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Fundamentals of Nursing introduces students to the essential concepts, theories, and practices in the field of nursing. This course emphasizes the development of basic clinical skills, patient-centered care, therapeutic communication, and critical thinking necessary for effective nursing practice. Students will learn about the nursing process, health assessment, infection control, vital signs monitoring, hygiene, and safety procedures. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and supervised laboratory experiences, learners will gain foundational knowledge and skills to provide safe, competent, and compassionate care to individuals across the lifespan in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Nursing 8th Edition by Taylor
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Q1) A nurse instructor explains the concept of health to her students. Which of the following statements accurately describes this state of being?
A) Health is a state of optimal functioning.
B) Health is an absence of illness.
C) Health is always an objective state.
D) Health is not determined by the patient.
Answer: A
Q2) Who is considered to be the founder of professional nursing?
A) Dorothea Dix
B) Lillian Wald
C) Florence Nightingale
D) Clara Barton
Answer: C
Q3) The Nurse Corps of the United States Army was established by whom?
A) Dorothea Dix
B) Lillian Wald
C) Florence Nightingale
D) Isabel Hampton Robb
Answer: A
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Q1) A staff nurse asks a student, "Why in the world are you studying nursing theory?" How would the student best respond?
A) "Our school requires we take it before we can graduate."
B) "We do it so we know more than your generation did."
C) "I think it explains how we should collaborate with others."
D) "It helps explain how nursing is different from medicine."
Answer: D
Q2) In what way can a nurse differentiate strong research from poor research?
A) By conducting the research
B) Through author dialogue
C) By critiquing the study
D) Through the nurse's own informal investigation
Answer: C
Q3) The practice of changing patients' bedclothes each day in acute care settings is an example of what type of knowledge?
A) Authoritative
B) Traditional
C) Scientific
D) Applied
Answer: B
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Q1) A nurse educator uses models of health and illness when teaching. Which model of health and illness places high-level health and death on opposite ends of a graduated scale?
A) Health-Illness Continuum
B) Agent-Host-Environment Model
C) Health Belief Model
D) Health Promotion Model
Answer: A
Q2) A client is admitted to the hospital with abrupt symptoms of increasing shortness of breath, fever, and a productive cough with green sputum. Upon further exam the client is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. The nurse identifies this as which type of illness?
A) Acute
B) Chronic
C) Terminal
D) Contagious
Answer: B
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Q1) A man 75 years of age is being discharged to his home following a fall in his kitchen that resulted in a fractured pelvis. The home health nurse makes a home assessment that will be used to design interventions to meet which priority need?
A) Sleep and rest
B) Support from family members
C) Protection from potential harm
D) Feeling a sense of accomplishment
Q2) What is the major effect of a health crisis on family structure?
A) Adaptation to stress
B) Change in roles of family members
C) Respect for family values
D) Loss of individual identities
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a community factor that may affect health?
A) Rural setting
B) Air and water quality
C) Number of residents
D) Educational level
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Q1) The focal point of nursing is the nurse-client interaction. What must nurses consider when conducting the necessary assessment of their clients and significant others?
A) Their health disparities
B) Their societal beliefs
C) The subgroup they belong to
D) Their own cultural orientation.
Q2) An Anglo American client reports to the primary health care facility with symptoms of fever, cough, and running nose. While interviewing the client, which of the following points should the nurse keep in mind?
A) Do not probe into emotional issues.
B) Do not ask very personal questions.
C) Sit at the other corner of the room.
D) Maintain eye contact while talking.
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Q1) A woman age 83 years who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident and is unable to swallow refuses the insertion of a feeding tube. This is an example of what ethical principle?
A) Nonmaleficence
B) Veracity
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
Q2) A nurse is concerned about the practice of routinely ordering a battery of laboratory tests for clients who are admitted to the hospital from a long-term care facility. An appropriate source in handling this ethical dilemma would be which of the following?
A) The client's family
B) The admitting physician
C) The nurse in charge of the unit
D) The institutional ethics committee
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Q1) Which of the following accreditations is a legal requirement for a school of nursing to exist?
A) National League for Nursing Accrediting Commission
B) American Association of Colleges of Nursing accreditation
C) State Board of Nursing accreditation
D) Educational institution accreditation
Q2) A nurse has taken a telephone order from a physician for an emergency medication. The dose of the medication is abnormally high. What should the nurse do next?
A) Administer the medication based on the order
B) Question the order for the medication
C) Refuse to administer the medication
D) Document concerns about the order
Q3) A nurse moves from Ohio to Missouri. Where can a copy of the Nurse Practice Act in Missouri be obtained?
A) Ohio State Board of Nursing
B) Missouri State Board of Nursing
C) Federal government nursing guidelines
D) National League for Nursing
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Q1) What is one of the most significant trends in health care today?
A) Increased length of hospital stays
B) Shift from hospitals to community-based care
C) Emphasis on disease management
D) Narrowing of the areas for nursing practice
Q2) A nurse in a walk-in health care setting provides technical services (e.g., administering medications), determines the priority of care needs, and provides client teaching on all aspects of care. Which of the following terms best describes this type of health care setting?
A) Hospital
B) Physician's office
C) Ambulatory center
D) Long-term care
Q3) What is the primary focus of health care today?
A) Care of acute illnesses
B) Care of chronic illnesses
C) Health promotion
D) Health restoration
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Q1) A client has suddenly become very ill, and a nurse is transferring him to the intensive care unit (ICU). How does the nurse provide information to ensure continuity of care?
A) By giving a verbal report to nurses in the ICU
B) By ensuring that the chart and all belongings are moved
C) By delegating a nursing assistant to provide information
D) By asking the family to provide the information
Q2) The models of nursing care delivery have been many and varied throughout the history of nursing. Which of the following best describes the idea of the continuity of care?
A) Money focused
B) Client focused
C) Primary nursing
D) Functional nursing
Q3) At what point during hospital-based care does planning for discharge begin?
A) Upon admission to the hospital
B) After the patient is settled in a room
C) Immediately before discharge
D) After leaving the hospital
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Q1) Which of the following interpersonal skills is essential to the practice of nursing?
A) Performing technical skills knowledgeably and safely
B) Maintaining emotional distance from clients and families
C) Keeping personal information among shared clients confidential
D) Promoting the dignity and respect of patients as people
Q2) Self-evaluation is a method that nurses use to promote their own development, and to grow in confidence in their nursing roles. This process is referred to as what?
A) Promoting the nurse's self-esteem.
B) Reflective practice.
C) Assessment of oneself.
D) Learning from mistakes.
Q3) What is a systematic way to form and shape one's thinking?
A) Critical thinking
B) Intuitive thinking
C) Trial-and-error
D) Interpersonal values
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Q1) A nurse is collecting information from a client with dementia. The client's daughter accompanies the client. Which of the following statements by the nurse would recognize the client's value as an individual?
A) "Can you tell me how long your father has been this way?"
B) "Sarah, I have to go and read your father's old charts before we talk."
C) "Mr. Koeppe, tell me what you do to take care of yourself."
D) "Mr. Koeppe, I know you can't answer my questions, but it's okay."
Q2) When documenting subjective data, the nurse should do which of the following?
A) Use the client's own words placed in quotation marks.
B) Paraphrase the information stated by the client.
C) Validate the information with the client's family prior to documentation.
D) Record the information using nonspecific words.
Q3) A nurse performs an assessment of a client in a long-term care facility and records baseline data. The nurse reassesses the client a month later and makes revisions in the plan of care. What type of assessment is the second assessment?
A) Comprehensive
B) Focused
C) Time-lapsed
D) Emergency
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Q1) A student is reviewing a client's chart before giving care. She notes the following diagnoses in the contents of the chart: "appendicitis" and "acute pain." Which of the diagnoses is a medical diagnosis?
A) Neither appendicitis nor acute pain
B) Both appendicitis and acute pain
C) Appendicitis
D) Acute pain
Q2) Which of the following statements accurately describes the legal responsibility of the nurse making a diagnosis for a client?
A) The nurse may make a diagnosis, but the physician is responsible for making sure it is appropriate for the client.
B) The nurse practitioner is responsible for making all nursing diagnoses and determining if they are appropriate for the client.
C) The nurse must decide if he or she is qualified to make a nursing diagnosis and will accept responsibility for treating it.
D) The health care facility directs the nursing diagnosis in order to receive payment for services performed.
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Q1) During outcome identification and planning, from what part of the nursing diagnoses are outcomes derived?
A) The defining characteristics
B) The related factors
C) The problem statement
D) The database
Q2) A nurse is developing outcomes for a specific problem statement. What is one of the most important considerations the nurse should have?
A) The written outcomes are designed to meet nursing goals
B) To encourage the client and family to be involved
C) To discourage additions by other healthcare providers
D) Why the nurse believes the outcome is important
Q3) Which of the following groups of terms best describes a nurse-initiated intervention?
A) Dependent, physician-ordered, recovery
B) Autonomous, clinical judgment, client outcomes
C) Medical diagnosis, medication administration
D) Other health care providers, skill acquisition
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Q1) What characteristic of a competent nurse practitioner enables nurses to be role models for clients?
A) Sense of humor
B) Writing ability
C) Organizational skills
D) Good personal health
Q2) The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about nursing interventions. Which statement by one of the nursing students indicates further education is required?
A) Nursing interventions must be consistent with standards of care and research findings.
B) Nursing interventions must be culturally sensitive and individualized for the client.
C) Nursing interventions must be compatible with other therapies planned for the client.
D) Nursing interventions must be approved by other members of the health care team.
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Q1) A nurse is evaluating the outcomes of a plan of care to teach an obese client about the calorie content of foods. What type of outcome is this?
A) Psychomotor
B) Affective
C) Physiologic
D) Cognitive
Q2) Which activity does the nurse engage in during evaluation? Select all that apply.
A) Collect data to determine whether desired outcomes are met.
B) Assess the effectiveness of planned strategies.
C) Adjust the time frame to achieve the desired outcomes.
D) Involve the client and family in formulating desired outcomes.
E) Initiate activities to achieve the desired outcomes.
Q3) A nurse is interested in improving client care on the unit through performance improvement. What is the first step in this process?
A) Discover the problem.
B) Plan a strategy.
C) Implement a change.
D) Assess the change.
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Q1) A nurse caring for a client who is being treated by three physicians uses the source-oriented format for documentation. What are the benefits of using this format of documentation?
A) Information is documented in separate forms by each health care personnel.
B) It is a unified, cooperative approach for resolving the client's problems.
C) It is organized at one location according to the client's health problems.
D) It is compiled to facilitate communication among health care professionals.
Q2) What is the nurse's best defense if a client alleges nursing negligence?
A) Testimony of other nurses
B) Testimony of expert witnesses
C) Client's record
D) Client's family
Q3) Which of the following data entries follows the recommended guidelines for documenting data?
A) "Client is overwhelmed by the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer."
B) "Client's kidneys are producing sufficient amount of measured urine."
C) "Following oxygen administration, vital signs returned to baseline."
D) "Client complained about the quality of the nursing care provided on previous shift."
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Q1) Which of the following actions would generally take place in the settling down stage of Daniel Levinson's Individual Life Structure theory? Select all that apply.
A) Breaking away from the family
B) Making initial career choices
C) Trying new lifestyles
D) Striving to gain respect
E) Investing in family
Q2) A nursing student is observing in a pediatric clinic. A grandmother brings an infant age 2 months to be seen. The infant has failed to gain the expected amount of weight and looks unwell. The nursing student wonders if this may be a failure to thrive baby. Which one of the following has been linked to failure to thrive babies?
A) Nutritional deprivation
B) Working mothers
C) Use of day care centers
D) Premature births
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Q1) The nurse is providing education on child growth and development to a group of parents at a public health clinic. In answer to a question about childhood enuresis, the nurse verifies that this can be a significant issue to the child and the parents. The nurse should be sure to inform the group that this condition is which of the following?
A) A benign and self-limiting disorder
B) Increasing in incidence in the United States
C) Of significant concern to pediatricians
D) Due to a lack of physical activity
Q2) A preschooler is in Kohlberg's preconventional phase of moral reasoning. What is the focus of the phase?
A) To learn sex differences and modesty
B) A sexual desire for the opposite sex
C) Obeying rules to avoid punishment
D) Literal concept of God as a male human
Q3) Which of the following sets of terms best characterizes the school-aged child?
A) Reflexes, alert state, temperament
B) Negativism, regression, anal stage
C) Preoperational, asking "why," fears
D) Doing, succeeding, accomplishing
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Q1) An older adult, newly widowed, has been unable to adjust to her change in roles or form new relationships. What is this experience called?
A) Social isolation
B) Social ineptness
C) Ineffective coping
D) Negativism of aging
Q2) A middle adult client requests visits by the hospital chaplain and reads the Bible each day while hospitalized for treatment of heart problems. What is the individual illustrating?
A) Midlife transition
B) Support of the rights of others
C) Fear for the future
D) Trust in spiritual strength
Q3) Which of the following statements is true for nursing care of older adults?
A) Most older adults are unable to care for themselves independently.
B) Most older adults are functional, benefiting from health-oriented interventions.
C) Fewer older adults will require nursing care during the 21st century.
D) Interventions for older adults are no different from those for young adults.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question or statement?
A) "How did that make you feel?"
B) "Did you take those drugs?"
C) "What medications do you take at home?"
D) "Describe the type of pain you have."
Q2) Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
A) A nurse says, "I am going to help you walk now."
B) A nurse presents information to a group of clients.
C) A client's face is contorted with pain.
D) A client asks the nurse for a pain shot.
Q3) A nurse touches a client's hand to indicate caring and support. What channel of communication is the nurse using?
A) Auditory
B) Visual
C) Olfactory
D) Kinesthetic
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Q1) The nurse has been working with a client for several days during the client's recovery from a femoral head fracture. How should a nurse best evaluate whether client education regarding the prevention of falls in the home has been effective?
A) "What changes will you make around your house to reduce the chance of future falls?"
B) "Do you have any questions about the fall prevention measures that we've talked about?"
C) "In light of what we've talked about, why is it important that you remove the throw rugs in your house?"
D) "Do you think that the safety measures I taught you are clear and realistic?"
Q2) Which of the following strategies might a nurse use to increase compliance with education?
A) Include the client and family as partners.
B) Use short, simple sentences for all ages.
C) Provide verbal instruction at all times.
D) Maintain clear role as the authority.
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Q1) A student nurse has just graduated with a baccalaureate degree in nursing. What type of nursing leadership will this nurse be expected to provide?
A) Nursing care of the individual client
B) Demonstration of selected critical skills
C) Ability to be a follower rather than a leader
D) Nursing care of groups of clients
Q2) Nurses with varying levels of experience possess leadership skills. A graduate nurse walks out of the nurse manager's office after a meeting. The graduate nurse reflects on the positive and negative feedback that she received from the manager regarding her three months working on the unit. What nursing leadership skill is best illustrated by the graduate nurse in this scenario?
A) Self-evaluation skills
B) Communication skills
C) Problem-solving skills
D) Management skills
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Q1) A nurse is caring for a client with a serious bacterial infection. The client is dehydrated. Knowledge of the physical effects of the infection would support which of the following nursing diagnoses?
A) High Risk for Infection
B) Excess Fluid Volume
C) Risk for Imbalanced Body Temperature
D) Risk for Latex Allergy Response
Q2) A client comes to the emergency department with major burns over 40% of his body. Although all of the following are true, which one would provide the rationale for a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection?
A) Stress may adversely affect normal defense mechanisms.
B) White blood cells provide resistance to certain pathogens.
C) Intact skin and mucous membranes protect against microbial invasion.
D) Age, race, sex, and hereditary factors influence susceptibility to infection.
Q3) What is the correct rationale for using body substance precautions?
A) The risk of transmitting HIV in sputum and urine is nonexistent.
B) Disease-specific isolation procedures are adequate protection.
C) Only actively infected clients are considered contagious.
D) All body substances are considered potentially infectious.
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Q1) Various sounds are heard when assessing a blood pressure. What does the first sound heard through the stethoscope represent?
A) Systolic pressure
B) Diastolic pressure
C) Auscultatory gap
D) Pulse pressure
Q2) Upon auscultation of a client's heart rate, the nurse notes the rate to have an irregular pattern of 72 beats/minute. The nurse notifies the physician because the client is exhibiting signs of which of the following?
A) A dysrhythmia
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypertension
Q3) A client in a physician's office has a single blood pressure (BP) reading of 150/92. Should the client be taught about hypertension?
A) It depends on the time of day the BP was taken.
B) It depends on whether the client is male or female.
C) No, a single BP reading should not be used.
D) Yes, this reading is high enough to be significant.
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Q1) A nurse is preparing a client for a physical assessment. The client appears anxious about the assessment. Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A) "This is nothing to worry about. I won't hurt you."
B) "Some of the examination may be painful, but I will be gentle."
C) "Let me tell you what I will be doing. It should not be painful."
D) "I have to do this, so just relax and it won't last long."
Q2) When using assessment equipment that will touch the client, what should the nurse do before conducting the assessment?
A) Describe the equipment and how it works.
B) Show pictures of functions of the equipment.
C) Draw pictures of the anatomy to be assessed.
D) Warm the equipment with hands or warm water.
Q3) When auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse notes gurgling sounds. What characteristic of sound would the nurse document?
A) Resonance
B) Turgor
C) Quality
D) Texture
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Q1) Nurses provide many interventions to prevent falls in health care settings. Which of the following would be an appropriate intervention to prevent falls?
A) Keep bed in the high position.
B) Keep side rails up at all times.
C) Apply restraints to all confused clients.
D) Lock wheels on beds and wheelchairs.
Q2) A nurse specializes in caring for victims of domestic violence. Which of the following statements accurately describes domestic violence in the United States? (Select all that apply.)
A) Studies indicate that each year, more than 12 million adults in the United States are victims of intimate partner violence.
B) Intimate partner violence is domestic violence or battering between two people in a close relationship.
C) Many men who batter their spouses also batter their children.
D) There is no evidence linking childhood sexual abuse to adult physical symptoms or substance abuse.
E) Domestic violence is not seen in a cycle.
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Q1) A client is very anxious before an invasive procedure. What CAM therapy would be most helpful to assist in decreasing anxiety?
A) Meditation
B) Chinese medicine
C) Acupuncture
D) Herbs
Q2) Which of the following populations are more inclined to use CAT? Select all that apply.
A) Women
B) Adults aged 20 to 30
C) People living in the east
D) Former smokers
E) Adults who are poor
Q3) A nurse practitioner uses integrative care in his practice. What does this mean?
A) He uses allopathic medicine to treat all clients.
B) He uses both allopathic medicine and CAT.
C) The nurse uses CAT, a physician-prescribed medication.
D) The nurse provides care for clients of all age groups.
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Q1) What is the name of the process by which a drug moves through the body and is eventually eliminated?
A) Pharmacology
B) Pharmacotherapeutics
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacodynamics
Q2) A nurse should read the instructions stated on a vial container before reconstituting it and administering it to a client. Which of the following instructions are stated on the label of a vial container?
A) Type of needle to be used for withdrawal
B) Directions for administering the drug
C) Best site for administering the drug
D) Amount of diluent to be added
Q3) Which medication system allows for client independence?
A) Unit dose system
B) Self-administered medication system
C) Automated medication-dispensing system
D) Bar Code Medication Administration
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Q1) A nurse is assisting a postoperative client with deep-breathing exercises. Which of the following is an accurate step for this procedure?
A) Place the client in prone position, with the neck and shoulders supported.
B) Ask the client to place the hands over the stomach, so he or she can feel the chest rise as the lungs expand.
C) Ask the client to exhale rapidly and completely, and inhale through the nose rapidly and completely.
D) Ask the client to hold his or her breath for three to five seconds and mentally count "one, one thousand, two, one thousand" and so forth.
Q2) A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to undergo a breast biopsy. Which of the following major tasks does the nurse perform immediately during the pre-operative period?
A) Obtain a signature on the consent form.
B) Review the surgical checklist.
C) Conduct a nursing assessment.
D) Reduce the dosage of toxic drugs.
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Q1) Before a long-term care resident goes to sleep at night, his dentures are placed in a denture cup with clean water. What rationale supports placing dentures in water?
A) None; they should be placed in saline
B) To increase comfort when replaced in the mouth
C) To prevent drying and warping of plastic
D) To ensure the dentures are not thrown away
Q2) Which of the following is a correct guideline to follow when providing a bed bath for a client?
A) When cleaning the eye, move the washcloth from the outer to the inner aspect of the eye.
B) Fold the washcloth like a mitt on your hand so that there are no loose ends.
C) Clean the perineal area before cleaning the gluteal area.
D) Change the bath water after washing each body part.
Q3) Which clent would be at greatest risk for injury to the skin and mucous membranes?
A) Infant 10 days old with no health problems
B) adolescent 17 years of age with asthma
C) Man 44 years of age with hemorrhoids
D) Man 77 years of age with diabetes
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Q1) Upon responding to the client's call bell, the nurse discovers the client's wound has dehisced. Initial nursing management includes calling the physician and doing which of the following?
A) Covering the wound area with sterile towels moistened with sterile 0.9% saline
B) Closing the wound area with Steri-Strips
C) Pouring sterile hydrogen peroxide into the abdominal cavity and packing with gauze
D) Holding the wound together until the physician arrives
Q2) Which of the following are functions of the skin? Select all that apply.
A) Protection
B) Temperature regulation
C) Sensation
D) Vitamin C production
E) Immunological
Q3) Which is an example of a closed wound?
A) Abrasion
B) Ecchymosis
C) Incision
D) Puncture wound
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Q1) Student nurses are turning a client in bed. In order to move the client to the edge of the bed, which positioning instruction is best to give the client when using the friction-reducing sheet?
A) Cross the arms across the chest and keep the legs straight.
B) Cross the arms across the chest and cross the legs.
C) Keep the arms at the sides and the legs crossed.
D) Keep the arms folded loosely at the abdomen and the legs straight.
Q2) A nurse is placing a client in Fowler's position. What should she teach the family about this position?
A) "Use at least two big pillows to support the head."
B) "Cross the arms over the client's abdomen."
C) "Do not raise the knees with the knee gatch."
D) "Keep the hands lower than the rest of the body."
Q3) The nurse is preparing to move a patient up in bed with the assistance of another nurse. In what position would the nurse place the patient, if tolerated?
A) Reverse Trendelenburg
B) Supine
C) Sitting
D) Semi-Fowler's
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Q1) The parents of a boy 10 years of age are worried about his sleepwalking (somnambulism). What topic should the nurse discuss with the parents?
A) Sleep deprivation
B) Privacy
C) Schoolwork
D) Safety
Q2) A sedative-hypnotic has been prescribed to help a client sleep. What should the nurse teach the client about this medication?
A) It should be taken every night for several months
B) It is useful for sleep but is better taken with alcohol
C) It loses its effectiveness after one or two weeks
D) It should be taken in the morning for long-term effects
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with insomnia. What nursing intervention would help the nurse relieve the client's condition?
A) Maintain a calm and quiet environment free from noise.
B) Administer sedatives as prescribed by the physician.
C) Motivate the client to sleep because it may affect his health.
D) Engage the client in some diversional activities.
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Q1) The nurse has just completed programming of a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump using prescribed parameters. Which of the following actions should you take next?
A) Verify the settings with another nurse.
B) Document implementation of the PCA on the client's chart.
C) Attach the PCA pump tubing to the client's intravenous access device.
D) Check the pump's electrical cords for cracks, splits, or fraying.
Q2) Which misconception is common in clients in pain?
A) "I will get addicted to pain medications."
B) "I need to ask for pain medications."
C) "The nurses are here to help relieve the pain."
D) "I do not have to fight the pain without help."
Q3) Which of the following clients would be classified as having chronic pain?
A) A client with rheumatoid arthritis
B) A client with pneumonia
C) A client with controlled hypertension
D) A client with the flu
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Q1) In planning to meet the nutritional needs of a critically ill client in the intensive care unit, which factor will increase the client's basal metabolic rate?
A) Infection
B) Advanced age
C) Prolonged fasting
D) Long periods of sleep
Q2) A nurse is feeding a client. Which of the following statements would help a person maintain dignity while being fed?
A) "I am going to feed you your cereal first, and then your eggs."
B) "I wish I had more time so I could feed you all of your meal."
C) "I know you don't like me to feed you, but you need to eat."
D) "What part of your dinner would you like to eat first?"
Q3) A nurse is caring for a client with a history of cardiac and vascular disease. Which of the following fats should the nurse allow in the client's diet for his condition?
A) Unsaturated fats
B) Trans fats
C) Saturated fats
D) Hydrogenated fats
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Q1) A client with a urinary tract infection is to be discharged from the health care facility. After teaching the client about measures to prevent urinary tract infections, the nurse determines that the education was successful when the client states which of the following?
A) "I should take frequent bubble baths."
B) "I need to void after sexual intercourse."
C) "I should wipe from back to front after going to the bathroom."
D) "I need to wear pants that are snug fitting."
Q2) A nurse has catheterized a client to obtain urine for measuring postvoid residual (PVR) amount. The nurse obtains 40 mL of urine. What should the nurse do next?
A) Report this abnormal finding to the physician.
B) Perform another catheterization to verify the amount.
C) Document this normal finding for postvoid residual.
D) Palpate the abdomen for a distended bladder.
Q3) Which of the following describes the term micturition?
A) Emptying the bladder
B) Catheterizing the bladder
C) Collecting a urine specimen
D) Experiencing total incontinence
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Q1) The nurse is assessing a client with abdominal complaints. The nurse performs deep palpation of the abdomen for which reason?
A) Detect abdominal masses
B) Determine abdominal firmness
C) Assess softness of abdominal muscles
D) Assess degree of abdominal distention
Q2) A nurse is documenting the appearance of feces from a client with a permanent ileostomy. Which of the following would she document?
A) "Ileostomy bag half filled with liquid feces."
B) "Ileostomy bag half filled with hard, formed feces."
C) "Colostomy bag intact without feces."
D) "Colostomy bag filled with flatus and feces."
Q3) A physician orders a retention enema for a client to destroy intestinal parasites. Which of the following enemas would be indicated for this client?
A) Oil retention enema
B) Carminative enema
C) Anthelmintic enema
D) Nutritive enema
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Q1) What information would a home care nurse provide to a client who is measuring peak expiratory flow rate at home?
A) "Although the test is uncomfortable, it is not painful."
B) "You will be asked to forcefully exhale into a mouthpiece."
C) "The test is used to determine how much air you inhale."
D) "You will do this each morning while still lying in bed."
Q2) A nurse is educating a preoperative client on how to effectively deep breathe. Which of the following would be included?
A) "Make each breath deep enough to move the bottom ribs."
B) "Breathe through the mouth when you inhale and exhale."
C) "Breathe in through the mouth and out through the nose."
D) "Practice deep breathing at least once each week."
Q3) Of all factors, what is the most important risk factor in pulmonary disease?
A) Air pollution from vehicles
B) Dangerous chemicals in the workplace
C) Active and passive cigarette smoke
D) Loss of the ozone layer of the atmosphere
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Q1) A home care client reports weakness and leg cramps. Per order, the nurse draws blood and requests a potassium level. What is the rationale for this request?
A) The nurse is concerned that the client's diet has caused sodium loss.
B) The nurse recognizes these symptoms of hypokalemia.
C) The client is actively seeking increased attention.
D) The client had bananas and orange juice for breakfast.
Q2) What is the average adult fluid intake and loss in each 24 hours?
A) 500 to 1,000 mL
B) 1,000 to 1,500 mL
C) 1,500 to 2,000 mL
D) 1,500 to 3500 mL
Q3) Which location might the nurse use to assess the condition of an insertion site for a central venous access device?
A) Below the sternum
B) Over the fourth intercostal space
C) Over the jugular vein
D) The back of the hand
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Q1) The nurse promotes the self-concept of the parents of an infant age 6 months admitted to the hospital with a fever and dehydration by doing what?
A) Telling the parents that the infant's condition was not their fault
B) Allowing the parents to participate in the infant's care
C) Encouraging the parents to visit the infant every other day
D) Educating the parents on health-maintenance behaviors
Q2) A nurse visits a diabetic client age 60 years in his home after the client's above-the-knee amputation of his left leg. The client appears disheveled and with poor hygiene. He also avoids making eye contact with the nurse. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of the client's reduced self-esteem?
A) Lethargy
B) Withdrawal
C) Self-care deficit
D) Lack of interest
Q3) What might a nurse ask during a health history to assess personal identity?
A) "Tell me how your illness has affected you in your job."
B) "Tell me what you do for fun and what you do for work."
C) "How do you believe others see you? Why do you believe that?"
D) "How would you describe yourself to others?"
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Q1) Which area of nursing experiences the highest levels of stress in the work setting?
A) Obstetric nurses
B) Pediatric nurses
C) New graduates
D) Aging nurses
Q2) A nurse teaches a client deep-breathing exercises to help control his anxiety. This is considered what type of stress management technique?
A) Meditation
B) Relaxation
C) Anticipatory guidance
D) Guided imagery
Q3) If a nurse assessed the vital signs of a person who was in the initial alarm reaction stage (shock phase) of the GAS, what would be the expected findings?
A) Slow, deep breathing
B) Fatigue and lethargy
C) Hypotension
D) Hypertension
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Q1) The husband of a client who died of breast cancer is still grieving for his wife two years later. What type of grief is he experiencing?
A) Unresolved
B) Situational
C) Inhibited
D) Maturational
Q2) While caring for a client near end of life, a student talks to her. Another student asks why she is talking to someone who is dying. Which response would be accurate?
A) "It makes me feel better to talk to my clients."
B) "I do this so I won't be so afraid the client will die."
C) "I believe the client can hear me as long as she is alive."
D) "I don't know; the nurse in charge of the client told me to."
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a perceived loss?
A) A client mourns the loss of his amputated leg.
B) A client grieves for the loss of his wife to cancer.
C) An older client grieves for the loss of his independence.
D) A client grieves for the loss of his job.
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Q1) A nurse is making a home care visit to a client with a hearing deficit. What can she do to facilitate communication with the client?
A) Ask for permission to turn off the television set during the visit.
B) Talk in a loud tone of voice at all times during the visit.
C) Use written communication rather than verbal communication.
D) Reduce the time spent with the client to decrease frustration.
Q2) A client says, "What is that awful smell?" What sense is being used?
A) Olfactory
B) Gustatory
C) Tactile
D) Auditory
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client on the first day after major abdominal surgery. Which of the following internal stimuli would be increased and affect client responses?
A) Lights and noise
B) Visitors and caregivers
C) Intravenous lines, pain
D) Ambulating, coughing
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Q1) In which of the phases of the sexual response cycle may secretions from Cowper's glands appear at the glans of the penis?
A) Excitement
B) Plateau
C) Orgasm
D) Resolution
Q2) What do most nursing interventions pertaining to sexuality involve?
A) Teaching to promote sexual health
B) Examinations to identify sexually transmitted infections
C) Advocacy for those with sexual dysfunctions
D) Maintaining confidentiality and privacy
Q3) A nurse is educating a student nurse on how STIs affect the health of their clients.
Which of the following statements accurately describes an effect of an STI?
A) STIs are most common in young to middle adulthood populations.
B) The incidence of STIs is decreasing due to health promotion efforts.
C) Most of the time STIs cause no symptoms, especially in women.
D) Health problems caused by STIs are more severe and frequent in men.
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Q1) Then nurse is caring for a hospice client who tells the nurse that she is worried about how she has treated a younger sister. She asks the nurse how to make things right. The nurse recognizes this as which of the following spiritual needs?
A) Meaning
B) Forgiveness
C) Purpose
D) Love
Q2) A client verbalizes to a mental health counselor that his life is meaningless since his wife divorced him and that he no longer wants to live. What nursing diagnosis, resulting from his spiritual distress, would be appropriate?
A) Sexual Dysfunction
B) Fear
C) Powerlessness
D) Risk for Self-Directed Violence
Q3) What factor is necessary to express and experience spirituality?
A) Quiet time in isolation from others
B) Membership in an organized religion
C) Long-term suffering and pain
D) Connectedness with other people
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