Fundamentals of Medical Imaging
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Medical Imaging introduces students to the essential principles, technologies, and clinical applications underpinning modern medical imaging. The course covers the physics of imaging modalities such as X-ray, computed tomography (CT), ultrasound, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and nuclear medicine, with an emphasis on how these techniques are used to visualize anatomical structures and diagnose disease. Key topics include image formation, instrumentation, safety considerations, image quality, and interpretation basics. By engaging with case studies and current advancements, students develop a comprehensive understanding of the foundational science and real-world utility of medical imaging in healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Radiographic Imaging 5th Edition by Richard R. Carlton
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45 Chapters
1738 Verified Questions
1738 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basic Mathematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) P<sub>1</sub>V<sub>1</sub>/T<sub>1</sub> = P<sub>2</sub>V<sub>2</sub>/T<sub>2</sub>; solve for V<sub>2</sub>.
Answer: P<sub>2</sub>V<sub>2</sub>T<sub>1</sub>/P<sub>1</sub>V<sub>1</sub>
Q2) Mercury (Hg), a metal, is liquid at room temperature.Its density is 13.6 g/cm<sup>3</sup>.If you have 100 mL of Hg, how many grams do you have?
A)0.136
B)1.36 * 10<sup>-3</sup>
C)136
D)1.36 * 10<sup>3</sup>
Answer: D
Q3) P = 2L + 2W; solve for L.
Answer: (P - 2W)/2
Q4) Convert 7/12 to a decimal.
A)0.583
B)1.714
C)19.83
D)84.00
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Radiation Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the frequency of a wave is 1,000 hertz and is traveling at 50,000 m/sec, then its wavelength is
A)0.05 m.
B)0.5 m.
C)5 m.
D)50 m.
Answer: D
Q2) The sum of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called the A)electron number.
B)atomic weight.
C)quantum number.
D)mass number.
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are energy forms EXCEPT
A)sound.
B)thermal.
C)electrical.
D)nuclear.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) If 20 volts of potential difference causes a current of 5 amperes to flow in a parallel circuit, the resistance produced is
A)1/100 ohm.
B)1/4 ohm.
C)4 ohms.
D)100 ohms.
Answer: C
Q2) Electric potential is measured in A)coulombs.
B)joules.
C)volts.
D)ohms.
Answer: C
Q3) Electric current is defined as A)time/charge.
B)charge/time.
C)(charge)(time).
D)charge/time<sup>2</sup>.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Electromagnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An electrical device that is designed to store charge momentarily after charging is a/an
A)battery.
B)capacitor.
C)thyristor.
D)dielectric.
Q2) All of the following are true of transformers EXCEPT:
A)They have no moving parts.
B)They work on the principle of mutual induction.
C)They work most efficiently on pulsating DC.
D)They are designed to regulate voltage.
Q3) Conventional current flows
A)from cathode to anode.
B)from anode to cathode.
C)in either direction.
D)in the same direction as the electron flow.
Q4) List the three ways to induce an electromagnetic field.
Q5) The design of an x-ray tube requires that electron flow through it is in a single direction or phase.If alternating current were supplied to the x-ray tube at high voltage, what would be the result?
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Chapter 5: X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are radiographer-operated controls EXCEPT
A)kVp selection.
B)timer selection.
C)rotor speed.
D)mA selection.
Q2) The kVp control is found between the
A)incoming line and the exposure switch.
B)autotransformer and the timer circuit.
C)exposure switch and the step-up transformer.
D)incoming line and the step-down transformer.
Q3) The diagnostic x-ray range is approximately
A)10 to 1,200 mA.
B)0.001 to 10 seconds.
C)25 to 150 kVp.
D)all of the above
Q4) Nearly all types of x-ray equipment operate from an incoming line of A)210 V.
B)120 AC.
C)120 Hz.
D)210 A.
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Chapter 6: The X-Ray Tube
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only portion of the anode assembly placed outside the vacuum of the envelope is the
A)stator.
B)rotor.
C)rotating disc.
D)molybdenum neck.
Q2) List the three primary functions of the x-ray tube's protective housing.
Q3) The use of the line-focus principle causes a problem known as the ____ effect.
A)space charge
B)quantum mottle
C)anode heel
D)saturation current
Q4) All of the following are related except one.Select the one that is NOT RELATED.
A)a source of electrons
B)a vacuum
C)thermionic emission
D)a large potential difference
Q5) Metal envelope x-ray tubes are gaining in popularity.Explain some key advantages to a metal housing x-ray tube.
Page 8
Q6) Why is a vacuum created in the x-ray tube?
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Chapter 7: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the element molybdenum, the effective energy of characteristic interactions is
A)9 keV.
B)18 keV.
C)42 keV.
D)69 keV.
Q2) energy that has ionizing potential and no mass
A)9.6 keV
B)20 keV
C)binding energy
D)kinetic energy
E)thermal energy
F)electromagnetic energy
G)bremsstrahlung radiation
H)characteristic interactions
Q3) At the end of the characteristic cascade, the ____ shell is missing an electron.
A)innermost
B)K
C)outermost
D)characteristic
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Radiation Protection Concepts and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that influence the effect of exposure to ionizing radiation include
A)the total dose received.
B)the type of radiation.
C)cell sensitivity.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which instrument detects the presence of radiation rather than measuring it?
A)Geiger-Mueller counter
B)scintillation detector
C)ionization chamber instrument
D)thermoluminescent dosimeter
Q3) In air, alpha particles can travel
A)less than 1 mm.
B)5 cm.
C)5 m.
D)5 km.
Q4) All of the following would be classified as field survey devices EXCEPT A)film badge.
B)Geiger-Mueller counter.
C)scintillation detector.
D)ionization chamber instrument.
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Chapter 9: Radiation Protection Procedures for Patients and Personnel
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following technical factors are chosen to minimize patient dose?
A)high kVp/low mAs
B)low kVp/high mAs
C)high kVp/high mAs
D)low kVp/low mAs
Q2) The annual effective dose limit for a 24-year-old radiographer to ionizing radiation is ____ rem.
A)50 mSv.
B)24 rem.
C)5 rem.
D)both a and c
Q3) By design, primary barriers are able to intercept and absorb
A)primary radiation.
B)secondary radiation.
C)the useful beam.
D)all of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Filtration
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Sample Questions
Q1) expression of photon energy
A)compound filter
B)added
C)Thoraeus filter
D)trough filter
E)beryllium
F)aluminum
G)HVL
H)keV
I)1.5 mm aluminum minimum filtration
J)2.5 mm Al
Q2) How many half-value layers must be added to the primary beam to reduce its intensity to less than 20 percent of its original value?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Prime Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) All factors remaining constant, which of the following set of exposure conditions would yield an image with the GREATEST radiographic film density?
A)100 mA, .75 sec, 40" SID
B)300 mA, .25 sec, 44" SID
C)600 mA, 125 ms, 40" SID
D)400 mA, 200 ms, 40" SID
Q2) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 20 mAs at 70 kVp at a distance of 40 inches.A second radiograph is requested at 72 inches.What mAs should be used to produce this radiograph with a 72-inch distance?
Q3) Which of the following sets of exposure factors would best control involuntary motion?
A)100 mA, 0.09 sec
B)300 mA, 30 ms
C)500 mA, 18 ms
D)200 mA, 0.045 sec
Q4) An acceptable radiograph was taken using 12 mAs at 80 kVp at a distance of 72 inches.To reduce the image density by 50%, the new distance should be what?
Q5) Given 5 mAs and a milliamperage of 200, calculate the exposure time.
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Chapter 12: X-Ray Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an electron from an outer shell fills a vacancy in an inner shell,
A)the total energy of the electron increases.
B)the electron increases its mass.
C)a photon is released.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following interactions with matter results in a radiograph with a loss of radiographic image contrast?
A)Compton scattering
B)coherent scatter
C)photoelectric interactions
D)photodisintegration
Q3) Compton scattering
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
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Chapter 13: Minimizing Patient Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the choices below, the combination of exposure factors that would minimize patient dose would be
A)24 mAs, 80 kVp, 8"x10" field size, 44" SID
B)12 mAs, 92 kVp, 8"x10" field size, 40" SID
C)6 mAs, 106 kVp, 8"x10" field size, 44" SID
D)24 mAs, 80 kVp, 10"x12" field size, 40" SID
Q2) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure for a 15-cm AP abdomen produced at 70 kVp, 20 mA, and a SID of 40 in (100 cm), if 70 kVp = 2.5 mR/mA?
Q3) lowers dose to the kidneys
A)60 kVp
B)shaped contact
C)focal spot size
D)distance (SID)
E)44-48 inches
F)AP supine abdomen position
G)oblique projection of the abdomen
H)18 mAs @ 70 kVp
Q4) What is the approximate entrance skin exposure in mR for the fluoroscopic examination of the stomach performed for 4.5 minutes at 110 kVp at 1.7 R/min?
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Chapter 14: Vision and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) occurs when intense, bright light floods the eye and reduces contrast perception
A)rods
B)veil glare
C)retina
D)Mach effect
E)scotopic vision
F)cones
G)edge enhancement
H)Grenz rays
Q2) The human body is
A)a three-dimensional object.
B)composed of countless structural lines.
C)composed of anatomy always in motion.
D)all of the above
Q3) Rods and cones respond to
A)visible light energy.
B)magnetic energy.
C)kinetic energy.
D)gamma energy.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Beam Restriction
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the volume of irradiated tissue ____, the amount of scatter produced ____.
A)increases; increases B)increases; decreases C)decreases; increases D)decreases; decreases
Q2) Penumbra is a geometric unsharpness around the periphery of an image.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the kilovoltage increases, the percentage of x-rays that undergo ____ interactions will increase.
A)photoelectric
B)coherent
C)Compton
D)bremsstrahlung
Q4) Bone absorbs more radiation and produces more scatter than soft tissue. A)True B)False
Q5) Lead masks may serve as beam restrictors.
A)True
B)False
17
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Chapter 16: The Patient As a Beam Emitter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary source of radiation exposure for occupational personnel is due to A)Compton scatter.
B)classical scatter
C)photoelectric effect.
D)coherent scatter.
Q2) Bone produces less image receptor ____ because it attenuates the x-ray beam more than soft tissue does.
A)detail
B)contrast
C)exposure
D)distortion
Q3) Which of the following elements would attenuate a greater percentage of the x-ray beam?
A)hydrogen
B)calcium
C)oxygen
D)carbon
Q4) Subject distortion can be reduced by accurately positioning the patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Pathology Problem
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally speaking a ____________loss in bone substance must take place before it is detected radiographically.
A)5-10%
B)20-30%
C)50%
D)75%
Q2) Which of the following pathologies is not considered an additive condition?
A)atelectasis
B)pneumonia
C)emphysema
D)empyema
Q3) require more exposure technique
A)additive conditions
B)Paget's disease
C)gout
D)hyperparathyroidism
E)empyema
F)destructive conditions
G)atrophy
H)pneumonia
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Chapter 18: The Grid
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Q1) The use of a radiographic grid requires
A)attention to central ray angulation.
B)an awareness of the SID.
C)an increase in exposure factors.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which grid would most effectively reduce scatter?
A)6:1
B)8:1
C)12:1
D)15:1
Q3) Photons that pass through the body unaffected produce
A)scatter radiation.
B)radiographic contrast.
C)secondary radiation.
D)radiographic distortion.
Q4) As the lead content of a grid increases,
A)the contrast improvement factor (K) decreases.
B)the ability of the grid to remove scatter increases.
C)the contrast decreases.
D)exposure to the image receptor increases.
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Chapter 19: Radiographic Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) The impurity added to the crystal lattice is called the A)silver ion.
B)gold-silver dust.
C)sensitivity speck.
D)hardener.
Q2) The complete construction of diagnostic radiographic film includes
A)a polyester base.
B)an adhesive material.
C)an emulsion.
D)all of the above
Q3) The crystal lattice is bound together with which type of chemical bond?
A)ionic
B)covalent
C)halide
D)hydrogen
Q4) Emulsion is composed of gelatin and A)silver halide crystals.
B)silver salts.
C)photosensitive crystals.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 20: Film Processing
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Q1) Reducing agents ____ positive silver ions.
A)neutralize
B)develop
C)fix
D)activate
Q2) The most common cause of developer contamination is
A)roller drag.
B)crossover.
C)splashing.
D)drying.
Q3) a type of silver recovery technology
A)safelight
B)recirculation system
C)electrolytic
D)clearing time
E)fixer
F)crossover rack
G)solvent
H)replenishment
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Film Sensitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shoulder of the D log E curve is controlled by A)phenidone.
B)hydroquinone.
C)sodium carbonate.
D)potassium bromide.
Q2) Film may experience fog in the form of A)heat.
B)light.
C)radiation.
D)all of the above
Q3) Film sensitivity is affected by the A)size of the silver halide crystals.
B)number of sensitivity specks.
C)thickness of the emulsion layer.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Contrast is characterized on the H&D curve by A)how close the toe is to the origin.
B)the slope of the straight line.
C)how close the shoulder is to D<sub>max</sub>.
D)the density at a given exposure value.
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Chapter 22: Intensifying Screens and Film Screen
Combinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Until the 1970s, the most commonly utilized phosphor in radiography was A)calcium tungstate.
B)rare earths.
C)gadolinium.
D)lanthanum.
Q2) Poor screen/film contact can produce
A)increased radiographic film density.
B)loss of resolution.
C)loss of contrast.
D)decreased screen efficiency.
Q3) A film screen system that possesses high latitude will A)produce high contrast images.
B)require precise exposure techniques.
C)produce images with many gray shades.
D)all of the above
Q4) Paired intensifying screens are typically used with A)dental film.
B)mammographic film.
C)single-emulsion film.
D)duplitized film.
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Chapter 23: Digital Radiography
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Q1) All of the following are true of pixel pitch EXCEPT:
A)It is defined as the distance between pixels.
B)It is not related to spatial resolution.
C)It is determined by the size of the DEL in DR systems.
D)It is measured from the center-to-center of the pixels.
Q2) An eight-bit word is called a A)byte.
B)RAM.
C)bit.
D)ROM.
Q3) Each pixel in a digital display matrix is located according to its A)electronic address.
B)voxel position.
C)DICOM address.
D)FOV.
Q4) When using CR technology, it is important to remember that
A)the IP is extrasensitive to exposure after the initial x-ray exposure.
B)the IP will lose about 25% of its signal in 8 hours if not processed.
C)the IP is very sensitive to scatter, making grids very important.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 24: Picture Archiving and Communication Systems
Pacs
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Q1) image displayed on a flat panel monitor
A)WAN
B)LAN
C)BMI
D)soft copy
E)DICOM
F)hard copy
G)SOP
H)LCD
Q2) All of the following would be acceptable HIPAA-compliant actions EXCEPT
A)eliminating all patient identifiers on an image used for a classroom presentation.
B)keeping a patient's image on a display monitor as a school tour group visits the department. All patient identifiers have been removed from the image display.
C)asking colleagues for advise on positioning as you complete images on a severe motor vehicle accident.
D)discussing the results of a patient's mammogram with a colleague as you ride the elevator to lunch.
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26
Chapter 25: The Imaging Process
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Q1) Which phase of the imaging process includes control of factors such as density, contrast, recorded detail, and distortion?
A)image display
B)image processing
C)image analysis
D)image acquisition
Q2) combination of inter-related factors that compound the problem
A)narrowing the search
B)pyramid problem
C)image processing
D)wide acceptance limits
E)image acquisition
F)acceptable limits
G)narrow acceptance limits
H)image analysis
Q3) The acceptance limit curve is often skewed to the ____ side.
A)low-contrast
B)high-contrast
C)light
D)none of the above
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Chapter 26: Densityir Exposure
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Q1) increasing kVp from 85 to 98 kVp
A)mAs
B)kVp
C)density maintenance formula
D)radiographic grids
E)15% rule
F)anode heel effect
G)focal spot size
H)recorded detail
I)EI value
J)visibility of detail
Q2) Which generator produces the least amount of radiographic density per mAs?
A)single-phase, 2-pulse
B)three-phase, 6-pulse
C)three-phase, 12-pulse
D)a high-frequency generator
Q3) If 60 kVp, 100 mA, and 0.25 sec.produce a satisfactory radiograph, what mAs was used?
Q4) If a satisfactory chest radiograph is obtained at 72 in.with a patient exposure of 10 R, what will the exposure be if the distance is reduced to 40 in.?
28
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Chapter 27: Contrast
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Q1) The total amount of irradiated material is a function of
A)tissue thickness and body position.
B)body part thickness and area of exposure.
C)field size and anode angle.
D)body position and focal spot size.
Q2) the same as low contrast
A)average gradient
B)long scale contrast
C)Compton interactions
D)low contrast
E)short scale contrast
F)high contrast
G)photoelectric interactions
H)subject contrast
Q3) What should you expect to occur with a decrease in kVp?
A)longer scale contrast
B)more Compton interactions
C)lower contrast
D)more photoelectric interactions
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Recorded Detail
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Q1) Which radiograph exhibits the best detail?
A)a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in.
B)a PA chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.
C)an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 40 in.
D)an AP chest radiograph for evaluation of the heart at 72 in.
Q2) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance, and OID of 2 in.
Q3) quantification of an imaging system's fidelity
A)PSF
B)quantum noise
C)resolution increase
D)MTF
E)MF
F)LSF
G)aliasing
H)loss of visibility of detail
Q4) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 2.0 mm focal spot, at a 72 in.distance, and OID of 1 in.
Q5) Calculate the penumbra for an image taken with a 1.0 mm focal spot, at a 40 in.distance, and OID of 2 in.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Distortion
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Q1) If an object is measured as 4 in.in diameter on the image and 4 in.from the film, what is the actual size of the object if the SID is 40 in.?
Q2) Proper alignment is achieved when the central ray is ____ to the part and ____ to the image receptor.
A)perpendicular; parallel
B)parallel; perpendicular
C)perpendicular; perpendicular
D)parallel; parallel
Q3) The ____ the SID, the ____ the magnification.
A)greater; larger
B)greater; smaller
C)lesser; smaller
D)SID has no effect on magnification.
Q4) Calculate the magnification factor when the SID is 40 in.and the SOD is 25 in.
Q5) Large patients receive a greater exposure than small patients because their A)SOD is decreased.
B)OID is increased.
C)entrance skin surface is closer to the source.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 30: The Art of Image Critique
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Q1) As medical imaging continues to adopt digital imaging technologies, one of the greatest challenges for technologists regarding image analysis will be
A)clearly identifying the problem as a photographic vs. geometric problem with detail.
B)identifying possible causes that may be electronic in nature.
C)determining if post-processing algorithms are accurate.
D)all of the above
Q2) image receptor alignment problem
A)improper patient preparation
B)an S# of 50
C)film-screen contact problem
D)consistently low contrast images
E)image cut-off along the long dimension of a cassette
F)presence of grid lines on image
G)white specks on final images
H)hypothesis
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32
Chapter 31: Quality Management
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Q1) used to check high frequency generator timer
A)synchronous motor spinning top
B)2% of SID
C)DQE
D)MQSA
E)12 inches
F)S:N ratio
G)exposure reproducibility
H)15 inches
Q2) A common device to measure display monitor quality and characteristics is a/an
A)screen contact test tool.
B)kVp test tool.
C)ABC resolution phantom.
D)SMPTE pattern.
Q3) When testing collimator accuracy, an SID error of ____ is allowed.
A)20%
B)10%
C)2%
D)0%
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Exposure Systems and Charts
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Q1) When AEC systems are used, the selection of ____ is eliminated.
A)mA
B)exposure time
C)kVp
D)detectors
Q2) Fixed kVp systems tend to decrease patient dose.
A)True B)False
Q3) Fixed kVp systems produce more scatter radiation than other systems. A)True B)False
Q4) When establishing technique charts, clinical trials precede phantom testing. A)True B)False
Q5) The device used to measure part thickness is called a A)collimator.
B)caliper.
C)protractor. D)goniometer.
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Chapter 33: Automatic Exposure Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) When more than one ionization chamber is used, the signal is
A)averaged.
B)muted.
C)multiplied.
D)all of the above
Q2) Older technologists may still refer to it.
A)phototiming
B)minimum response time
C)backup mAs
D)underexposed image
E)overexposed image
F)density controls
G)all three detectors
H)center detector only
Q3) The backup time of most AECs is set at ____ of the anticipated manual exposure time.
A)10%
B)50%
C)100%
D)150%
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Chapter 34: Exposure Conversion Problems
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Q1) A satisfactory radiograph is produced using the variable kVp theory.The part measuring 8 cm and 55 kVp was used.To maintain exposure, what kVp should be used if the part measures 10 cm?
Q2) An exposure was made using 200 mA, 0.05 second exposure and 75 kVp.Each of the following changes will function to double radiographic image density, EXCEPT:
A)Change to 0.1 sec exposure.
B)Change to 86 kVp.
C)Change to 20 mAs.
D)Change to 100 mA.
Q3) The relationship between receptor speed and exposure mAs is
A)inverse.
B)indirect and linear.
C)direct.
D)direct and linear.
Q4) A radiograph is produced using 10 mAs at a 40 in.distance.Calculate the new distance if 25 mAs is used.
Q5) A radiograph is produced at 10 mAs with a single-phase power source and high frequency generator.The film is repeated using a single-phase, 2-pulse generator.Calculate the new mAs.
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Chapter 35: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) Which grid type would permit wide exposure and centering latitude and would therefore be preferred for mobile radiography?
A)6:1
B)8:1
C)10:1
D)12:1
Q2) During mobile radiography, the radiographer must achieve maximum distance primarily from the A)patient.
B)mobile unit.
C)image receptor.
D)x-ray tube.
Q3) A common cause for repeat examinations in mobile radiography is due to A)equipment reliability.
B)angulation of grids and grid-off.
C)inaccurate SID measurements.
D)low image contrast.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Fluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cassette-based spot filming has been replaced by A)digital photospots.
B)CCD chips.
C)dry laser films.
D)CR cassettes.
Q2) The fluoroscopic x-ray tube is different from a radiographic tube in that the fluoro tube
A)has high heat loading potential, as it operates at very high milliamperes.
B)cannot have an SOD less than 15 inches.
C)uses a water-cooled, stationary anode with focussing lenses.
D)uses manual collimation to limit the field size to the receptor.
Q3) Electrostatic lenses are used to accelerate and focus
A)light photons.
B)x-ray photons.
C)electrons.
D)scattered photons.
Q4) What is the total brightness gain for an image intensification tube with a minification gain of 25 and a flux gain of 50?
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Chapter 37: Tomography and Digital Tomosynthesis
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Q1) higher tomographic contrast with poor resolution
A)zonogram
B)panoramic tomography
C)40 degrees
D)focal plane
E)exposure amplitude
F)10 degrees or more
G)section interval
H)maximum blur
Q2) During tomography, the object to be examined is placed at the A)tomographic arc.
B)fulcrum.
C)exposure arc.
D)image receptor level.
Q3) Which tomographic motion produces the thinnest section?
A)8 degrees
B)12 degrees
C)25 degrees
D)40 degrees
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Chapter 38: Mammography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of mammography machines utilize a ____ inch SID.
A)24 to 30
B)30 to 36
C)36 to 40
D)60 to 72
Q2) optimizes mammography services nationwide
A)beryllium
B)tungsten
C)optimum kVp range
D)magnification imaging
E)microcalcifications
F)molybdenum
G)17-20 kev
H)Companie Generale de Radiographique
I)mammography SID
J)developed a dry process for mammography
K)rhodium
L)MQSA
M)NEXT
N)expected to become the mammography gold standard
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Chapter 39: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly measured anatomical structures in DXA scanning are the A)wrist and shoulder.
B)ankle and knee.
C)pelvis and spine.
D)hip and spine.
Q2) destroy bone
A)fan-beam DXA
B)osteopenia
C)WHO
D)SPA
E)osteoblasts
F)osteoporosis
G)pencil-beam DXA
H)osteoclasts
I)NEXT
J)small stature
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Chapter 40: Vascular Imaging Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of heat an anode can tolerate during a fluoroscopic exposure is known as ____ loading ability.
A)short-term
B)continuous-heat
C)pulsed fluoro
D)intermittent fluoro
Q2) Digital image receptors used in angiography
A)require a CCD for image capture.
B)are composed of selenium detector material.
C)acquire the images digitally in the detector material.
D)permit post-processing of images, unlike analog image intensifier detectors.
Q3) How many heat units are generated by a series of 10 exposures using 75 kVp, 300 mA, 0.15 sec.on a high frequency unit?
Q4) What type of image acquisition is used mainly for cardiac catheterization?
A)digital angiography
B)digital subtraction angiography
C)digital cineradiography
D)cineangiographic imaging
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Chapter 41: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The range of CT numbers or Hounsfield Units varies from
A)100 to 300.
B)-100 to +300.
C)-1000 to +3000.
D)1000 to +3000.
Q2) The CT radiation beam is collimated
A)at the tube exit.
B)at the detector entrance.
C)pre-patient and post-patient.
D)all of the above
Q3) To achieve coronal or sagittal sections,
A)the gantry is repositioned.
B)the patient is repositioned.
C)reconfiguration software is implemented.
D)none of the above
Q4) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 1.5 is being used, what is the section thickness?
Q5) If the table is moving at 5 mm/sec., and a pitch of 0.8 is being used, what is the section thickness?
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Chapter 42: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) The time required after precessing spins have aligned at an angle to the external field due to an RF pulse losing 63% of their coherence is
A)spin density (\(\rho\)).
B)spin-spin relaxation time (T<sub>2</sub>).
C)echo time (TE).
D)spin-lattice relaxation time (T<sub>1</sub>).
Q2) The RF signal strength determines A)brightness.
B)field strength.
C)section thickness.
D)spatial resolution.
Q3) The size of the tissue voxel determines A)brightness.
B)field strength.
C)section thickness.
D)spatial resolution.
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44
Chapter 43: Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to achieve nuclear stability, a radionuclide may emit
A)beta particles.
B)gamma photons.
C)positrons.
D)all of the above
Q2) The time it takes for a radioactive nucleus to decay to 1/2 its original activity level is termed its
A)half-value layer.
B)half-life.
C)inverse decay quotient.
D)decay scheme.
Q3) In terms of the regulation of radionuclides and nuclear medicine facility, if a particular state conducts the inspections and enforces the NRC regulations in place of the NRC, the state is considered a/an
A)compliant state.
B)coop - state.
C)agreement state.
D)NRC dependent state.
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Chapter 44: Radiation Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are related EXCEPT:
A)Spare healthy tissues.
B)Preserve surrounding tissue function.
C)Eradicate the malignancy.
D)Prolong side effects as tissues recover.
Q2) Proton radiotherapy is particularly beneficial because of
A)protons depositing their total energy within the target tissue.
B)the positive charge of protons.
C)the minimal scatter radiation produced with protons.
D)all of the above
Q3) Radiotherapy treatments
A)are treated as prescriptions.
B)require a physician's order.
C)start with a consultation.
D)all of the above
Q4) The total tissue volume irradiated takes into account the
A)patient's body motions, such as respiration.
B)the zone of tissue surrounding the malignant mass.
C)size and dimension of the malignant mass.
D)all of the above
46
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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Medical Sonography
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Q1) unit of acoustic impedance
A)B-mode
B)rayls
C)damping material
D)decibels
E)Doppler
F)acoustic coupler
G)PZT
H)matching layer
I)M-mode
J)Huygen's principle
Q2) In order to produce the best possible image, there must be a
A)similarity of acoustic impedances.
B)angled relationship between the beam direction and tissue.
C)difference of acoustic impedances and a perpendicular angle of the beam and tissue interface.
D)identical tissue interface.
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