic and an NSAID for a patient who has cancer. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "There are decreased effects of NSAIDs on the GI tract when a combination product is used."
B) "There are fewer adverse effects from both drugs when used in a combination product."
C) "There is a decreased likelihood of opioid dependence when it is given in combination with an NSAID."
D) "There is increased pain relief with the combination than when either product is used alone."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the differences between pure opioid agonists and agonist-antagonist opioids. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Agonist-antagonist opioids act as agonists at mu receptors only."
B) "Agonist-antagonist opioids are effective for treating cancer pain."
C) "Agonist-antagonist opioids enhance the effects of pure agonists."
D) "Pure agonists act as agonists at both mu receptors and kappa receptors."
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Headache
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25924
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with moderate migraine headaches asks a nurse why the provider has ordered metoclopramide [Reglan] as an adjunct to aspirin therapy, because she does not usually experience nausea and vomiting with her migraines. The nurse will tell her that the metoclopramide is used to:
A) help induce sleep.
B) improve absorption of the aspirin.
C) prevent gastric irritation caused by the aspirin.
D) prolong the effects of the aspirin.
Q2) A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches. The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and/or risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include what?
A) Female gender
B) Male gender
C) Complaints of nausea and vomiting
D) Short duration (15 minutes to 2 hours)
E) Auras before the onset of headache pain
F) Throbbing, sometimes piercing pain
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Chapter 31: Antipsychotic Agents and Their Use in Schizophrenia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25925
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with schizophrenia receives a dose of risperidone [Risperdal Consta] IM. The nurse teaching this patient about this medication will make which statement?
A) "You will experience therapeutic levels of this drug in 1 to 2 weeks."
B) "You will need injections of this drug every 6 weeks."
C) "You will need to take an oral antipsychotic drug for 3 weeks."
D) "You probably will not have extrapyramidal symptoms with this drug."
Q2) A patient taking an FGA medication develops severe parkinsonism and is treated with amantadine [Symmetrel]. The amantadine is withdrawn 2 months later, and the parkinsonism returns. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) give anticholinergic medications.
B) make a diagnosis of idiopathic parkinsonism.
C) resume the amantadine indefinitely.
D) try a second-generation antipsychotic (SGA).
Q3) Which are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Delusions
B) Disordered thinking
C) Poor judgment
D) Poor self-care
E) Poverty of speech
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Antidepressants
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25926
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose spouse has died recently reports feeling down most of each day for the past 2 months. On further questioning, the nurse learns that the patient has quit participating in church and social activities, has difficulty falling asleep, and has lost 5 lb. The patient reports feeling tired and confused all the time but does not have suicidal thoughts. What does the nurse suspect?
A) Grief and sadness
B) Hypomania
C) Major depression
D) Situational depression
Q2) An older adult patient who is to begin taking imipramine [Tofranil] asks the nurse when the drug should be taken. The nurse will instruct the patient to:
A) divide the daily dose into two equal doses 12 hours apart.
B) take the entire dose at bedtime to minimize sedative effects.
C) take the medication once daily in the late afternoon.
D) take the medication once daily in the morning.
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Chapter 33: Drugs for Bipolar Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25927
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recently begun taking carbamazepine [Equetro] for bipolar disorder reports having vertigo and headaches. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Ask the provider whether another medication can be used for this patient, because the patient is showing signs of toxicity.
B) Contact the provider to request a complete blood count (CBC) to evaluate for other, more serious side effects.
C) Reassure the patient that these effects occur early in treatment and will resolve over time.
D) Review the patient's chart for cytochrome P450 enzymes to see whether an increased dose is needed.
Q2) A patient is admitted to a hospital for treatment for first-time symptoms of mania and is exhibiting euphoric mania. Which medication will the provider order?
A) Lithium [Lithobid]
B) Olanzapine [Zyprexa]
C) Risperidone [Risperdal]
D) Divalproex sodium [Valproate]
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Chapter 34: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25928
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is obtaining a health history from an older adult patient in an outpatient clinic. The patient reports chronic difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. The nurse knows that the best treatment for this patient will be:
A) alternative medications.
B) improved sleep hygiene.
C) short-term barbiturates.
D) triazolam [Halcion].
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department by friends, who say that they were at a party where alcohol and a mix of barbiturates and benzodiazepines were all available. They tell the nurse that the patient was among the first to arrive at the party, which started several hours ago. The patient is nonresponsive and has pinpoint pupils and respirations of 6 breaths per minute. After oxygen has been administered, the nurse should prepare the patient for which intervention?
A) A central nervous system stimulant and IV fluids
B) Activated charcoal and flumazenil [Romazicon]
C) Maintaining adequate oxygenation to the brain
D) Naloxone [Narcan] and a cathartic
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Management of Anxiety Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25929
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with anxiety after describing symptoms of tension, poor concentration, and difficulty sleeping that have persisted for over 6 months. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
A) Alprazolam [Xanax]
B) Amitriptyline [Elavil]
C) Buspirone [Buspar]
D) Paroxetine [Paxil]
Q2) A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a patient. The patient reports taking alprazolam [Xanax] for "nerves." The nurse knows that this patient is most likely being treated for which condition?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
C) Panic disorder
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
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Chapter 36: Central Nervous System Stimulants and
Attention-Deficithyperactivity Disorder
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25930
Sample Questions
Q1) A university student who is agitated and restless and has tremors is brought to the emergency department. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/min, the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and the blood pressure is 160/95 mm Hg. The patient reports using concentrated energy drinks to stay awake during the final week. What complication will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
A) CNS depression
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Respiratory failure
D) Seizures
Q2) A young adult begins taking clonidine [Kapvay] to treat ADHD symptoms after suffering anorexia with methylphenidate [Ritalin]. What will the nurse include when teaching this patient about taking clonidine?
A) "Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication."
B) "Insomnia may still occur while taking this drug."
C) "You will need to pick up a written prescription every 30 days."
D) "You may crush the tablets and put them in food."
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Chapter 37: Drug Abuse I: Basic Considerations
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25931
Sample Questions
Q1) A psychiatric nurse is caring for a drug-addicted patient. The nurse knows that the ideal goal of drug rehabilitation for this patient is:
A) abstinence from the drug.
B) decreasing episodes of relapse.
C) minimizing drug cravings.
D) reduction of drug use.
Q2) A patient who has been taking a medication with a side effect of drowsiness stops taking the medication after several weeks. The patient reports feeling anxious and jittery. The nurse understands that this response is due to:
A) addiction.
B) psychologic dependence.
C) tolerance.
D) withdrawal syndrome.
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Chapter 38: Drug Abuse II: Alcohol
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25932
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient asks a nurse about the effects of chronic alcohol use on the heart. The nurse's best response would be which statement?
A) "Chronic alcohol use affects the liver more adversely than it does the heart."
B) "Drinking more than two drinks a day protects the heart from atherosclerosis."
C) "Long-term alcohol use can damage the heart and cause heart failure."
D) "Over time, alcohol use can lower your blood pressure."
Q2) A nurse is obtaining an admission history on a patient who reports daily drinking for several years. When the nurse questions the patient further, the patient reports drinking up to five or six drinks each day. The patient expresses worry about liver damage. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the patient's provider to request liver function studies.
B) Explain that hepatitis, progressing to severe liver impairment, is likely.
C) Inform the patient that the history indicates that cirrhosis is likely to occur.
D) Tell the patient that stopping drinking will reverse any effects on the liver.
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Chapter 39: Drug Abuse III: Nicotine and Smoking
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25933
Sample Questions
Q1) The spouse of a patient who smokes wonders why anyone would want to engage in "such a disgusting habit." What will the nurse tell the spouse?
A) Nicotine causes relaxation and helps with sleep.
B) Nicotine increases alertness and promotes dopamine release.
C) Nicotine lowers blood pressure.
D) Nicotine settles the stomach and reduces nausea and vomiting.
Q2) A patient who has just found out she is pregnant tells the nurse she wants to quit smoking. She asks about pharmacologic aids to help her quit. The nurse is correct to tell her what?
A) "Nicotine replacement therapy is harmful, but it is safer than smoking, so it can be used."
B) "Psychosocial support is the only recommended treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy."
C) "Varenicline [Chantix] is safe to use during pregnancy."
D) "You should try to taper off your smoking gradually, because none of the drugs are safe."
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Chapter 40: Drug Abuse IV: Major Drugs of Abuse Other
Than Alcohol and Nicotine
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25934
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the differences between OxyContin OC and OxyContin OP with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "OxyContin OC cannot be drawn into a syringe for injection."
B) "OxyContin OP has greater solubility in water and alcohol."
C) "OxyContin OP is not easily crushed into a powder."
D) "Patients using OxyContin OP are less likely to overdose."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a drug prevention class to a group of parents of adolescents. Which statement by a parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Compared with alcohol, marijuana has little or no long-term adverse effects."
B) "Ecstasy causes reversible damage to serotonergic neurons."
C) "LSD does not cause an abstinence syndrome when it is withdrawn."
D) "Most individuals who abuse opioids began using them therapeutically."
Q3) What is the primary reason for opioid abuse?
A) Ease of access
B) Initial "rush" similar to orgasm
C) Peer pressure
D) Prolonged sense of euphoria
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Chapter 41: Diuretics
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25935
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse preparing to administer morning medications notes that a patient with a history of hypertension has been prescribed spironolactone [Aldactone]. The nurse assesses the patient and notes dyspnea, bilateral crackles, and pitting edema in both feet. Which intervention is appropriate?
A) Administer the medications as ordered.
B) Ask the patient about the use of salt substitutes.
C) Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes.
D) Request an order for furosemide [Lasix].
Q2) A patient is taking gentamicin [Garamycin] and furosemide [Lasix]. The nurse should counsel this patient to report which symptom?
A) Frequent nocturia
B) Headaches
C) Ringing in the ears
D) Urinary retention
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43
Chapter 42: Agents Affecting the Volume and Ion Content of Body Fluids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25936
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who is a chronic alcoholic is admitted to the hospital. Admission laboratory work reveals a magnesium level of 1.2 mEq/L. The prescriber orders intravenous magnesium sulfate in a 10% solution at a rate of 10 mL/min. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the IV dose as ordered and have calcium gluconate on hand.
B) Administer the IV dose and make preparations for mechanical ventilation.
C) Hold the IV dose until the infusion rate has been clarified with the provider.
D) Request an order for renal function tests before administering the IV dose.
Q2) Which order for potassium (KCl) would the nurse question?
A) D5 1/2 NS with 20 mEq KCl to start after patient voids
B) D5 1/2 NS with 60 mEq KCl for a patient with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C) K-Dur, 1 tablet daily for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis
D) K-Dur, 1 tablet with a full glass of water
E) Potassium chloride, 10 mEq rapid IV push
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44
Chapter 43: Review of Hemodynamics
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25937
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking a beta<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic drug to improve the stroke volume of the heart. The nurse caring for this patient knows that this drug acts by increasing:
A) cardiac afterload.
B) cardiac preload.
C) myocardial contractility.
D) venous return.
Q2) A nurse is assessing a patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath, and the nurse auscultates crackles in both lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of:
A) decreased force of ventricular contraction.
B) increased force of ventricular contraction.
C) decreased ventricular filling.
D) increased ventricular filling.
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45
Chapter 44: Drugs Acting on the
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25938
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider has ordered captopril [Capoten] for a patient who has hypertension. The patient reports a history of swelling of the tongue and lips after taking enalapril [Vasotec] in the past. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A) Administer the captopril and monitor for adverse effects.
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider.
C) Request an order to administer fosinopril instead of captopril.
D) Reassure the patient that this is not a serious side effect.
Q2) A female patient who begins taking spironolactone [Aldactone] as an adjunct to furosemide [Lasix] complains that her voice is deepening. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to obtain an order for a complete blood count (CBC) and liver function tests.
B) Explain that this drug binds with receptors for steroid hormones, causing this effect.
C) Report this side effect to the provider and request another medication for this patient.
D) Teach the patient to report any associated cough, which may indicate a more severe side effect.
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Chapter 45: Calcium Channel Blockers
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25939
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient begins taking nifedipine [Procardia], along with metoprolol, to treat hypertension. The nurse understands that metoprolol is used to:
A) reduce flushing.
B) minimize gingival hyperplasia.
C) prevent constipation.
D) prevent reflex tachycardia.
Q2) Which are therapeutic uses of verapamil?
A) Angina of effort
B) Cardiac dysrhythmias
C) Essential hypertension
D) Sick sinus syndrome
E) Suppression of preterm labor
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving verapamil [Calan] for hypertension and digoxin [Lanoxin] for heart failure. The nurse will observe this patient for:
A) AV blockade.
B) gingival hyperplasia.
C) migraine headaches.
D) reflex tachycardia.
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Chapter 46: Vasodilators
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25940
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse why a patient in hypertensive crisis is receiving both intravenous sodium nitroprusside [Nitropress] and oral hydralazine. The nurse will explain that this is done to prevent:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) fluid retention.
C) rebound hypertension.
D) reflex tachycardia.
Q2) A nurse is obtaining a medication history on a newly admitted patient, who reports taking minoxidil for hypertension. Admission vital signs reveal a heart rate of 78 beats/min and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. What is an important part of the initial assessment for this patient?
A) Evaluating ankle edema
B) Monitoring for nausea and vomiting
C) Noting the presence of hypertrichosis
D) Obtaining a blood glucose
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Chapter 47: Drugs for Hypertension
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25941
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse has provided education for a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension who is just beginning therapy with antihypertensive medications. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may experience serious long-term problems even if I am not having symptoms."
B) "I should report side effects to the provider since other drugs may be substituted."
C) "I will need to take medications on a long-term basis."
D) "When my symptoms subside, I may discontinue the medications."
Q2) A patient has been taking chlorthalidone to treat hypertension. The patient's prescriber has just ordered the addition of spironolactone to the patient's drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should continue following the DASH diet when adding this drug."
B) "I should not take an ACE inhibitor when adding this drug."
C) "I will need to take potassium supplements when adding this drug."
D) "I will not experience a significant increase in diuresis when adding this drug."
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Chapter 48: Drugs for Heart Failure
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25942
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are expected effects of cardiac glycosides?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Decreased force of contraction
C) Decreased heart rate
D) Modulation of neurohormonal systems
E) Positive inotropic effects
Q2) A patient with heart failure who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the nurse will expect the provider to evaluate:
A) complete blood count.
B) ejection fraction.
C) maximal exercise capacity.
D) serum electrolyte levels.
Q3) The potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone [Aldactone] prolongs survival and improves heart failure symptoms by which mechanism?
A) Blocking aldosterone receptors
B) Increasing diuresis
C) Reducing venous pressure
D) Reducing afterload
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Chapter 49: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25943
Sample Questions
Q1) A prescriber is considering prescribing the amiodarone derivative dronedarone [Multaq] for a patient with atrial flutter. The nurse should be concerned about which of the following?
A) History of asthma
B) History of hypothyroidism
C) PR interval of 260 msec
D) QT interval of 520 msec
Q2) A prescriber has ordered propranolol [Inderal] for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia. The nurse preparing to administer this drug will be concerned about what in the patient's history?
A) Asthma
B) Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias
C) Hypertension
D) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia associated with emotion
Q3) Which two classes of antidysrhythmic drugs have nearly identical cardiac effects?
A) Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
B) Beta blockers and potassium channel blockers
C) Calcium channel blockers and sodium channel blockers
D) Sodium channel blockers and potassium channel blockers
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Prophylaxis of Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular
Disease: Drugs That Help Normalize Cholesterol and Triglyceride Levels
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25944
Sample Questions
Q1) Lovastatin [Mevacor] is prescribed for a patient for the first time. The nurse should provide the patient with which instruction?
A) "Take lovastatin with your evening meal."
B) "Take this medicine before breakfast."
C) "You may take lovastatin without regard to meals."
D) "Take this medicine on an empty stomach."
Q2) Which plasma lipoprotein level is most concerning when considering the risk of coronary atherosclerosis?
A) Elevated cholesterol
B) Elevated high-density lipoprotein
C) Elevated low-density lipoprotein
D) Elevated very-low-density lipoprotein
Q3) A nurse is reviewing a patient's medications and realizes that gemfibrozil [Lopid] and warfarin [Coumadin] are to be administered concomitantly. Which effect will the nurse anticipate in this patient?
A) Increased levels of gemfibrozil
B) Decreased levels of gemfibrozil
C) Increased anticoagulant effects
D) Reduced anticoagulant effects
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Chapter 51: Drugs for Angina Pectoris
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25945
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with new-onset exertional angina has taken three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals, but the pain has intensified. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 76 beats/min and a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg. The electrocardiogram is normal. The patient's lips and nail beds are pink, and there is no respiratory distress. The nurse will anticipate providing:
A) an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
B) intravenous nitroglycerin and a beta blocker.
C) ranolazine (Ranexa) and quinidine.
D) supplemental oxygen and intravenous morphine.
Q2) A patient with variant angina wants to know why a beta blocker cannot be used to treat the angina. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "A beta<sub>1</sub>-selective beta blocker could be used for variant angina."
B) "Beta blockers do not help relax coronary artery spasm."
C) "Beta blockers do not help to improve the cardiac oxygen supply."
D) "Beta blockers promote constriction of arterial smooth muscle."
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
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18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25946
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student who is preparing to care for a postoperative patient with deep vein thrombosis asks the nurse why the patient must take heparin rather than warfarin. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Heparin has a longer half-life."
B) "Heparin has fewer adverse effects."
C) "The onset of warfarin is delayed."
D) "Warfarin prevents platelet aggregation."
Q2) A patient has been taking warfarin [Coumadin] for atrial fibrillation. The provider has ordered dabigatran etexilate [Pradaxa] to replace the warfarin. The nurse teaches the patient about the change in drug regimen. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I may need to adjust the dose of dabigatran after weaning off the warfarin."
B) "I should continue to take the warfarin after beginning the dabigatran until my INR is greater than 3."
C) "I should stop taking the warfarin 3 days before starting the dabigatran."
D) "I will stop taking the warfarin and will start taking the dabigatran when my INR is less than 2."
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Management of St-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25947
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should take which medications indefinitely?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Alteplase
C) Aspirin
D) Beta blockers
E) Clopidogrel
Q2) A nurse is discussing fibrinolytic therapy for the acute phase of STEMI management with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this therapy?
A) "Fibrinolytics are effective when the first dose is given up to 24 hours after symptom onset."
B) "Fibrinolytics should be given once cardiac troponins reveal the presence of STEMI."
C) "Fibrinolytics should be used with caution in patients with a history of cerebrovascular accident."
D) "Patients should receive either an anticoagulant or an antiplatelet agent with a fibrinolytic drug."
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Chapter 54: Drugs for Hemophilia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25948
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hemophilia A is undergoing a tooth extraction at the dentist's office. As an adjunct to factor VIII, what other drug should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this patient?
A) Tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron]
B) Acetaminophen [Tylenol]
C) Desmopressin [Stimate]
D) Vitamin K
Q2) A patient with hemophilia B is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The patient's history reveals long-term use of factor replacement as prophylaxis for bleeding episodes. The nurse anticipates that the provider will order which medication to prevent excessive perioperative bleeding?
A) Desmopressin
B) Factor VIII
C) Ibuprofen
D) Tranexamic acid
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Chapter 55: Drugs for Deficiency Anemias
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25949
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells a nurse that she is thinking about getting pregnant and asks about nutritional supplements. What will the nurse recommend?
A) A balanced diet high in green vegetables and grains
B) 400 to 800 mg of folic acid per day
C) A multivitamin with iron
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> supplements
Q2) The nurse is taking a medication history on a newly admitted patient. The patient reports taking folic acid and vitamin B<sub>12</sub>. The nurse notifies the provider because of the concern that folic acid can:
A) cause fetal malformation.
B) mask the signs of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency.
C) negatively affect potassium levels.
D) worsen megaloblastic anemia.
Q3) The patient with which of the following is most at risk for folic acid deficiency?
A) Alcoholism
B) Sprue
C) Gastrectomy
D) Peptic ulcer disease
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Chapter 56: Hematopoietic Agents
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25950
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with chronic renal failure who is on dialysis receives an ESA. The nurse caring for this patient during dialysis notes that the patient's hemoglobin is 10.9 gm/dL, up from the 10.2 gm/dL recorded 2 weeks ago. The patient's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to suggest:
A) adding an antihypertensive drug.
B) discontinuing the ESA.
C) giving heparin.
D) increasing the dose of the ESA.
Q2) A patient with CRF who will begin receiving an erythropoiesis stimulating agent (ESA) is admitted to the hospital. The nurse notes that the patient's heart rate is 82 beats/min, and the blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8 gm/dL and a hematocrit of 29%. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the ESA and request an order for a blood transfusion.
B) Withhold the ESA and request an order for an antihypertensive medication.
C) Request an order to increase the dose of ESA to raise the hemoglobin more quickly.
D) Suggest initiating dialysis while giving the ESA.
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Chapter 57: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25951
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is educating the staff nurses about ketoacidosis. To evaluate the group's understanding, the nurse asks, "Which sign or symptom would not be consistent with ketoacidosis?" The group gives which correct answer?
A) Blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL
B) Blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL
C) Acidosis
D) Ketones in the urine
Q2) A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for 1 injection. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) This is an acceptable practice.
B) These two forms of insulin are not compatible and cannot be mixed.
C) Mixing these two forms of insulin may increase the overall potency of the products.
D) NPH insulin should only be mixed with insulin glargine.
Q3) Which statement is correct about the contrast between acarbose and miglitol?
A) Miglitol has not been associated with hepatic dysfunction.
B) With miglitol, sucrose can be used to treat hypoglycemia.
C) Miglitol is less effective in African Americans.
D) Miglitol has no gastrointestinal side effects.
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Chapter 58: Drugs for Thyroid Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25952
Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The initial free T? level is 0.5 mg/dL, and the TSH level is 8 microunits/mL. The prescriber orders levothyroxine [Levothroid] 100 mcg/day PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to discuss giving the levothyroxine IV.
C) Request an order to give desiccated thyroid (Armour Thyroid).
D) Suggest that the provider lower the dose.
Q2) A patient has a free T<sub>4</sub> level of 0.6 ng/dL and a free T<sub>3</sub> of 220 pg/dL. The patient asks the nurse what these laboratory values mean. How will the nurse respond?
A) "These laboratory values indicate that you may have Graves' disease."
B) "These results suggest you may have hyperthyroidism."
C) "We will need to obtain a total T<sub>4</sub> and a total T<sub>3</sub> to tell for sure."
D) "We will need to obtain a TSH level to better evaluate your diagnosis."
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Chapter 59: Drugs Related to Hypothalamic and Pituitary Function
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25953
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a nondiabetic adult who develops growth hormone deficiency and who will begin treatment with somatropin [Humatrope]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Intramuscular dosing is more effective than subcutaneous dosing."
B) "I will have increased muscle mass and strength as well as increased height."
C) "I will need to monitor my blood pressure frequently while taking this drug."
D) "I will need to take insulin while using this, because it causes hyperglycemia."
Q2) A patient is hospitalized with head trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse caring for the patient notes a marked increase in the output of pale, dilute urine. The nurse suspects which condition?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
D) Water intoxication
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Chapter 60: Drugs for Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education to a patient who will begin taking fludrocortisone [Florinef] as adjunctive therapy to hydrocortisone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should move from sitting to standing slowly."
B) "I should report any swelling of my hands and feet."
C) "I should report weight loss to my provider."
D) "I should report excessive urine output."
Q2) The nurse is providing patient education about glucocorticoid therapy to a patient preparing to be discharged home. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of glucocorticoid therapy?
A) "I will take the entire dose early with breakfast."
B) "I may take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the afternoon."
C) "I will divide the dose in half and take half in the morning and half in the evening."
D) "I will take a dose with each meal."
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Chapter 61: Estrogens and Progestins: Basic Pharmacology and
Noncontraceptive Applications
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25955
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing patient education about the application of transdermal estrogen spray. Which statement made by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the application of this medication? "I should apply this medication to my:
A) waistline and shoulders."
B) abdomen and arms."
C) breasts and abdomen."
D) thighs and calves."
Q2) A nurse provides teaching to a patient who has had a hysterectomy and is about to begin hormone therapy to manage menopausal symptoms. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Because I am not at risk for uterine cancer, I can take hormones indefinitely."
B) "I can take estrogen to reduce my risk of cardiovascular disease."
C) "I should take the lowest effective dose for the shortest time needed."
D) "I will need a progestin/estrogen combination since I have had a hysterectomy."
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63
Chapter 62: Birth Control
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25956
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is preparing to administer a first dose of intramuscular DMPA [Depo-Provera] to a young adult patient. The woman tells the nurse she has just finished her period. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the injection today and counsel backup contraception for 7 days.
B) Administer the injection today and tell her that protection is immediate.
C) Obtain a pregnancy test to rule out pregnancy before administering the drug.
D) Schedule an appointment for her to receive the injection in 3 weeks.
Q2) A nurse working in a family planning clinic is teaching a class on intrauterine devices (IUDs). Which patient should be advised against using an IUD for contraception?
A) A 45-year-old married woman with four children
B) A 30-year-old monogamous married woman
C) An 18-year-old woman with multiple sexual partners
D) A 35-year-old woman with a history of rosacea
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64
Chapter 63: Drug Therapy of Infertility
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25957
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) asks the nurse what she can do to improve her chances of getting pregnant. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Clomiphene will help induce ovulation but will not treat the other symptoms of polycystic ovarian disease."
B) "If I lose weight, my infertility and irregular periods could resolve without medications."
C) "Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces male hormone levels."
D) "Spironolactone, which reduces androgens and facial hair, is helpful if I'm trying to conceive."
Q2) A patient with infertility will begin taking menotropins [Repronex]. The nurse will evaluate this patient's history to determine whether the:
A) patient has a history of hyperinsulinemia.
B) patient has excessive prolactin secretion.
C) patient's pituitary can produce LH and FSH.
D) patient's ovaries are capable of responding to gonadotropins.
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65
Chapter 64: Drugs That Affect Uterine Function
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25958
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient is 1 week post-term and will receive intravenous oxytocin. Which will the nurse evaluate before starting the infusion?
A) Cervical ripening
B) Fetal monitoring
C) Renal function
D) Respiratory function
E) Uterine activity
Q2) A nurse is caring for a woman during the perinatal and postnatal period. To stop postpartum hemorrhage, how will the nurse administer oxytocin [Pitocin] to this patient?
A) 20 units in 1000 mL of IV solution after delivery of the placenta
B) 20 units intramuscularly prior to delivery of the placenta
C) 40 units intramuscularly after delivery of the placenta
D) 60 units per rectum prior to delivery of the placenta
Q3) Which are indications for early induction of labor?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Active genital herpes infection
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Premature rupture of the membranes
E) Umbilical cord prolapse
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Androgens
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25959
Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-year-old male patient diagnosed with hypogonadism will begin testosterone injections. What will the nurse include when teaching the family about this therapy?
A) Annual x-rays of the hands and wrists are necessary to monitor epiphyseal closure.
B) Gynecomastia may occur and is a common side effect.
C) Injections are given every 2 to 4 weeks for 3 to 4 years.
D) Use of this drug may lead to prostate cancer later in life.
Q2) A female patient who swims competitively admits to using anabolic steroids to increase her muscle mass and improve her performance. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) Anabolic steroids may actually regulate her periods.
B) Breast size may increase as a result of this drug use.
C) The risk of liver disease will increase.
D) Voice changes and facial hair will reverse when she stops the drug.
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Chapter 66: Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction and Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25960
Sample Questions
Q1) A healthy male patient who does not have erectile dysfunction asks about medications to improve sexual stamina. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Medications for ED can improve the duration of erection in healthy men."
B) "Medications for ED can improve the quality of erection in healthy men."
C) "Medications for ED have no effect on erections in healthy men."
D) "Medications for ED will cause priapism in healthy men."
Q2) Tadalafil [Cialis] was prescribed 4 weeks ago for a patient with erectile dysfunction. The patient also takes prazosin [Minipress] for hypertension. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the use of tadalafil [Cialis]?
A) "I can take this up to 2 times a day, just before intercourse."
B) "I have a little renal trouble, so I should take a higher dose."
C) "I should take this medication with food."
D) "I should take this medication no more than once a day."
Q3) Which are contraindications for taking sildenafil [Viagra]?
A) Patients who are taking nitroglycerin for angina pectoris
B) Patients with nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION) in one eye
C) Patients with BPH who are taking alpha<sub>1</sub>-adrenergic antagonists
D) Patients with a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg
E) Patients with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) in the past 6 months
Page 68
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Chapter 67: Review of the Immune System
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25961
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who breast-feeds her infant asks the nurse about the immunity the infant receives from breast milk. What does the nurse tell the patient about immunity through breast-feeding?
A) "The immunity protects the infant from hypersensitivity reactions."
B) "The immunity provides phagocytes to help the infant fight infections."
C) "The immunity results from the transfer of IgA through the breast milk."
D) "The immunity protects the infant from respiratory and gastrointestinal (GI) microbes."
Q2) A nurse is discussing the role of antibodies in the complement system with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student is correct?
A) "Antibodies activate the complement cascade by turning on the alternative pathway."
B) "Antibodies that are free in solution can activate the complement system."
C) "Antibodies flag target cells to be lysed by membrane attack complexes."
D) "Antibody receptors are nonspecific to antigenic determinants."
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69
Chapter 68: Childhood Immunization
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25962
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old child who has asthma is in the clinic for a well-child checkup. The nurse notes that the child is up-to-date for the DTaP, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and the MMR vaccines but has only had one each of the Hib, the rotavirus, and the PCV13 vaccines. Which vaccine(s) will the nurse anticipate administering to this child?
A) Hib and rotavirus vaccines
B) PCV13
C) PCV13 and Hib
D) Rotavirus
Q2) A clinic nurse receives a phone call from a parent who states that a 2-month-old infant has a severe cough, a low-grade fever, and a runny nose that have lasted over a week. What will the nurse ask the parent?
A) Whether the infant has had the first set of vaccines
B) Whether the infant received a hepatitis B vaccine as a newborn
C) Whether the infant attends day care
D) Whether there is a family history of respiratory disorders
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Chapter 69: Immunosuppressants
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16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25963
Sample Questions
Q1) The public health nurse is teaching a group of parents about immunizations. The nurse tells the parents that after receiving the varicella virus vaccine, children should temporarily avoid close contact with whom?
A) Neonates
B) Siblings
C) Relatives older than 65 years
D) Pregnant women
E) Individuals infected with HIV
Q2) Which are recommended measures to help minimize pain associated with vaccine administration?
A) Administer acetaminophen or ibuprofen before the vaccine is given.
B) Apply a topical anesthetic to the injection site before the vaccine is given.
C) Give intramuscular vaccines rapidly without aspiration.
D) Have the child lie down while the vaccine is given.
E) Provide tactile stimulation as a diversion.
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Chapter 70: Antihistamines
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13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25964
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after ingesting diphenhydramine [Benadryl]. The child is uncoordinated and agitated. The nurse observes that the child's face is flushed, the temperature is 37.1°C, and the heart rate is 110 beats per minute. The nurse will expect to:
A) administer atropine to reverse the adverse effects.
B) apply ice packs to stop the flushing.
C) give activated charcoal to absorb the drug.
D) prepare to provide mechanical ventilation.
Q2) A family is preparing for travel and the parents report that their 5-year-old child has frequent motion sickness. The nurse will tell the parents to ask the provider about which antihistamine to help prevent symptoms?
A) Desloratadine [Clarinex]
B) Dimenhydrinate [Dramamine]
C) Hydroxyzine [Vistaril]
D) Promethazine [Phenergan]
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Chapter 71: Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Nonsteroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs and Acetaminophen
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25965
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been receiving intravenous ketorolac 30 mg every 6 hours for postoperative pain for 4 days. The patient will begin taking oral ketorolac 10 mg every 4 to 6 hours to prepare for discharge in 1 or 2 days. The patient asks the nurse whether this drug will be prescribed for management of pain after discharge. The nurse will respond by telling the patient that the provider will prescribe a(n):
A) different nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for home management of pain.
B) fixed-dose opioid analgesic/nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
C) lower dose of the oral ketorolac for long-term pain management.
D) intranasal preparation of ketorolac for pain management at home.
Q2) An adolescent is brought to the emergency department by a parent who reports that the patient took a whole bottle of extended-release acetaminophen tablets somewhere between 8 and 10 hours ago. The nurse will anticipate administering which of the following?
A) Acetylcysteine [Mucomyst]
B) Activated charcoal
C) Hemodialysis
D) Respiratory support
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Chapter 72: Glucocorticoids in Nonendocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students why glucocorticoids are preferred over nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in the treatment of inflammation. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Glucocorticoids act by multiple mechanisms and have more anti-inflammatory effects than NSAIDs."
B) "Glucocorticoids have fewer side effects than nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs."
C) "Glucocorticoids help avert damage to tissues from lysosomal enzymes."
D) "Glucocorticoids reduce the immune component of inflammation."
Q2) A patient taking high doses of a glucocorticoid develops weakness in the muscles of the upper arms and in the legs. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to ask about reducing the dose.
B) Encourage the patient to restrict sodium intake.
C) Reassure the patient that this is an expected side effect.
D) Tell the patient to stop taking the drug.
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Chapter 73: Drug Therapy of Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis and who has been taking methotrexate [Rheumatrex] will begin a course of abatacept [Orencia]. What will the nurse include when teaching the child's family about this drug?
A) That abatacept and methotrexate must both be taken to be effective
B) To continue getting vaccinations during therapy with abatacept
C) That signs of infection may warrant immediate discontinuation of abatacept
D) That a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist may be added if this therapy is not effective
Q2) A patient who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) for 1 month and has generalized symptoms is taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and an oral glucocorticoid. The provider has ordered methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The patient asks the nurse why methotrexate is necessary since pain and swelling have been well controlled with the other medications. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) a methotrexate regimen can reduce overall costs and side effects of treatment.
B) starting methotrexate early can help delay joint degeneration.
C) starting methotrexate now will help increase life expectancy.
D) with methotrexate, doses of NSAIDs can be reduced to less toxic levels.
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Chapter 74: Drug Therapy of Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is being treated with warfarin [Coumadin] to prevent thrombus. The patient develops hyperuricemia, and the provider orders allopurinol [Zyloprim]. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss ____ the ____ dose.
A) increasing; allopurinol
B) increasing; warfarin
C) reducing; allopurinol
D) reducing; warfarin
Q2) A patient who is hospitalized for an acute gout attack has received several doses of hourly oral colchicine but still reports moderate to severe pain. As the nurse prepares to administer the next dose, the patient begins vomiting. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss giving a lower dose of colchicine.
B) Hold the medication and notify the prescriber.
C) Explain that this is a common side effect that will soon stop.
D) Request an order for an antiemetic so that the next dose of colchicine may be given.
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Chapter 75: Drugs Affecting Calcium Levels and Bone
Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing teaching for a patient with osteoporosis who has just switched from alendronate [Fosamax] to zoledronate [Reclast]. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I will need to have blood tests periodically while taking this drug."
B) "I will only need a dose of this medication every 1 to 2 years."
C) "This drug is less likely to cause osteonecrosis of the jaw."
D) "This drug is only given intravenously."
Q2) A patient who takes teriparatide [Forteo] administers it subcutaneously with a prefilled pen injector. The patient asks why she must use a new pen every 28 days when there are doses left in the syringe. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Go ahead and use the remaining drug; I know it is so expensive."
B) "The drug may not be stable after 28 days."
C) "You are probably not giving the drug accurately."
D) "You should be giving the drug more frequently.
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Chapter 76: Drugs for Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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21 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25970
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the results of using glucocorticoid drugs to treat asthma?
A) Reduced bronchial hyperreactivity
B) Reduced edema of the airway
C) Reduced number of bronchial beta<sub>2</sub> receptors
D) Increased responsiveness to beta<sub>2</sub>-adrenergic agonists
E) Increased synthesis of inflammatory mediators
Q2) A patient with COPD is prescribed tiotropium [Spiriva]. After the initial dose, the patient reports only mild relief within 30 minutes. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "You may have another dose in 4 hours."
B) "You may need to take two inhalations instead of one."
C) "You should have peak effects in about 6 hours."
D) "You should see improved effects within the next week."
Q3) A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta<sub>2</sub>-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) LABAs are safer than short-acting beta<sub>2</sub> agonists.
B) LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms.
C) LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths.
D) LABAs should be combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid.
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Chapter 77: Drugs for Allergic Rhinitis, Cough, and Colds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with allergic rhinitis is taking a compound product of loratadine/pseudoephedrine [Claritin-D] every 12 hours. The patient complains of insomnia. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and anxious. The patient's heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg. The nurse will contact the provider to:
A) discuss using an intranasal glucocorticoid and loratadine [Claritin].
B) report acute toxicity caused by pseudoephedrine.
C) suggest using an agent with a sympathomimetic drug only.
D) suggest using a topical decongestant to minimize systemic symptoms.
Q2) A 7-year-old child has a cough, runny nose, congestion, and fever, and the parents ask the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter product. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "Any product will be effective when combined with vitamin C and zinc."
B) "It is best to use single-agent medications to treat individual symptoms."
C) "The fever indicates that your child may need an antibiotic; you should call your provider."
D) "You should ask your provider to prescribe a combination product that will treat multiple symptoms."
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Chapter 78: Drugs for Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are potentially worrisome adverse effects associated with proton pump inhibitor use in older patients?
A) Gastric cancer
B) Headaches
C) Medication interactions
D) Osteoporosis
E) Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
Q2) Which nonpharmaceutical interventions can be used to reduce symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A) Avoiding late-night meals
B) Consuming a glass of wine with meals
C) Drinking soft drinks
D) Losing weight
E) Stopping smoking
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Chapter 79: Laxatives
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25973
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old child has frequent constipation. The nurse provides teaching after the parent asks the nurse why the provider recommended using laxatives only when needed. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Children who take laxatives regularly can become dehydrated."
B) "Chronic laxative use can cause electrolyte imbalances."
C) "Frequent use of laxatives can cause diverticulitis."
D) "The normal reflex to defecate can be inhibited with overuse of laxatives."
Q2) A patient has been taking psyllium [Metamucil] two to three times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?
A) Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water.
B) Give another dose of the psyllium.
C) Request an order for a bisacodyl [Dulcolax] suppository.
D) Palpate the patient's abdomen and auscultate for bowel sounds.
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Chapter 80: Other Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is discussing the use of immunosuppressants for the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) with a group of nursing students. Which statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "Azathioprine [Imuran] helps induce rapid remission of IBD."
B) "Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] can be used to induce remission of IBD."
C) "Cyclosporine [Sandimmune] does not have serious adverse effects."
D) "Methotrexate is used long term to maintain remission of IBD."
Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to the hospital who reports having recurrent, crampy abdominal pain followed by diarrhea. The patient tells the nurse that the diarrhea usually relieves the pain and that these symptoms have occurred daily for the past 6 months. The patient undergoes a colonoscopy, for which the findings are normal. The nurse will plan to teach this patient to:
A) use antispasmodic medications.
B) avoid food containing lactose and gluten.
C) keep a food, stress, and symptom diary.
D) use antidiarrheal drugs to manage symptoms.
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Chapter 81: Vitamins
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25975
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the potential beneficial effects of taking vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) supplements?
A) Delayed progression of macular degeneration
B) Improved blood clotting
C) Lowered risk of developing Alzheimer's disease
D) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease
E) Reduced risk of colds in elderly patients
Q2) A pregnant patient is discussing nutrition and vitamin supplements with the nurse. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the use of nutrition and supplements during pregnancy?
A) "I can get adequate folic acid by consuming foods fortified with synthetic folate."
B) "I need reduced amounts of vitamin C while pregnant to lower my risk of hemorrhage."
C) "I should take vitamin K so my baby won't be vitamin K deficient at birth."
D) "Excessive amounts of vitamin A [retinol] can cause birth defects in my baby."
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Chapter 82: Drugs for Weight Loss
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25976
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will begin taking phentermine and topiramate [Osymia] to help with weight loss and asks the nurse why the second ingredient is necessary. Which is the correct response by the nurse?
A) "Topiramate helps reduce the risk of seizures that can occur with phentermine."
B) "Topiramate helps produce feelings of satiety to augment the drug effects."
C) "Topiramate increases the appetite suppression caused by phentermine."
D) "Topiramate increases the rate of weight loss by acting as a stimulant."
Q2) What are the benefits of a weight management program that includes regular exercise and good nutrition?
A) Reduction of blood pressure in hypertensive patients
B) Prevention of type 1 diabetes
C) Increase in high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
D) Reduction of the blood glucose level in individuals with type 2 diabetes
E) Increase in low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
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Chapter 83: Basic Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25977
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the mechanism by which antimicrobial agents achieve selective toxicity. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Some agents disrupt the bacterial cell wall."
B) "Some agents act to block the conversion of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid."
C) "Some agents cause phagocytosis of bacterial cells."
D) "Some agents weaken the cell wall, causing cell wall lysis."
Q2) A patient has a localized skin infection, which is most likely caused by a gram-positive cocci. Until the culture and sensitivity results are available, the nurse will expect the provider to order a ____-spectrum ____ agent.
A) broad; systemic
B) broad; topical
C) narrow; systemic
D) narrow; topical
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Chapter 84: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall I:
Penicillins
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25978
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has an infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. The prescriber has ordered dicloxacillin PO. What will the nurse do?
A) Administer the medication as ordered.
B) Contact the provider to suggest giving the drug IV.
C) Question the need for a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.
D) Suggest ordering vancomycin to treat this infection.
Q2) A child with an ear infection is not responding to treatment with amoxicillin [Amoxil].
The nurse will expect the provider to order:
A) amoxicillin-clavulanic acid [Augmentin].
B) ampicillin.
C) nafcillin.
D) penicillin G [Benzylpenicillin].
Q3) Which organisms can be treated with penicillin G (Benzylpenicillin)?
A) Methicillin-resistant S. aureus
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. pyogenes
E) T. pallidum
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 86
Chapter 85: Drugs That Weaken the Bacterial Cell Wall Ii:
Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Vancomycin, Telavancin, Aztreonam, Teicoplanin, and Fosfomycin
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient will be discharged home to complete treatment with intravenous cefotetan with the assistance of a home nurse. The home care nurse will include which instruction when teaching the patient about this drug treatment?
A) Abstain from alcohol consumption during therapy.
B) Avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
C) Take an antihistamine if a rash occurs.
D) Use nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), not acetaminophen, for pain.
Q2) A patient who is receiving a final dose of intravenous (IV) cephalosporin begins to complain of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes signs of redness at the IV insertion site and along the vein. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Apply warm packs to the arm, and infuse the medication at a slower rate.
B) Continue the infusion while elevating the arm.
C) Select an alternate intravenous site and administer the infusion more slowly.
D) Request central venous access.
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Chapter 86: Bacteriostatic Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis:
Tetracyclines, Macrolides, and Others
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25980
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is providing education about tetracycline [Sumycin]. Which statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the administration of this medication?
A) "I should not take this medication with milk or other dairy products."
B) "I should not worry if I experience an acnelike rash with this medication."
C) "I should take an antacid, such as Tums, if I experience gastrointestinal distress."
D) "I should take this antibiotic with a calcium supplement to improve absorption."
Q2) A nurse is teaching a nursing student about dalfopristin/quinupristin [Synercid].
Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "Patients should stop taking the drug if they experience joint and muscle pain."
B) "Patients taking this drug should have blood tests performed frequently."
C) "Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not take this drug."
D) "This drug will be administered intravenously over a 30- to 60-minute period."
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88
Chapter 87: Aminoglycosides: Bactericidal Inhibitors of Protein Synthesis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25981
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who takes the loop diuretic ethacrynic acid is given intravenous gentamicin for an infection. After several days of treatment with gentamicin, the nurse reviews the patient's most recent laboratory results and notes a gentamicin trough of 2.1 mcg/mL and normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. The nurse will question the patient about:
A) gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms.
B) headache, dizziness, or vertigo.
C) presence of rash.
D) urine output.
Q2) A nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient receiving an aminoglycoside. The report reveals an anaerobic organism as the cause of infection. What will the nurse do?
A) Contact the provider to discuss an increased risk of aminoglycoside toxicity.
B) Continue giving the aminoglycoside as ordered.
C) Request an order for a different class of antibiotic.
D) Suggest adding a penicillin to the patient's drug regimen.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 89
Chapter 88: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes glipizide. The patient develops a urinary tract infection, and the prescriber orders TMP/SMZ. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) Patients with diabetes have an increased risk of an allergic reaction.
B) Patients taking TMP/SMZ may need increased doses of glipizide.
C) The patient should check the blood glucose level more often while taking TMP/SMZ.
D) The patient should stop taking the glipizide while taking the TMP/SMZ.
Q2) A patient will be discharged from the hospital with a prescription for TMP/SMZ [Bactrim]. When providing teaching for this patient, the nurse will tell the patient that it will be important to:
A) drink 8 to 10 glasses of water each day.
B) eat foods that are high in potassium.
C) take the medication with food.
D) take folic acid supplements.
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Chapter 89: Drug Therapy of Urinary Tract Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25983
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing upper and lower UTIs. Which of these conditions can be treated at home?
A) Acute cystitis
B) Acute urethritis
C) Recurrent UTI
D) Severe pyelonephritis
E) Acute bacterial prostatitis
Q2) A patient has a positive urine culture 1 week after completion of a 3-day course of antibiotics. The nurse anticipates that the prescriber will:
A) begin a 2-week course of antibiotics.
B) evaluate for a structural abnormality of the urinary tract.
C) initiate long-term prophylaxis with low-dose antibiotics.
D) treat the patient with intravenous antibiotics.
Q3) Before giving methenamine [Hiprex] to a patient, it is important for the nurse to review the patient's history for evidence of which problem?
A) Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
B) History of reactions to antibiotic agents
C) Possibility of pregnancy
D) Previous resistance to antiseptic agents
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Page 91
Tuberculosis, Leprosy, and Mycobacterium Avium Complex
Infection
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient should begin treatment for tuberculosis?
A) A patient with HIV and a tuberculin skin test result of a 4-mm region of induration
B) A recent immigrant from a country with a high prevalence of TB with a 10-mm region of induration
C) A patient with no known risk factors who has a job-related tuberculin skin test result of a 12-mm area of induration
D) An intravenous drug abuser with a tuberculin skin test result of a 5-mm region of induration
Q2) A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a patient with tuberculosis who takes rifampin [Rifadin]. What would be an expected finding?
A) Crystalluria
B) Myopathy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Red-orange-tinged urine
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92
Chapter 91: Miscellaneous Antibacterial Drugs:
Fluoroquinolones, Metronidazole, Daptomycin, Rifampin, Rifaximin, Bacitracin, and Polymyxins
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A provider orders intravenous moxifloxacin [Avelox] for a patient who has sinusitis. Before administering the drug, the nurse will review this patient's chart for:
A) a history of asthma.
B) concurrent use of digoxin.
C) concurrent use of warfarin.
D) recent serum electrolyte levels.
Q2) A patient who is receiving intravenous ciprofloxacin for pneumonia develops diarrhea. A stool culture is positive for Clostridium difficile. The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) add metronidazole [Flagyl].
B) increase the dose of ciprofloxacin.
C) restrict dairy products.
D) switch to gemifloxacin.
Q3) Which antibiotics may be administered topically?
A) Bacitracin
B) Daptomycin
C) Ofloxacin
D) Polymyxin B
E) Rifampin
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Chapter 92: Antifungal Agents
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25986
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is taking oral ketoconazole [Nizoral] for a systemic fungal infection. The nurse reviews the medication administration record and notes that the patient is also taking omeprazole [Prilosec] for reflux disease. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Administer the omeprazole 1 hour before the ketoconazole.
B) Administer the omeprazole at least 2 hours after the ketoconazole.
C) Confer with the prescriber about a potential hazardous interaction.
D) The nurse should not administer the omeprazole to a patient receiving ketoconazole.
Q2) A patient with a history of congestive heart failure and renal impairment has esophageal candidiasis. Which antifungal agent would the nurse anticipate giving to this patient?
A) Amphotericin B [Abelcet]
B) Fluconazole [Diflucan]
C) Itraconazole [Sporanox]
D) Voriconazole [Vfend]
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Chapter 93: Antiviral Agents I: Drugs for Non-Hiv Viral
Infections
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25987
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has lamivudine-resistant hepatitis B and has been taking entecavir [Baraclude] for 2 years. The patient asks the nurse why the provider has recommended taking the drug for another year. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) "Entecavir can reverse fibrosis and cirrhosis of the liver when taken long term."
B) "It is necessary to continue taking entecavir to avoid withdrawal symptoms."
C) "The drug will be given until the infection is completely eradicated."
D) "You will need to continue taking entecavir to prevent lactic acidosis and hepatotoxicity."
Q2) A patient has a positive test for influenza type A and tells the nurse that symptoms began 5 days before being tested. The prescriber has ordered oseltamivir [Tamiflu]. The nurse will tell the patient that oseltamivir:
A) may decrease symptom duration by 2 or 3 days.
B) may not be effective because of the delay in starting treatment.
C) may reduce the severity but not the duration of symptoms.
D) will alleviate symptoms within 24 hours of the start of therapy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient taking stavudine [Zerit] telephones the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the hands and feet. What should the nurse tell the patient?
A) The numbness is an expected side effect of the medication and will diminish once the drug is withdrawn.
B) The medication will probably be stopped, and the patient should come into the clinic for further evaluation.
C) The dose may be too high, and the patient should cut the tablet in half.
D) The patient should take the medication on a full stomach to reduce absorption of the drug.
Q2) The nurse asks a graduate nurse, "When a patient in the initial phase of HIV infection is assessed, which findings would you expect to see?" The graduate nurse would be correct to respond with which conditions?
A) Respiratory distress
B) Fever
C) Myalgia
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Insomnia
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Chapter 95: Drug Therapy of Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25989
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which treatment regimen is most appropriate for reducing the risk of sterility in this patient?
A) Azithromycin [Zithromax], 1 gm PO once, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IM once in the clinic
B) Ceftriaxone [Rocephin], 250 mg IM once, with doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days as an outpatient
C) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg IV twice daily, and cefoxitin, 2 gm IV every 6 hours in the hospital
D) Doxycycline [Vibramycin], 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days, and metronidazole [Flagyl], 500 mg PO twice daily for 14 days in the hospital
Q2) An adolescent patient comes to the clinic complaining of a burning sensation upon urination and a pus-like discharge from the penis. The nurse is correct to suspect that the patient has which disorder?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Herpes simplex
C) Nongonococcal urethritis
D) Syphilis
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Chapter 96: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25990
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with multiple dirty abrasions after a bicycle-automobile accident . Which product might be used initially to cleanse this patient's wounds?
A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
C) Povidone-iodine [Betadine]
D) Soap and water
Q2) A clinic nurse is preparing to sterilize instruments used in clinic procedures. The nurse will place the instruments in glutaraldehyde [Cidex-7]. Which actions are necessary when using this product?
A) Acidifying the solution to improve its antiseptic properties
B) Cleansing the hands with an alcohol-based hand rub
C) Ensuring adequate ventilation in the room where the solution is used
D) Removing blood from the instruments before soaking them
E) Soaking the instruments for 10 hours or longer
Q3) For which patient would a topical antiseptic be most appropriate?
A) A patient with a systemic infection
B) A patient with a medium-sized abscess
C) A patient who has a wound with moderate exudate
D) A patient who needs to have wounds cleansed for prophylaxis
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Chapter 97: Anthelmintics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been diagnosed with enterobiasis, and the prescriber orders mebendazole [Vermox] to treat the infestation. When teaching this child's parents about the treatment, the nurse will include which statement?
A) "A single dose of mebendazole will eradicate the infestation."
B) "Everyone in the household should be treated with mebendazole."
C) "Serious complications of this type of infestation are common."
D) "Treatment should be limited to family members with symptoms."
Q2) A patient who is being treated for onchocerciasis with ivermectin [Stromectol] has a Mazotti reaction. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect?
A) Fever
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Rash with pruritus
D) Blurred vision
E) Bone and joint pain
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Chapter 98: Antiprotozoal Drugs I: Antimalarial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who frequently travels to Africa has been treated for an acute attack of P. vivax malaria. The patient asks the nurse about medications to prevent relapse. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A) "The form of malaria that you have does not relapse after a clinical cure has been achieved."
B) "Until you are no longer traveling to Africa, relapse drugs will be postponed."
C) "Using mosquito netting and DEET when you travel will prevent relapse."
D) "You will be given prophylactic medications when you travel to prevent relapse."
Q2) A patient who has contracted falciparum malaria has received a prescription for artemether/lumefantrine [Coartem] and tells the nurse she thinks she may be pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?
A) "Ask your provider about taking only the artemether component."
B) "The medication should be taken with food to prevent nausea."
C) "This drug is safe during the first trimester of pregnancy."
D) "You should talk to your provider about a different medication."
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Chapter 99: Antiprotozoal Drugs II: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is diagnosed with cryptosporidiosis, and the prescriber orders nitazoxanide [Alinia]. While preparing the child's parents to administer this drug, the nurse will:
A) determine whether the child is taking immunosuppressant medications.
B) instruct the family to have the child take the drug on an empty stomach.
C) teach the parents that yellow discoloration of the sclerae represents a serious side effect.
D) tell the parents that headache, dry mouth, and a metallic taste are common.
Q2) A family has just returned from a camping trip, and all family members have diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain after eating. The parents report that they drank water from a well while on the camping trip. While awaiting stool cultures, the nurse will expect the provider to order which agent empirically?
A) Iodoquinol [Yodoxin]
B) Metronidazole [Flagyl]
C) Miltefosine [Impavido]
D) Sodium stibogluconate [Pentostam]
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Chapter 100: Ectoparasiticides
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25994
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is treated for Phthirus pubis with permethrin 1% lotion. Two days after using the lotion as directed, the patient calls to report increased itching, erythema, and edema of the pubic skin. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) This is an expected effect of the treatment and will subside.
B) This represents an allergic reaction to the lotion.
C) The patient should ask the provider about using malathion 0.5% lotion.
D) The patient should repeat the permethrin now and contact the provider if no improvement is seen.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how to examine children in a day care center for pediculus humanus capitis (head lice). Which statement by a student indicates understanding of this teaching?
A) "Adult lice are easily visible on the hair shaft."
B) "Children from lower socioeconomic families are more likely to have lice."
C) "I may observe hives, boils, and impetigo on the child's scalp if lice are present."
D) "I should be careful to prevent the lice from jumping into my hair."
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Chapter 101: Basic Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
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16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25995
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving chemotherapy. Seven days after a dose, the patient's neutrophil count is 1000 cells/mm³.The nurse will tell this patient:
A) that hospitalization is necessary to provide infection prophylaxis.
B) that the provider will probably repeat the lab work in 3 to 5 days.
C) to ask the provider about skipping the next dose of chemotherapy.
D) to report any symptoms such as pus, abscesses, or cough.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about cancer treatment. Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the characteristics of cancer cells?
A) "Cancer cells are characterized by unrestrained growth and division."
B) "Division of cancer cells is characteristically rapid."
C) "Malignant cells of solid tumors do not invade other tissues."
D) "Telomerase is an enzyme produced by cancer cells that promotes metastases."
Q3) A patient with cancer has a tumor composed mostly of G<sub>0</sub> cells. When teaching this patient about the disease, the nurse will make which statement?
A) "Cells in this patient's type of tumor will proliferate rapidly."
B) "Chemotherapeutic agents that are not toxic to other tissues may be used."
C) "This type of tumor is especially sensitive to chemotherapy."
D) "This tumor will be managed primarily with surgery."
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Page 103
Chapter 102: Anticancer Drugs I: Cytotoxic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse how cancer cells become resistant to methotrexate [Rheumatrex]. The nurse is correct to respond by saying that cancer cells acquire resistance to methotrexate by:
A) reduced production of transporter that pumps methotrexate out of cells.
B) reduced synthesis of dihydrofolate reductase.
C) reduced uptake of methotrexate into cells.
D) increased ability to convert the drug to a polyglutamated form.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a patient who will undergo chemotherapy with fluorouracil [Adrucil] to treat a solid tumor. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this chemotherapeutic agent's actions?
A) "Fluorouracil acts to deprive cancer cells of thymidylate needed to make DNA."
B) "Fluorouracil causes accumulation of adenosine, which inhibits DNA synthesis."
C) "Fluorouracil disrupts the biosynthesis of nucleic acids."
D) "Fluorouracil inhibits DNA polymerase in cancer cells."
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104
Chapter 103: Anticancer Drugs II: Hormonal Agents,
Targeted Drugs, and Other Noncytotoxic Anticancer Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with colorectal cancer is admitted to the hospital oncology unit to receive cetuximab [Erbitux]. The nurse notes that the prescriber has not ordered any other medications. The nurse will contact the prescriber to request an order for which medication in order to minimize cetuximab's side effects?
A) Diphenhydramine [Benadryl]
B) Epinephrine
C) Ondansetron [Zofran]
D) Magnesium supplements
Q2) A patient will begin taking tamoxifen [Nolvadex] to treat breast cancer. The nurse performs a medication history and learns that the patient is taking sertraline [Zoloft] for depression. The nurse will tell the patient to contact her provider to ask about:
A) increasing her dose of sertraline.
B) changing from sertraline to escitalopram [Lexapro].
C) switching from sertraline to fluoxetine [Prozac].
D) decreasing her dose of tamoxifen.
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Chapter 104: Drugs for the Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks the nurse to discuss the differences between POAG and angle-closure glaucoma. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "Angle-closure glaucoma may be asymptomatic until irreversible damage has occurred."
B) "Both types are more common in African American patients."
C) "Drug therapy is the definitive treatment for angle-closure glaucoma."
D) "Early treatment with prostaglandin analogs can stop the progression of POAG."
Q2) A patient is about to undergo emergency surgery for acute angle-closure glaucoma. Before surgery, which agents will the nurse expect to administer?
A) Acetazolamide
B) Brimonidine [Alphagan]
C) Mannitol
D) Phenylephrine
E) Timolol
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106
Chapter 105: Drugs for the Skin
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old patient asks about using tretinoin [Renova] to minimize wrinkles. What will the nurse tell the patient?
A) The drug may be discontinued once results are obtained.
B) Results may be visible within a few weeks of starting therapy.
C) Systemic toxicity is a common effect in patients with sensitive skin.
D) The drug is not effective on coarse wrinkles or sun-damaged skin.
Q2) An infant has a severe contact diaper dermatitis. The provider orders triamcinolone acetonide [Kenalog] 0.1% cream to be applied 3 times daily. When teaching the infant's parents about this medication, the nurse will instruct them to apply:
A) a thick layer and massage the cream into the skin.
B) a thin layer and leave the diaper open as much as possible.
C) the cream and place an occlusive dressing over the area.
D) the cream and put the infant's diaper on tightly.
Q3) A patient will begin initial treatment for severe acne. Which regimen will the nurse expect the provider to order?
A) Clindamycin/benzoyl peroxide [BenzaClin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
B) Doxycycline [Vibramycin] and tretinoin [Retin-A]
C) Erythromycin [Ery-Tab] and benzoyl peroxide
D) Topical clindamycin and isotretinoin [Accutane]
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Page 107
Chapter 106: Drugs for the Ear
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26000
Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-year-old child is seen in the clinic in July with otalgia, erythematous, bulging tympanic membranes (TMs); and rupture of the right TM. The child also has a temperature of 39.4°C. The child's parent tells the nurse, "This is the fifth ear infection this year. What can we do?" The nurse will expect the provider to:
A) administer ceftriaxone [Rocephin] IM and give the influenza vaccine.
B) begin prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Septra].
C) prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin] and refer the child to an otolaryngologist.
D) prescribe high-dose amoxicillin [Amoxil] and administer the influenza vaccine.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with fungal otitis externa (otomycosis). The nurse correctly explains that for the first course of treatment the patient should expect:
A) acidifying drops for 1 week.
B) antibiotic ear drops.
C) intravenous (IV) antifungal agents.
D) oral antibiotics.
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Chapter 107: Additional Noteworthy Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26001
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with cystic fibrosis uses inhaled tobramycin [TOBI] 300 mg every 12 hours in repeated cycles of 4 weeks on and 4 weeks off. The patient reports hoarseness and tinnitus. The nurse will tell the patient that:
A) an intravenous form may be used to avoid hoarseness.
B) hearing loss may occur with continued use of the drug.
C) the provider will need to monitor renal function closely.
D) these are common side effects of this medication.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a premature infant who has received poractant alfa [Curosurf] 2.5 mL/kg via direct intratracheal instillation to prevent respiratory distress syndrome. The infant demonstrated initial improvement after the dose but has begun to deteriorate. Which treatment will the nurse expect the neonatologist to order?
A) A repeat dose of 1.25 mL/kg of poractant alfa
B) A repeat dose of 2.5 mL/kg of poractant alfa
C) A repeat dose of 5 mL/kg of poractant alfa
D) Administration of high-dose glucocorticoids
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109
Chapter 108: Complementary and Alternative Therapy
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26002
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student asks a nurse what companies are allowed to put on products which are considered alternative use drugs. Which general statements can be included on the label?
A) Energizes and rejuvenates.
B) Protects against cancer.
C) Improves symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
D) Relieves menopausal hot flashes.
Q2) A patient will begin taking immunosuppressant drugs for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse will caution this patient to avoid which dietary supplement?
A) Black cohosh
B) Echinacea
C) Feverfew
D) Glucosamine
Q3) Which claim may be made by manufacturers of dietary supplements?
A) "Energizes and rejuvenates."
B) "Promotes pulmonary health."
C) "Reduces pain and stiffness from arthritis."
D) "Reduces stress."
E) "Relieves hot flashes associated with menopause."
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Chapter 109: Management of Poisoning
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26003
Sample Questions
Q1) A pediatric patient ingested a narcotic analgesic at the grandparent's house 15 minutes before arriving in the emergency department. The nurse is preparing to administer activated charcoal. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) "The charcoal will cause the child's stools to be black."
B) "The charcoal should absorb about 37% of the drug."
C) "The charcoal will make the child vomit the medication."
D) "We will need to give the charcoal several times for it to work."
Q2) Which chelating agents can be used to treat iron toxicity?
A) Calcium EDTA
B) Deferoxamine [Desferal]
C) Fomepizole [Antizol]
D) Penicillamine
E) Succimer [Chemet]
Q3) A parent brings a child to the emergency department, because the child drank a solution containing ferrous sulfate. The nurse will prepare for:
A) administration of activated charcoal.
B) gastric lavage.
C) peritoneal dialysis.
D) whole-bowel irrigation.
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Page 111
Chapter 110: Potential Weapons of Biologic, Radiologic, and Chemical Terrorism
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26004
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an infusion of botulinum antitoxin after consuming botulinum toxin in contaminated food. The patient has developed double vision, slurred speech, and upper body muscle weakness. The patient's spouse asks the nurse what the antitoxin will do. Which response is correct?
A) "The antitoxin is an antidote to the botulinum toxin."
B) "This medication helps restore strength in weakened muscles."
C) "This infusion will help prevent further nerve damage."
D) "The antitoxin will reverse the symptoms within a couple of days."
Q2) A patient reported to have been exposed to mustard gas is brought to the emergency department. The patient's skin is red and swollen with small blisters, and the patient's eyes are red and tearing. The patient has a runny nose and a dry, barking cough. What should the nurse's initial action be?
A) Prepare for renal dialysis.
B) Provide oxygen and prepare for mechanical ventilation.
C) Remove the patient's clothing and clean the skin with soap and water.
D) Rush the patient to the intensive care unit for cardiorespiratory monitoring.
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