Fundamentals of Microbiology Practice Exam
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Introduction
Fundamentals of Microbiology introduces students to the basic concepts and principles of microbiology, focusing on the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. The course covers microbial genetics, physiology, and ecology, as well as the roles microorganisms play in health, disease, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on the application of microbiological techniques, aseptic methods, and safety in the laboratory, preparing students for further studies in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) Which of these is considered to be the smallest unit of life?
A) the nucleus
B) the mitochondrion
C) a plasmid
D) the cell
E) a prion
Answer: D
Q2) Viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Macromolecules that catalyze chemical reactions in the cell are called
Answer: enzymes
Q4) The process of glycolysis is used to produce energy from simple sugars.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) The proton motive force (PMF)across a cell membrane can be used for which of these processes?
A) Generate ATP.
B) Propel the flagella.
C) Transport nutrients into the cell.
D) Transport molecules out of the cell.
E) All of these choices.
Answer: E
Q2) Short hair-like protrusions on the surface of some bacterial cells,used primarily for attachment but some are used for motility,and called ___ .
Answer: pili
Q3) All of the following are taxonomic groups used to classify bacteria EXCEPT: A) Kingdom.
B) Phylum.
C) Class.
D) Family.
E) Genus.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) Amitochondriates are eukaryal microbes that lack mitochondria.What evidence shows that some of these microbes may at one time have had mitochondria?
A) They can respire on oxygen.
B) They have peptidoglycan in their cell wall.
C) They have 70S ribosomes.
D) They have some alpha-proteobacterium DNA in their chromosome.
E) They have circular chromosomes.
Answer: D
Q2) When Saccharomyces undergoes meiosis,it forms four haploid cells called ___.
Answer: ascospores
Q3) Mitochondria replicate independently of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The best way to classify all eukaryal microbes is to group them into the Protist kingdom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) What is the minimum salt requirement of a halophile?
A) 10 mM
B) 100 mM
C) 250 mM
D) 750 mM
E) 1.5 M
Q2) What is the specific action of bacteriorhodopsin?
A) Modification of vitamins for use in metabolism.
B) Assembles ADP and phosphate to make ATP.
C) Binds glucose and other sugars in the cell.
D) Facilitates the movement of glucose across the cell membrane.
E) Produces proton motive force using light energy.
Q3) What is the name of the scientist who first proposed that Archaea are distinct from Bacteria and should be classified in a separate domain?
A) Linus Pauling
B) Barbara McClintock
C) Carl Woese
D) Stanley Cohen
E) James Watson
Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?
Q2) Filtration of a bacteriophage preparation replicated in E.coli will effectively separate viable cells from phage particles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these comprises the viral genome?
A) single-stranded DNA
B) single-stranded RNA
C) double-stranded DNA
D) double-stranded RNA
E) All of these choices are seen in viruses.
Q4) What is the viral capsid composed of?
A) protein
B) nucleic acid
C) lipid
D) polysaccharide
E) glycogen
Q5) Infectious protein particles that cause diseases like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are called ________.
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) A phototroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.
A) carbon dioxide; carbon
B) organic compounds; carbon
C) inorganic compounds; energy
D) sunlight; energy
E) organic compounds; energy
Q2) What is the most common solidifying agent used in microbiological media?
A) gelatin
B) agar
C) alginate
D) silica
E) polyacrylamide
Q3) What is the most abundant form of nitrogen in the biosphere?
A) ammonia
B) nitrate
C) nitrite
D) dinitrogen
E) nitrous oxide
Q4) The growth curve generated for a microbial batch culture consists of four phases.Explain what is happening to the culture during each of the phases.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of these is a term for a point mutation that results in a change in the amino acid specificity of the codon?
A) frameshift
B) silent
C) nonsense
D) missense
E) amber
Q2) What is the sigma factor of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme responsible for?
A) initiation of transcription
B) recognition of the promoter region
C) transcription elongation
D) transcription termination
E) ribosome binding
Q3) Which of these best differentiates DNA and RNA?
A) RNA is single-stranded and DNA is double stranded.
B) RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose.
C) RNA contains the base uracil in place of thymine, which is in DNA.
D) Both a and b are true.
E) a, b, and c are true.
Q4) Describe the process of mRNA processing in eukaryal cells.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) For most double-stranded DNA eukaryal viruses,DNA replication occurs in the _________ and translation occurs in the __________.
A) cytoplasm, cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm, nucleus
C) nucleus, nucleus
D) nucleus, cytoplasm
E) mitochondria, cytoplasm
Q2) Most RNA viruses utilize
A) an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
D) a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
E) reverse transcriptase.
Q3) Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Several antiviral drugs that are produced today prevent attachment of the virus to the host cell.What information do you need to know to design the drugs? Briefly describe possible mechanisms of the drugs.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) The original map of the Escherichia coli chromosome was constructed using which process?
A) conjugation
B) transformation
C) transduction
D) both conjugation and transformation
E) both conjugation and transduction
Q2) Term for the uptake of extracellular DNA into a bacterial cell and incorporation into its genome.
A) transduction
B) conjugation
C) transformation
D) reversion
E) transfection
Q3) Under what conditions will two different plasmids be incompatible?
A) If they contain some identical genes.
B) If they contain genes from different organisms.
C) If they use similar methods of replication initiation.
D) If they use different DNA polymerases.
E) If they do not contain at least one similar gene.
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) DNA microarray technology allows a researcher to analyze gene expression in an organism cultured under different growth conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pH at which a protein's charge is completely neutral is the protein's ______________ point.
Q3) Term for genes from different organisms that encode for proteins that carry out the same function but have different sequences.
A) homologs
B) paralogs
C) orthologs
D) metalogs
E) semilogs
Q4) In analyzing a genome sequence,a computer program identifies the beginning and the end of a protein encoding sequence.This sequence is referred to as a(n)_______ _______ frame.
Q5) A transcriptome refers to all the proteins produced in a single cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The two-component regulatory systems uses a _______ ________ and a response regulator.
Q2) Small non-coding RNA molecules (sRNA)affect gene expression at the level of:
A) transcription initiation.
B) transcription termination.
C) protein activity.
D) translation.
E) transcription activation.
Q3) How will E.coli growing in a medium containing both lactose and glucose react?
A) By preferentially utilizing lactose first.
B) By preferentially utilizing glucose first.
C) By utilizing both at the same time.
D) Neither compound will be utilized for growth.
E) One will sometimes be utilized over the other.
Q4) Based on current research,quorum sensing has only been shown to occur in bioluminescent bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The directed movement toward a light source is called ______________.
Page 13
Q6) Repressor proteins bind to the control region of a gene called the ___________.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) The preferred fuel of choice for the original Model T Ford was gasoline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cyanobacteria are known to accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHA).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do microorganisms accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates?
A) It is a waste product of metabolism.
B) It is used for cell wall synthesis.
C) It is a form of stored energy.
D) It acts as an outer capsule.
E) For osmotic protection.
Q4) Millions of tons of this amino acid,commonly used as a flavor enhancer,are produced annually.
A) methionine
B) glycine
C) glutamate
D) valine
E) leucine
Q5) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) The standard reduction potential (E ')for ferredoxin (Fd /Fd d)is (-0.43 V).Based on this,which of these would you expect to be true?
A) Oxidized ferredoxin to be a good electron donor.
B) Oxidized ferredoxin to be a good electron acceptor.
C) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron donor.
D) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron acceptor.
E) Cannot be determined without knowledge of the other reactant.
Q2) The assimilation of sulfate requires energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What does a large positive E ' indicate for a redox reaction?
A) It is endergonic.
B) It has a positive G '.
C) It will require an input of energy.
D) It is spontaneous.
E) It is energetically unfavorable.
Q4) The reduction of dinitrogen to ammonia for assimilation is called nitrogen
Q5) Organism that use light as energy sources are called _____________.
Page 15
Q6) Metabolic processes in the cell that yield energy are called ____________.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Methanogenesis helps drive a number of other microbial processes in anaerobic environments through the remove of hydrogen gas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The enzyme ___________ ____________ is used by methanotrophs to oxidize methane to methanol.
Q3) Which of these is linked with production of cement for construction of highways?
A) A decrease in sand.
B) An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.
C) A decrease in limestone.
D) A decrease in fossil fuel consumption.
E) An increase of atmospheric nitrogen.
Q4) Which one of the following is NOT a reservoir for oxygen?
A) the atmosphere
B) carbon dioxide
C) nitrate
D) ammonia
E) water
Q5) The burning of fossil fuels has contributed to an increase in the atmospheric gas
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) What is the % salinity of the ocean?
A) 1% or less
B) 3.5%
C) 8%
D) 15%
E) 35%
Q2) What is the deepest that viable microorganisms have been found in the Earth's crust?
A) 100 meters
B) 500 meters
C) 1000 meters
D) 1500 meters
E) 3000 meters
Q3) Soil microbes surrounding the plant root contribute to plant growth by providing the plants with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a source of fixed nitrogen.
B) soluble phosphorus.
C) water.
D) a usable carbon source.
E) protection from pathogens.
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) The main goal of the primary treatment phase of wastewater treatment is the
A) reduction of total organic content (TOC).
B) removal of pathogenic microbes.
C) reduction of nitrogen.
D) removal of particulate matter.
E) removal of toxic chemicals.
Q2) Food storage temperature is an ____________ factor that affects the rate at which a food will spoil.
Q3) Most milk sold in stores today has an extended shelf life primarily because of A) canning techniques.
B) refrigeration.
C) Tyndallization.
D) high temperature short term pasteurization.
E) the addition of chemical preservatives.
Q4) All of the following are goals of wastewater treatment except A) reduction of total organic content (TOC).
B) removal of harmful pathogens.
C) enhancement of the taste of water.
D) removal of nitrogen.
E) removal of phosphorus.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Which of these is TRUE of an ectosymbiont?
A) It is always harmful to the host.
B) It is either harmful or beneficial to the host.
C) It is always beneficial to the host.
D) It is best described as a mutualistic relationship.
E) It is best described as a commensal relationship.
Q2) Herbivores require microorganisms to help them with the digestion of this compound.
A) starch
B) glycogen
C) cellulose
D) proteins
E) nucleic acids
Q3) The bacterial genus ___________ is a secondary symbiont and is capable of changing the female to male ratio of an insect to primarily female.
A) Rickettsia
B) Wolbachia
C) Pseudomonas
D) Culex
E) Bordetella
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) This is an example of a pathogen that has become more of a threat because it is increasingly harder to control with antimicrobials.
A) MRSA
B) E.coli O157:H7
C) HIV/AIDS
D) Ebola virus
E) Measles virus
Q2) Which disease listed below is NOT an example of a propagated disease?
A) measles
B) influenza
C) salmonellosis
D) tuberculosis
E) chicken pox
Q3) Term for newly identified infectious diseases or those with a recent significant increase in incidence.
A) emerging diseases
B) new diseases
C) modern diseases
D) future diseases
E) special diseases
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) In vertebrates,TLRs are found on the surface of many types of cells.On which of these cells would you NOT expect to find TLRs?
A) red blood cells
B) monocytes
C) macrophages
D) neutrophils
E) dendritic cells
Q2) Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)recognize PAMPs and play an important role in non-specific surveillance of foreign microbe recognition.What organisms contain PRRs besides humans? (Pick most complete answer.)
A) other vertebrates
B) vertebrates and invertebrates
C) vertebrates and plants
D) plants and invertebrates
E) other vertebrates, invertebrates, and plants
Q3) Iron is usually freely available in the body for access by invading pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the visible signs of inflammation and what causes these symptoms?
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) What is function of the FC region of the antibody molecule?
A) It binds the antigen.
B) It binds complement.
C) It binds specific receptors on phagocytes.
D) Options b and c are correct.
E) Options a, b, and c are all correct.
Q2) What are plasma cells?
A) Antibody producing cells.
B) The same as memory B cells.
C) Any lymphocyte in the blood stream.
D) The same as memory CD8 T cells.
E) T-helper cells.
Q3) The main effector function of activated CD4 T cells is the secretion of cytokines. A)True
B)False
Q4) The spleen is an example of a secondary lymphoid tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how a CD8 cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Where is the diphtheria toxin gene located?
A) A pathogenicity island.
B) A conjugative plasmid.
C) A transposon.
D) A prophage.
E) A cryptic plasmid.
Q2) The scientific name of a causative agent of bacterial meningitis is ____________ meningitidis.
Q3) Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins.What does the term "A-B" refer to?
A) Their antigen-binding properties.
B) Their antibody-binding toxins.
C) Their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit.
D) Their action on the brain.
E) Their activation of B-cells.
Q4) Horizontal gene transfer by bacteriophage is thought to be a very rare mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the mechanism of tetanus toxin in causing spastic paralysis.
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus.This is referred to as _____________ .
A) transformation.
B) transduction.
C) antigenic shift.
D) antigenic drift
E) transmutation.
Q2) Bunyaviruses causes cell death by a process called "cap-snatching".This process results in:
A) destruction of host cell mRNA.
B) inhibition of DNA replication.
C) deterioration of the cytoplasmic membrane.
D) inhibition of translation.
E) destruction of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) Describe how the papilloma virus is able to transform a normal cell into a cancer cell.
Q4) Genes capable of transforming normal cells into cancer cells are called
Q5) The transmission of a virus from mother to fetus is referred to as ___________ transmission.
24
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) The toxin -amanitin specifically inhibits this.
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase II.
C) cell membrane synthesis.
D) ribosomal function.
E) DNA helicase.
Q2) The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci primarily causes disease in immunocompromised individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these is used in the most reliable test for the diagnosis of malaria in an individual?
A) An ELISA-based test of a serum sample.
B) Microscopic examination of a stained blood smear.
C) A biopsy of liver tissue.
D) Antibody-coated latex beads to test a blood sample.
E) Tissue culture techniques for growth of the pathogen from a blood sample.
Q4) The fusing of gametes of the Plasmodium parasite is completed in the human host.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The original meaning of antibiotic was _____.
A) any compound that will kill viruses or bacteria.
B) any compound that will kill microbes.
C) any compound produced by a microbe that will kill another microbe.
D) any compound produced by a microbe that will kill a virus.
E) any compound that will only kill bacteria.
Q2) For an antimicrobial drug to work properly,a person's acquired immune response must be functioning properly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The smallpox vaccination used by Jenner is best described as a(an)_____.
A) attenuated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) polysaccharide vaccine.
D) killed vaccine.
E) DNA vaccine.
Q4) Some Gram-negative bacteria are able to block the transport of -lactam antibiotics across the outer membrane through the mutational alteration of _____________ which previously allowed the transport of the antibiotic across the outer membrane.
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