Fundamentals of Medical Assisting Final Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Medical Assisting introduces students to the core principles, skills, and responsibilities essential for entry-level medical assistants in healthcare settings. The course covers medical terminology, anatomy and physiology, basic clinical procedures such as taking vital signs and administering injections, and routine administrative tasks including scheduling, patient communication, and maintaining medical records. Students will also learn about infection control, patient privacy regulations (such as HIPAA), and ethical standards in healthcare. Emphasis is placed on developing competence, professionalism, and effective communication to support physicians and ensure quality patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 8th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1262 Verified Questions
1262 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are included on a release of medical information form except
A) The specific information to be released
B) The need for the information
C) The patient's signature
D) The expiration date of the release form
E) Medications being taken by the patient
Answer: E
Q2) A copy of the patient's emergency department report is sent to the
A) Patient's insurance company
B) Patient
C) Patient's family physician
D) Laboratory
Answer: C
Q3) The purpose of the tab on a file folder is to
A) Hold documents in place in the folder
B) Identify the contents of the folder
C) Prevent the folder from being misfiled
D) Keep the folder closed when not in use
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first thing you should do if a cut on your bare hand accidentally comes in contact with a patient's blood?
A) Report the incident to the physician
B) Wash your hands with soap and water
C) Apply gloves
D) Obtain a hepatitis B vaccination
Answer: B
Q2) What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
A) Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
B) Coughs and sneezes from an infected person
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Mosquitoes
Answer: A
Q3) The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to
A) Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B) Protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace
C) Reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases
D) Prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should all organic matter be removed from an article before it is disinfected?
A) To prevent the article from rusting
B) To prevent stains on the article
C) To allow the disinfectant to reach all parts of the article
D) To ensure the proper working condition of the article
Answer: C
Q2) High-level disinfection is a process that
A) Destroys all pathogenic microorganisms
B) Destroys all microorganisms and spores
C) Destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli
D) Destroys all microorganisms but not spores
Answer: D
Q3) The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with
A) A damp cloth
B) A disinfectant
C) A low-sudsing detergent
D) A scouring pad
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of breathing may occur with a panic attack?
A) Wheezing
B) Bradypnea
C) Hyperventilation
D) Hypoxia
Q2) The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is
A) 95% to 99%
B) 90% to 95%
C) 85% to 90%
D) 75% to 85%
Q3) During exhalation
A) Oxygen is taken into the lungs
B) The diaphragm descends
C) The lungs expand
D) Carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs
Q4) Which of the following does not affect the SpO<sub>2</sub> reading?
A) Dark fingernail polish
B) Darkly pigmented skin
C) Bruises
D) Artificial fingernails
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through, complete
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q2) Which of the following is an example of percussion?
A) Measuring pulse
B) Testing reflexes with a rubber hammer
C) Testing hearing with a tuning fork
D) Listening to breath sounds
Q3) Sims' position is used to perform which of the following?
A) Breast examination
B) Flexible sigmoidoscopy
C) Pelvic examination
D) Urinary catheterization
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) After performing an ear instillation, the patient is instructed to lie on the unaffected side to
A) Avoid pressure on the tympanic membrane
B) Allow complete distribution of the medication
C) Allow drainage of excess medication
D) Prevent dizziness
Q2) Instrument used to measure
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A short leg walker can be used to assist in the healing of
A) Torn ligaments in the knee
B) A stress fracture of the tibia
C) A fracture of the femur
D) Bursitis
Q2) How long does it usually take for a fracture to heal?
A) 2 to 4 weeks
B) 4 to 6 weeks
C) 10 to 12 weeks
D) 6 months
Q3) After removing a cast, it is normal for the extremity to appear
A) Thin and flabby
B) Red and swollen
C) Slightly deformed
D) Shorter than the other extremity
Q4) After immersing a patient's foot in a hot soak, the medical assistant should
A) Ask the patient how the temperature feels
B) Increase the temperature of the water
C) Add crushed ice
D) Instruct the patient to wiggle his or her toes
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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100 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Birth
A)colp/o
B)dys-
C)ecto-
D)endo-
E)gravid/o
F)gynec/o
G)men/o
H)nat/o
I)-ology
J)-orrhea
K)-scopy
Q2) The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination
A) Once each week
B) Once each month
C) Every 2 months
D) Twice each year
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following injection sites should be used to administer IM injections to infants and young children?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Vastus lateralis
C) Deltoid
D) Ventrogluteal
Q2) Which of the following indicates the proper cuff size has been selected for a pediatric patient?
A) The cuff fits snugly on the child's arm.
B) The cuff is positioned at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow.
C) The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% to 100% of the child's arm.
D) The bladder is centered over the antecubital space.
Q3) The most important use of growth charts is to
A) Assess the child's individual growth pattern
B) Compare the child's growth with that of other children of the same age
C) Identify children with prehypertension
D) Identify children with type 2 diabetes
E) All of the above
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11
Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of sutures is to
A) Prevent inflammation
B) Approximate a wound
C) Prevent infection of a wound
D) Promote the formation of scar tissue
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma?
A) Asymmetric
B) Irregular border
C) Color varies from one area to another
D) Diameter larger than a pencil eraser
E) All of the above
Q3) What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process?
A) A scab forms.
B) Scar tissue forms.
C) New skin is generated.
D) Bleeding is controlled.
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Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needle lengths is used to administer a subcutaneous injection?
A) 3/8 inch
B) 5/8 inch
C) 1 inch
D) 1 1/2 inches
Q2) What is the term for the administration of whole blood or blood products through the IV route?
A) Transfusion
B) Enteral nutrition
C) Infusion
D) Effusion
Q3) Induration measuring 5 mm resulting from a Mantoux test in an individual with no known risk factors indicates
A) A negative reaction
B) A doubtful reaction
C) A positive reaction
D) An invalid reaction
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Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves?
A) Segment
B) Baseline
C) Interval
D) Polarization line
Q2) Where is chest lead V<sub>5</sub> located?
A) Midway between V<sub>4</sub> and V<sub>6</sub>
B) At the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line
C) At the horizontal level of V<sub>4</sub> at the left anterior axillary line
D) At the horizontal level of V<sub>4</sub> at the left midaxillary line
Q3) Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to
A) Assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities
B) Evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain
C) Detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature
D) Assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker
E) All of the above
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests may be performed if the fecal occult blood test result is positive?
A) MRI
B) Colonoscopy
C) Upper GI x-ray study
D) Colposcopy
E) All of the above
Q2) Testicular cancer occurs most commonly
A) Between age 15 and 34
B) Between age 30 and 50
C) After age 40
D) After age 50
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer except
A) Difficulty in urinating
B) Painful urination
C) Weak urinary flow
D) Thick, yellow discharge from the penis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) An IVP is a radiograph of the
A) Kidneys, ureters, and bladder
B) Brain and spinal cord
C) Liver
D) Gallbladder and common bile duct
Q2) What is a lateral radiographic view?
A) The x-rays are directed from one side of the body to the other side.
B) The x-rays are directed from the front to the back of the body.
C) The patient is positioned at an angle.
D) The x-rays are directed from the back to the front of the body.
Q3) Why must gas be removed from the colon before a lower GI radiographic study?
A) It shows up as confusing shadows on the radiograph.
B) It obscures the image of the colon.
C) It makes the examination uncomfortable for the patient.
D) It results in blurring of the radiograph.
Q4) Who discovered x-rays?
A) Radcliffe
B) Roentgen
C) Pasteur
D) Fleming
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detection of abnormal cells is known as
A) Hematology
B) Immunology and blood banking
C) Clinical chemistry
D) Cytology
E) Histology
Q2) What is the name for a control that is built into the test system?
A) External control
B) Standard
C) Proficiency control
D) Internal control
Q3) A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test) is allowed to consume
A) Baked chicken
B) Water
C) Diet soda
D) Orange juice
E) None of the above
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Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Night
A)an-
B)bilirubin/o
C)dys-
D)glyc/o
E)hemat/o
F)keton/o
G)noct/i
H)olig/o
I)-osis
J)poly
K)py/o
L)ur/o
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result?
A) Trace
B) Small
C) 2 +
D) 500 mg/dL
E) Positive
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your physician has requested an electrolyte profile on a patient. The laboratory directory indicates this test requires 4 mL of serum. Which of the following tubes should be used to collect the specimen?
A) A 4-mL SST
B) A 7-mL SST
C) A 10-mL SST
D) A 4-mL lavender-stoppered tube
E) A 7-mL lavender-stoppered tube
Q2) Which of the following are characteristics of the brachial artery (located in the antecubital space)?
A) Pulsates when palpated
B) Has a more elastic and thicker wall than a vein
C) If punctured, blood is bright red in color
D) If punctured, patient feels more than usual amount of pain
E) All of the above
Q3) After drawing a blood specimen for an electrolyte profile, the next step is to
A) Centrifuge the specimen for 10 minutes
B) Allow the specimen to stand in an upright position for 30 to 45 minutes
C) Pipet the serum and place it in a transfer tube
D) Place the tube in the refrigerator
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Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A low hemoglobin reading may occur with all of the following except A) Anemia
B) Polycythemia
C) Leukemia
D) Severe hemorrhaging
Q2) In an adult, red blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow of the
A) Ribs
B) Sternum
C) Skull
D) Ends of the long bones of the limbs
E) All of the above
Q3) Mrs. Nelson has a white blood cell count of 14,500. This is considered to be
A) Within the reference range
B) Above the reference range
C) Below the reference range
D) An inaccurate test result
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of glucose in the body is to
A) Maintain healthy epithelial tissue
B) Provide energy for the body
C) Make bones and teeth hard
D) Assist in normal blood clotting
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of an oral glucose tolerance test?
A) To assist in the diagnosis of pre-diabetes
B) To assist in the diagnosis of hypoglycemia
C) To assist in the diagnosis of diabetes
D) To monitor insulin dosage
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted through
A) Coughing and sneezing
B) Contaminated food
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Saliva by direct oral contact
E) All of the above
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Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as
A) An infectious disease
B) A contagious disease
C) An acute disease
D) Droplet infection
Q2) Which of the following represents a violation of technique when collecting a throat specimen?
A) Using a sterile swab to collect the specimen
B) Touching the inside of the mouth with the swab
C) Using a rotating motion to collect the specimen
D) Labeling the specimen container
Q3) A throat specimen is collected to perform tests to assist in the diagnosis of
A) Streptococcal sore throat
B) Tetanus
C) Staphylococcal food poisoning
D) Infectious mononucleosis
E) All of the above
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A) Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B) Chest pain
C) Shortness of breath
D) Nausea
Q2) What type of shock is caused by a reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic?
A) Psychogenic
B) Status asthmaticus
C) Anaphylactic
D) Allergenic
Q3) In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain?
A) Tonic-clonic
B) Partial
C) Generalized
D) Status epilepticus
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