Fundamentals of Neuroscience Exam Materials - 1750 Verified Questions

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Fundamentals of Neuroscience

Exam Materials

Course Introduction

Fundamentals of Neuroscience introduces students to the core principles underlying the structure and function of the nervous system. The course covers topics such as the cellular and molecular mechanisms of neural communication, the organization and functions of nervous tissue, sensory and motor pathways, neural development, plasticity, and the basis of behavior and cognition. Emphasis is placed on understanding how neurons and circuits generate thoughts, emotions, and actions, as well as contemporary techniques utilized in neuroscience research. This foundational course provides the essential knowledge necessary for advanced study in neuroscience and related biomedical sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Biological Psychology 13th Edition by James W. Kalat

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14 Chapters

1750 Verified Questions

1750 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses

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125 Verified Questions

125 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the main source of nutrition for vertebrate neurons?

A) Fats

B) Glucose

C) Sodium

D) Complex carbohydrates

Answer: B

Q2) Why does the brain need thiamine?

A) To enable glucose to cross the blood-brain barrier

B) As a source of fuel in case there is not enough glucose

C) As a building block for making proteins

D) To enable it to metabolize glucose

Answer: D

Q3) The greater the surface area of a dendrite, the more information it can receive from other neurons.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Synapses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Raylene is studying for an exam on neurotransmission. She wrote in her notes that one difference between ionotropic and metabotropic effects is that _____.

A) metabotropic effects are quicker and briefer

B) ionotropic effects are slower and briefer

C) ionotropic effects are quicker and longer lasting

D) metabotropic effects are slower and longer lasting

Answer: D

Q2) "Transporter" proteins transport neurotransmitters ____.

A) back into the presynaptic neuron

B) across the synapse to the postsynaptic neuron

C) across the synapse back to the presynaptic neuron

D) to the appropriate receptor sites

Answer: A

Q3) The neuron that receives the message is called the ______ neuron.

A) postsynaptic

B) presynaptic

C) polarized

D) reflexive

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Anatomy and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shasta abuses opiate drugs. Because receptors for the opiate drugs are found in the _____, one serious side effect of an overdose would be Shasta having suppressed breathing and heart rate.

A) medulla

B) cerebellum

C) pons

D) hypothalamus

Answer: A

Q2) Darren is studying for a quiz. He writes in his notes that his parietal lobe is important for his sense of _____.

A) touch

B) taste

C) sight

D) sound

Answer: A

Q3) Stan was in an accident and damaged his Cranial nerve II. What side-effects would doctors expect him to have?

Answer: Stan damaged his second cranial nerve called the optic nerve. He will have problems with vision if not complete blindness.

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Chapter 4: Genetics, Evolution, Development, and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Enzymes serve as ____.

A) genetic templates

B) physiological markers of chemical reactions in the body

C) biological catalysts that regulate chemical reactions in the body

D) catalysts for the synthesis of protein molecules

Q2) After learning strengthens one set of synapses, other synapses ____.

A) weaken

B) die

C) get stronger

D) become aroused

Q3) If most of the axons that transmit dopamine to some brain area die or become inactive, the remaining dopamine synapses become ____.

A) less responsive

B) less easily stimulated

C) more resistant

D) more responsive

Q4) Myelination of the brain and spinal cord is complete by the time of birth.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the relationship between heredity and environment.

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Chapter 5: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chemicals that release energy when struck by light are called ____.

A) photo-optics

B) photopigments

C) opsins

D) kestrels

Q2) Melba is one of the unique individuals that has 4 kinds of cones. What is not true about Melba?

A) She must be female because having four kinds of cones requires two X chromosomes.

B) She has two forms of the short-wavelength cone.

C) She has two forms of the long-wavelength cone.

D) She is better at making distinctions between one color and another compared to someone with three cones.

Q3) Parvocellular cells respond strongly to moving stimuli and large overall patterns.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the trichromatic, opponent-process, and retinex theories of color vision.

Q5) Describe the key functions of the major pathways in the visual cortex.

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Chapter 6: Other Sensory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vibrations in the fluid of the cochlea cause ____.

A) movement of the pinna

B) hair cells to displace

C) vibrations of the eardrum

D) vestibular input

Q2) Most theorists believe that the first sensory system was ____.

A) vision

B) vestibular

C) pain

D) chemical

Q3) The vomeronasal organ (VNO) is a set of receptors located ____.

A) in the inner ear

B) near, but separate from, the olfactory receptors

C) in the throat

D) behind the cerebral ventricles

Q4) Itching appears to be a type of pain message.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss one theory of why a person might experience synesthesia.

Q6) Describe in detail one of the ways of relieving pain.

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Chapter 7: Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gerald has been diagnosed with Huntington's disease. Describe what symptoms he should expect.

Q2) A muscle spindle responds to the ____.

A) oxygen level in the muscle

B) acetylcholine concentration at the nerve-muscle junction

C) fatigue of the muscle

D) stretch of the muscle

Q3) The psychological disorders that accompany Huntington's disease could be mistaken for which of the following?

A) Schizophrenia

B) Dissociative identity disorder

C) Antisocial personality disorder

D) Bipolar disorder

Q4) The supplementary motor cortex is mainly active when preparing for an organized sequence of movements.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Briefly describe the cellular organization of the cerebellum.

Q6) Describe the significance of mirror neurons.

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Chapter 8: Wakefulness and Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mia wants to take a trip, but she is worried about jet lag. What advice would you give her?

A) Traveling to the east is easier.

B) Traveling to the west is easier.

C) The direction of travel makes no difference so she should pick her favorite place.

D) The effect varies greatly from person to person so she should ask her doctor for advice.

Q2) Margie just had a polysomnograph taken. What did they measure?

A) The action potentials of her individual neurons in the spinal cord.

B) A combination of her EEG and eye-movement records.

C) The rate of glucose uptake in active regions of her brain.

D) The electrical resistance of her scalp.

Q3) Les will be taking a trip, and he is worried about how to handle his jet lag. What advice would you give him?

A) He needs to take melatonin in the morning to wake up.

B) He needs to expose himself to hot temperatures when he arrives to reset his circadian rhythm.

C) He needs to sleep in a dark room.

D) He needs to avoid bright daylight.

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Chapter 9: Internal Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A set point refers to ____.

A) a very narrow range that the body works to maintain at a stable level

B) the regulation of blood flow

C) the release of hormones at a set point in time

D) initiating a change in body temperature at a set point in time

Q2) Like vasopressin, ____ constricts the blood vessels, compensating for the drop in blood pressure.

A) angiotensin I

B) angiotensin II

C) renin

D) sodium

Q3) The increasing prevalence of obesity obviously relates to the increased availability of our diet and ____.

A) depression

B) psychological distress

C) increased activity

D) sedentary lifestyle

Q4) Rima has syndromal obesity whereas Ezra has monogenic obesity. What is the difference for these two individuals?

Q5) Describe the different causes and mechanisms of osmotic thirst.

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Chapter 10: Reproductive Behaviors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Organizing effects of hormones usually occur early in development.

A)True

B)False

Q2) On average, the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex are of nearly equal size in ____ females, whereas the right hemisphere is a few percent larger in ____ males.

A) homosexual; heterosexual

B) heterosexual; homosexual

C) homosexual; homosexual

D) heterosexual; heterosexual

Q3) Claire has an XY chromosome pattern, but has grown up and developed the genital appearance of a female. Claire most likely has _____.

A) androgen insensitivity

B) cortisol insensitivity

C) hermaphrodite syndrome

D) adrenal hyperplasia

Q4) Give some examples of evolutionary interpretations of mating behavior.

Q5) In general, men are more jealous of sexual infidelity than women.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Emotional Behaviors

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125 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A research study linked different genes for the enzyme MAOA to the probability of antisocial behavior. The effect of the gene varied from small to great, depending on what?

A) Whether the person lived in a large or small town

B) Whether the person lived alone or with others

C) Whether the person was maltreated during childhood

D) Whether the person's diet was high or low in fats and carbohydrates

Q2) Briefly explain why Jamel can use alcohol as a way to self-medicate his anxiety?

Q3) Across studies involving amygdala damage, the general conclusion seems to be that the amygdala is important for ____.

A) focusing attention on emotional stimuli

B) only the expression of emotion

C) only the interpretation of emotion

D) the normal startle response

Q4) Which type of leukocyte matures in the bone marrow and produces antibodies to attack specific targets?

A) B cells

B) Y cells

C) T cells

D) Natural killer cells

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Chapter 12: Learning, Memory, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most likely cause of the brain damage typical of Alzheimer's disease is due to a

A) deficit of thiamine

B) excess of neurotrophins

C) increase in amyloid-? proteins

D) excess of acetylcholine

Q2) Bert would use his striatum when learning information that_____.

A) needs to be integrated over many trials

B) is involved in the development of flexible responses

C) is most responsive to delayed feedback

D) is critical to the formation of explicit memories

Q3) What type of deficiency causes Korsakoff's syndrome?

A) Thiamine

B) Protein

C) Sodium

D) Calcium

Q4) Describe three adaptations of our ancient ancestors that allowed them to evolve a larger brain.

Q5) What have single-cell recording taught us about the hippocampus and spatial memory?

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Chapter 13: Cognitive Functions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dr. Vancil can tell when her patients have lost consciousness because they experience _____.

A) decreased connectivity between the cerebral cortex and subcortical areas such as the thalamus, hypothalamus, and basal ganglia.

B) increased overall activity of the cortex but decreased subcortical areas

C) loss of synchrony and connectivity between cortical areas but intact subcortical areas

D) loss of synchrony and connectivity between subcortical areas but intact cortical areas

Q2) Lateralization refers to the ____.

A) formation of the sulci and gyri in the cortex

B) functional asymmetries of the brain

C) slow rate of maturation in forebrain structures

D) physical changes that occur in neurons as learning takes place

Q3) Normally, a split-brain patient should be able to name an object flashed to the left visual field.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Provide a detailed description of spatial neglect.

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Chapter 14: Psychological Disorders

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126 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lyperior just turned 50 and has been diagnosed with depression. Given her age, it is likely that she has family members with ______.

A) autism

B) alcohol abuse problems

C) circulatory problems

D) anxiety disorders

Q2) The concordance rate of schizophrenia among twins is ____.

A) higher in dizygotic than monozygotic twins

B) higher in monozygotic than dizygotic twins

C) equally high in monozygotic and dizygotic twins

D) very difficult to determine

Q3) What is one factor in prenatal development that has been found to be related to increased incidences of schizophrenia later in life?

A) excess sex hormones during the third trimester

B) prenatal exposure to Toxoplasma gondii

C) lack of exercise by the mother early in pregnancy

D) episodes of maternal depression

Q4) Briefly describe the four major categories of antidepressant drugs

Q5) Discuss the link between depression and sleep patterns.

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