Fundamentals of Medical Imaging
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Medical Imaging provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles and applications of contemporary medical imaging modalities. The course covers the physics underlying major imaging techniques, including X-ray, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), ultrasound, and nuclear medicine. Emphasis is placed on the technical mechanisms of image generation, image interpretation, safety considerations, and clinical relevance. Students will also explore advancements in digital imaging and the evolving role of artificial intelligence in diagnostics. The course is designed for those seeking foundational knowledge in medical imaging as it applies to both clinical practice and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 10th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Q1) Radio waves,light,and x-rays are all examples of _____ energy.
A) nuclear
B) thermal
C) electrical
D) electromagnetic
Answer: D
Q2) The basic quantities measured in mechanics are _____,_____,and _____.
A) volume, length, meters
B) mass, length, time
C) radioactivity, dose, exposure
D) meters, kilos, seconds
Answer: B
Q3) Exposure is measured in units of _____.
A) becquerel
B) sieverts
C) meters
D) grays
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Q1) Rutherford's experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of _____.
A) electrons with well-defined orbits
B) a nucleus with an electron cloud
C) electrified plum pudding
D) a ball of hooks and eyes
Answer: C
Q2) A neutral atom has the same number of _____ and electrons.
A) quarks
B) neutrinos
C) neutrons
D) protons
Answer: D
Q3) The chemical element is determined by the number of _____ in the atom.
A) protons
B) electrons
C) neutrons
D) nucleons
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Q1) Gamma rays are produced in the _____ of the atom.
A) outer electron shell
B) inner electron shell
C) nucleus
D) K-shell
Answer: C
Q2) The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is _____.
A) 30 to 150 kVp
B) 200 to 300 kVp
C) 300 to 1000 kVp
D) over 1 MV
Answer: A
Q3) The four properties of photons are _____,_____,_____ and _____.
A) size, shape, spin, mass
B) frequency, mass, amplitude, wavelength
C) frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude
D) refraction, velocity, spin, amplitude
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Q1) The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called _____.
A) magnetic force
B) electron spin
C) unified field theory
D) magnetic induction
Q2) On the surface of an electrified object,the charges concentrate on the _____.
A) top side
B) underside
C) sharpest curvatures
D) smoothest curvatures
Q3) When a group of dipoles are aligned,they create _____.
A) a magnetic domain
B) paramagnetic material
C) magnetic resonance
D) a north pole
Q4) Electrification occurs through the movement of _____.
A) protons only
B) protons and electrons
C) electrons only
D) electrons and neutrons
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Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Q1) The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high voltage transformer is _____.
A) frequency
B) velocity
C) amplitude
D) all of the above
Q2) The most accurate type of timer is the _____ timer.
A) mechanical
B) electronic
C) synchronous
D) mAs
Q3) With half-wave rectification,the current flows through the x-ray tube during the _____ part of the cycle.
A) zero
B) positive or negative
C) positive
D) negative
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Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) As an x-ray tube ages,the inside can become coated with tungsten,which can cause _____ in the tube.
A) convection
B) anode pitting
C) off-focus radiation
D) arcing
Q2) The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a _____ alloy.
A) molybdenum
B) graphite
C) tungsten
D) copper
Q3) When electrons bombard the target,_____% of their kinetic energy is converted to heat.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 99
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Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) The efficiency of x-ray production is _____ the tube current.
A) indirectly proportional to
B) directly proportional to
C) not affected by
D) strongly affected by
Q2) The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to _____.
A) rotor speed
B) filament current
C) kVp
D) tube current
Q3) Projectile electrons travel from _____.
A) anode to cathode
B) cathode to anode
C) target to patient
D) inner shell to outer shell
Q4) Most of the x-rays produced at the target are _____.
A) bremsstrahlung
B) characteristic
C) gamma
D) beta
Page 9
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) The HVL is lowered by a decrease in _____.
A) kVp
B) mAs
C) distance
D) both A and C
Q2) The main purpose of added filtration is to reduce _____.
A) the HVL
B) patient dose
C) beam quality
D) beam penetrability
Q3) The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray _____.
A) quantity
B) quality
C) intensity
D) all of the above
Q4) Grays in air are the measurement for x-ray _____.
A) quantity
B) exposure
C) intensity
D) all of the above
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Q1) K-shell binding energy increases with increasing _____.
A) mass density
B) kVp
C) atomic number
D) mAs
Q2) Only at energies above 10 MeV can _____ take place.
A) photodisintegration
B) pair production
C) Compton scatter
D) photoelectric absorption
Q3) A negative contrast agent is _____.
A) air
B) iodine
C) barium
D) water
Q4) The use of contrast agents increases the amount of _____.
A) differential absorption
B) Compton scatter
C) photoelectric absorption
D) all of the above
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Chapter 10: Concepts of Radiographic Image Quality
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Q1) An image receptor with _____ can be used over a greater range of exposures.
A) wide latitude
B) high contrast
C) narrow latitude
D) high average gradient
Q2) The technologist primarily controls radiographic contrast by varying the _____.
A) image receptor
B) kilovoltage
C) voltage ripple
D) milliamperage
Q3) What is the formula for optical density?
A) OD = log10(Io/It)
B) OD = log10(It/Io)
C) OD = Io/It
D) OD = It/ Io
Q4) Distortion can be reduced by _____.
A) placing the object plane perpendicular to the image plane
B) placing the object plane parallel to the image plane
C) directing the central ray 15° from the object plane
D) increasing the SID and the OID
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Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Q1) Federal regulations passed in _____ required that positive beam limiting devices be on all manufactured x-ray collimators.
A) 1954
B) 1974
C) 1994
D) 2000
Q2) Which kVp selection would result in the most scattered x-rays in the image-forming beam?
A) 90 kVp
B) 75 kVp
C) 60 kVp
D) 50 kVp
Q3) Approximately _____% of the x-ray beam incident on the patient is transmitted through the patient without interaction to become part of the image-forming beam.
A) 90-99
B) 80-89
C) 20-29
D) 0-9
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Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Q1) Image noise in increased with increased _____.
A) detective quantum efficiency (DQE)
B) conversion efficiency (CE)
C) both A and B
D) none of the above
Q2) Screen characteristics are determined by the _____.
A) size of the phosphor crystals
B) thickness of the phosphor layer
C) phosphor composition
D) all of the above
Q3) Photon interactions free the electrons from _____ atoms in the silver halide crystal.
A) bromide
B) iodide
C) silver
D) both A and B
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Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Q1) Added filtration has the effect of _____ the beam quality and _____ patient dose.
A) reducing, increasing
B) reducing, reducing
C) increasing, reducing
D) increasing, increasing
Q2) If mAs is increased from 20 mAs to 40 mAs,the patient dose will _____.
A) not be affected
B) increase slightly
C) be halved
D) be doubled
Q3) Foreshortening is caused by a(n)_____.
A) angled beam when the body part is parallel the image receptor
B) angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor
C) angled beam that is perpendicular to the body part
D) perpendicular beam and the body part parallel to the image receptor
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15
Chapter 14: Computers in Medical Imaging
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Q1) The oldest computer language for writing scientific and mathematical programs is
A) FORTRAN
B) C++
C) COBOL
D) Pascal
Q2) The first generation of computers was run with _____.
A) vacuum tubes
B) transistors
C) integrated circuits
D) large scale integration
Q3) All of the below are examples of a type of computer storage except:
A) microprocessor
B) solid state drive
C) hard disk drive
D) flash drive
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Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Q1) The computed radiography reader is made up of _____,_____,and _____ modules.
I. mechanical
II. chemical
III. optical
IV. computer
A) I, II, III
B) II, III, IV
C) I, III, IV
D) I, II, IV
Q2) Computed radiography screens respond to radiation with _____.
A) fluorescence
B) electron emission
C) photostimulable luminescence
D) biological phosphorescence
Q3) The computed radiography image has _____.
A) narrow exposure latitude
B) wide exposure latitude
C) improved contrast resolution
D) both B and C
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Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Q1) Computed radiography developed in the 1970s with the use of _____ as the image receptor.
A) phosphor
B) selenium
C) silicon
D) film
Q2) The dynamic range determines the degree of _____ in the image.
A) contrast resolution
B) spatial resolution
C) motion blur
D) all of the above
Q3) In digital fluoroscopy,each matrix pixel represents _____.
A) interface reflectivity
B) atomic number and mass density
C) proton density and spin relaxation
D) radionuclide uptake
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Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Q1) The use of an image receptor with _____ DQE can result in _____ patient doses.
I. low,lower
II. high,lower
III. high,higher
IV. low,higher
A) I
B) II
C) I & III
D) II & IV
Q2) The two principal characteristics of a medical image are _____.
A) spatial resolution and noise
B) spatial resolution and contrast resolution
C) contrast resolution and modular transfer function
D) contrast resolution and dynamic range
Q3) In digital imaging,spatial resolution is ultimately limited by _____.
A) focal spot size
B) spatial frequency
C) contrast resolution
D) pixel size
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Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Radiographic Image
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Q1) _____ is corrected by the application of an offset voltage.
A) Spatial resolution
B) Line noise
C) Image lag
D) Misregistration
Q2) Flatfielding is accomplished through automatic calibration images called _____ and _____.
A) magnification, edge enhancement
B) offset images, gain images
C) image flip, image lag
D) image inversion, pixel shift
Q3) What is the basic photometric unit?
A) lumen
B) candela
C) lux
D) nit
Q4) A digital display device with higher megapixels has better spatial resolution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) A greasy appearance of a film is usually caused by _____.
A) inadequate washing
B) excess hardener chemicals
C) improper developer heat
D) inadequate processing chemistry
Q2) A streak of high optical density on the finished radiograph can be caused by _____.
A) film boxes stacked too high in storage
B) light leaks in the cassette or darkroom
C) inadequate washing in the processor
D) high humidity in the darkroom
Q3) A bi-color chemical stain on a radiograph is called _____.
A) a curtain effect
B) a dichroic stain
C) hypo retention
D) both A and B
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Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) The x-ray field must center accurately to within ____% of SID.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 0.5
D) 1
Q2) Processor crossover racks should be cleaned on a _____ basis.
A) daily
B) weekly
C) biweekly
D) monthly
Q3) It is acceptable to perform a(n)_____ test instead of measuring the focal spot size.
A) line pair
B) exposure linearity
C) half-value layer
D) wire mesh pattern
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Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) A graph of the frequency of occurrence versus digital value intervals is called a(n)_____.
A) histogram
B) compression
C) digitization
D) algorithm
Q2) Cassettes used in computed radiography are more highly sensitive to background and scatter radiation than film/screen cassettes are.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is a safe practice to keep CR cassettes in a "radiation safe" area of an x-ray suite during exams.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Artifacts are an acceptable part of digital imaging.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) The quality control standard for flat panel displays was released by _____ in 1998.
A) DIN
B) SMPTE
C) NEMA
D) VESA
Q2) A photometer is a _____.
A) TG-18 test device
B) dosimeter
C) luminescence meter
D) illuminance meter
Q3) Luminance response can be tested with a(n)_____.
I. near-range photometer
II. telescope photometer
III. illuminance meter
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I or II
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Chapter 23: Mammography
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Q1) A target of molybdenum or rhodium is preferable in mammography because it reduces the _____.
A) resolution
B) scatter
C) contrast
D) motion
Q2) The American Cancer Society recommends that all women _____ years of age and above have an annual screening mammogram.
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60
Q3) Mammograms are taken with _____ cassettes.
A) double screen
B) single screen
C) non-screen
D) both A and B
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Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) Every daily sensitometry strip should be fed into the processor _____.
A) emulsion side down
B) on the same edge of the feed tray
C) with the least exposed end first
D) all of the above
Q2) How often should the mammographer perform the quality control test for screen-film contact?
A) daily
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) semiannually
Q3) The medical physicist is responsible for the _____.
A) monthly equipment check
B) quarterly conference with the radiologist
C) annual artifact evaluation
D) semiannual compression check
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Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) The input phosphor converts _____ to _____.
A) x-rays, electrons
B) light, electrons
C) electrons, light
D) x-rays, light
Q2) The number of light photons emitted within the image intensifier is _____ to the amount of x-ray photons exiting the patient.
A) equal
B) unrelated
C) inversely proportional
D) directly proportional
Q3) The image intensifier improved fluoroscopy by increasing image _____.
A) brightness
B) resolution
C) magnification
D) contrast
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Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Digital fluoroscopy uses at least _____ monitor(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Remasking may be required due to _____.
A) noise artifacts
B) motion artifacts
C) technical factors
D) any of the above
Q3) Hybrid imaging can produce the highest-quality digital fluoroscopy images only if _____.
A) remasking is employed
B) energy subtraction is used
C) patient motion is controlled
D) remasking is completed
Q4) Digital fluoroscopic dose rate is lower than that for continuous analog fluoroscopy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Interventional Radiography
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Q1) During an interventional procedure,_____ must be maintained on the patient.
A) pulse oximetry
B) blood pressure measurement
C) electrocardiography
D) all of the above
Q2) The focal spot used for magnification of small vessels cannot be larger than _____ mm.
A) 0.3
B) 0.4
C) 0.7
D) 1.0
Q3) When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet,a _____ is used.
A) tilting table
B) stepping table
C) sliding tube
D) cine camera
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Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) What is the principal disadvantage of third generation CT scanners?
A) slow speed
B) ring artifacts
C) patient dose
D) poor reconstruction
Q2) The principal drawback of the first-generation CT scanner was the _____.
A) high patient dose
B) long scanning time
C) translate-rotate assembly
D) degree of rotation
Q3) The third generation of CT scanners allowed for further reduction in _____.
A) scanning time
B) scattered radiation.
C) fan-beam width
D) both A and B
Q4) The concentration of scintillation detectors affects the _____ of the CT image.
A) spatial resolution
B) contrast resolution
C) overall density
D) motion artifact
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Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) DNA is located in the _____ of the cell.
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) wall
D) both A and B
Q2) The human body is composed of about 80% _____.
A) carbohydrates
B) protein
C) nucleic acids
D) water
Q3) The tissue in the _____ is more radiosensitive than _____ tissue.
A) bone marrow, skin
B) brain, cornea
C) muscle, gonadal
D) brain, lymphoid
Q4) A codon is a _____.
A) protein molecule
B) cell organelle
C) genetic message
D) somatic cell
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Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) A protracted dose of radiation is given _____.
A) over a long period of time
B) all at one short exposure
C) in a series of separate doses
D) in two large doses
Q2) Tissue is _____ radiosensitive under high oxygen conditions and _____ radiosensitive under hypoxic conditions.
A) less, equally
B) less, more
C) more, less
D) more, equally
Q3) Radiation induced genetic damage follows a _____ dose-response relationship.
A) linear-nonthreshold
B) linear-threshold
C) nonlinear-nonthreshold
D) nonlinear-threshold
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Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) In vitro irradiation of macromolecules causes _____ damage to macromolecules.
A) repairable
B) reversible
C) irreversible
D) both A and B
Q2) The most radiosensitive macromolecule is _____.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
Q3) Radiation damage to DNA can result in _____.
A) cell death
B) malignant disease
C) genetic changes
D) any of the above
Q4) The disassociation of water molecules following irradiation is termed _____.
A) radiolysis
B) ionization
C) cross-linking
D) point mutation
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) A hit to a cell target can occur from a(n)_____ effect.
A) indirect
B) direct
C) oxygen
D) both A and B
Q2) The mean lethal dose for high LET radiation is ______ than after low LET radiation.
A) higher
B) lower
C) the same
D) unknown
Q3) The x-intercept of a low LET cell-survival curve is _______ larger than a similar high LET cell-survival curve.
A) the same
B) larger
C) smaller
D) none of the above
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Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole body dose of _____ Gy or more.
A) 50
B) 20
C) 10
D) 5
Q2) About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of _____ Gy.
A) 5
B) 3.5
C) 1
D) 0.5
Q3) Immediately following a whole body dose of 10 Gy the victim would experience (a)_____.
A) sudden death
B) latent period
C) prodromal symptoms
D) hair loss
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Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Relative risk is _____.
A) expected cases/observed cases
B) observed cases/expected cases
C) observed cases - expected cases
D) expected cases - observed cases
Q2) Radiation induced skin cancer in radiotherapy patients has occurred with _____.
A) a threshold dose-response
B) a nonthreshold dose-response
C) 100% of the patients treated
D) 50% of the patients treated
Q3) Chronic low doses of radiation have _____ effect on fertility.
A) no
B) an increasing
C) a strong
D) a weak
Q4) Radiation-induced leukemia has a latent period of _____ years.
A) 1-2
B) 4-7
C) 5-10
D) 15-20
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Chapter 35: Health Physics
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15680
Sample Questions
Q1) The NCRP publishes annual dose limits for _____ exposure.
A) public
B) occupational
C) prenatal
D) all of the above
Q2) What is the best approach to occupational radiation exposure?
A) Maintain the annual dose limits.
B) Follow the concept of ALARA.
C) Reduce your exposure to half the NCRP dose limits.
D) Wear protective apparel at all times.
Q3) The dose limits established by the NCRP are derived from _____.
A) government laws
B) newspaper articles
C) NCRP research
D) BEIR and NSC reports
Q4) What is the NCRP?
A) National Council of Radiation Protection
B) National Council of Radiology Personnel
C) National Committee on Radiation Prevention
D) National Committee on Random Particles
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15681
Sample Questions
Q1) A quantity that reflects both dose and volume of tissue irradiated is the _____.
A) estimated skin exposure
B) dose area product
C) proportional region
D) rem
Q2) The advantage(s)of using thermoluminescent dosimeters is/are:
I. small size
II. immediate results
III. tissue equivalent response
A) I & II.
B) II only
C) II & III
D) I & III
Q3) Positive beam limitation must be accurate to within _____% of the SID.
A) 10
B) 5
C) 2
D) 1
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Chapter 37: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone marrow dose is measured _____.
A) directly from bone marrow
B) as an estimate from ESE
C) as an estimate from gonadal dose
D) directly from the beam
Q2) The radiation dose monitor most frequently used to measure patient exposure is the
A) film badge
B) G-M meter
C) nomogram
D) thermoluminescent dosimeter
Q3) An estimation of patient dose is reported as _____.
A) entrance skin exposure
B) bone marrow dose
C) gonadal dose
D) any of the above
Q4) Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred way to hold patients who are unable to support themselves is to use a
A) restraining device
B) family member
C) nurse
D) technologist
Q2) The lowest occupational exposure of diagnostic x-ray personnel occurs during
A) CT
B) mammography
C) fluoroscopy
D) both A and B
Q3) Occupational radiation monitoring is required if the individual may get _____ of the recommended dose limit.
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 10%
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