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Fundamentals of Marketing introduces students to the core concepts, strategies, and practices involved in modern marketing. It covers the nature and scope of marketing, market research, consumer behavior, segmentation, targeting, positioning, and the 4Ps product, price, place, and promotion. The course emphasizes the development and implementation of effective marketing plans, ethical considerations, and the impact of digital technologies on marketing strategies. Through real-world examples, case studies, and practical exercises, students gain a foundational understanding of how organizations create value for customers and achieve competitive advantage in diverse markets.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing 2016 18th Edition by William
M. Pride O. C. Ferrell
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20 Chapters
4072 Verified Questions
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Q1) The actual physical production of goods is a marketing activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the forces of the marketing environment?
A)The forces are relatively stable over time and are interrelated with one another.
B)There are few overlapping aspects of these forces; therefore, a change in one is unlikely to result in a change in another.
C)The various forces ensure that the marketing environment will remain fairly certain in the future.
D)These forces change dramatically over time, but a change in one force is unlikely to impact another force.
E)The forces change dramatically and quickly, and a change in one force is likely to affect the other forces.
Answer: E
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Q1) In response to the increase in demand for organic foods, Wegmans, Inc., a regional supermarket, recently created organic food departments within their large stores. The creation of these departments was a result of
A)a core competency
B)a market opportunity
C)its sales orientation
D)its distribution plan
E)a competitive advantage
Answer: B
Q2) Marketing managers at Consolidated Equipment Corporation are involved in establishing marketing performance standards, evaluating performance, and reducing the differences between actual and desired performance. These marketing managers are engaged in
A)the systems design process.
B)strategic performance evaluation.
C)marketing systems design.
D)the marketing audit.
E)marketing evaluation.
Answer: B
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Q1) Consumer confidence and willingness to spend begins to increase during periods of ____, and marketers must remain very flexible to make the necessary adjustments.
A)depression
B)prosperity
C)recovery
D)growth
E)recession
Answer: C
Q2) In its advertisements for Bud Light beer, Anheuser-Busch has decided to include a statement saying "Know when to say when." This is an example of which one of the following types of regulatory forces affecting marketing efforts?
A)Federal regulation
B)State regulation
C)City regulation
D)Self-regulation
E)Social regulation
Answer: D
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Q1) Marketing ethics
A)refers to laws and regulations that govern marketing.
B)refers to principles and standards that define acceptable conduct in marketing.
C)maximizes an organization's positive impact and minimizes its negative impact on society.
D)is most important for advertising agencies.
E)applies well-defined rules for appropriate marketing behavior.
Q2) If a person is rewarded for developing a deceptive advertisement, he or she probably will not engage in such behavior in the future.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following employees is most responsible for setting the ethical tone for the entire marketing organization?
A)Marketing manager
B)Marketing employee
C)Product manager
D)Chief executive officer
E)Vice president of marketing research
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Q1) An offshoot of mail surveys, ____ have shortcomings because the people who participate in them generally have higher incomes and education levels than the general population.
A)purchase diaries
B)telephone surveys
C)online surveys
D)focus-group interviews
E)immediate feedback forms
Q2) Compare reliability and validity. Why are they important considerations in marketing research?
Q3) The final step in the marketing research process is to assess the ethicality of the data collection phase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hypothesis being tested determines the general data-gathering approach to use.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How can companies use information technology as a competitive advantage?
Page 7
Q6) Why would a personal interview be favored over a mail or telephone survey?
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Q1) Refer to Scenario 6.2. If a GE Transportation researcher analyzes monthly sales data for a four-year time frame, looking for periodic fluctuations, the researcher is doing a ____ analysis.
A)trend
B)seasonal
C)cycle
D)random factor
E)regression
Q2) The process of dividing a total market into market groups because people within each group have relatively similar product needs is called A)segmentation.
B)diversification.
C)target marketing.
D)concentration.
E)customization.
Q3) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using executive judgment in forecasting company sales.
Q4) Why do marketers rely heavily on demographic characteristics when segmenting consumer markets?
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Q1) Situational influences can be classified into five different categories including physical surroundings, social surroundings, personality, purchase reason, and time perspective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Motives always operate at a conscious level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Not all the behavioral patterns and values attributed to specific subcultures apply to every member of that specific subculture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The actual act of purchase is the second stage of the consumer buying decision process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A social class is a closed aggregate of individuals with similar social ranking.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss how reference groups and opinion leaders influence purchase behavior.
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Q1) Pi Delta Mu sorority purchases food in bulk to feed its members living in the house. This means it is part of a(n) ____ market.
A)producer
B)consumer
C)reseller
D)institutional
E)government
Q2) Refer to Scenario 8.2. Given the type of business market in which Precision Brake is currently operating, which group would it be least likely to sell to?
A)Producers
B)Governments
C)Retailers
D)Consumers
E)Institutions
Q3) The fourth stage in the business buying decision process is that of searching for products and suppliers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the various stages of the business buying decision process.
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Q1) _____________ are companies that were started with the knowledge and resources to compete in a global marketplace. They are usually small technology companies that quickly establish themselves in international markets. They reach a point where as much as ________ percent of their sales come from locations outside the United States.
A)Multinationals; 80
B)International enterprises; 60
C)Global techs; 50
D)Global tigers; 75
E)Born globals; 70
Q2) The U.S. and Japanese economies are more integrated than are the U.S. and Canadian economies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) NAFTA eventually eliminates all tariffs on goods produced and traded between the United States, Mexico, and Brazil.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what ways can businesses become involved in international marketing activities?
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Q1) Explain the ethical issues associated with digital media.
Q2) Explain the concept "push-pull" when referring to digital marketing as a new distribution channel.
Q3) Sony launched an online campaign that prompted people to visit the Sony website. In order to evaluate the success of the campaign, Sony should A)compare sales before and after the campaign was launched.
B)monitor web traffic during the campaign.
C)monitor the website to see if web traffic increased after the launch of the campaign. D)compare demand before and after the campaign was launched.
E)measure sales and profitability after the campaign was launched.
Q4) As the Internet and digital communication technologies have advanced, marketers are able to target markets more precisely.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Attempts to deceive consumers into releasing personal information online is referred to as online fraud.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the most protectable brand type as determined by a series of court decisions?
A)Generic
B)Suggestive
C)Descriptive
D)Arbitrary
E)Fanciful
Q2) You are the assistant manager for consumer product adoption strategies. Your job requires you to manage the third stage of the five-stage product adoption process. Which one of the following statements is true in regards to your job focus?
A)You should focus on making sure buyers are aware of your product's existence.
B)You should focus on encouraging the current buyers of your product to become repeat buyers.
C)You should focus on making sure buyers clearly understand your product's benefits.
D)You should focus on providing information about your product.
E)You should focus on encouraging buyers to just try your product.
Q3) What are the factors that marketers should consider while selecting a brand name?
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Q1) Firms marketing a quality product that generates strong sales can afford to keep expenses down by eliminating new-product development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Marketers at Starbucks have generated several ideas for new food products. Management has assessed whether these ideas are consistent with Starbucks' objectives and resources. Several product ideas were dropped after this analysis. The next stage of development for the remaining product ideas is A)product development.
B)idea screening.
C)concept testing.
D)business analysis.
E)test marketing.
Q3) Identify and describe the three major ways to modify existing products, and give an example of each.
Q4) Discuss the major approaches that marketers use to differentiate their products.
Q5) Product managers are most useful in the development of new products.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Dentists find it difficult to attract customers because many customers cannot distinguish whether or not the product offered is beneficial. This aspect of the dentist's product is called ____ quality.
A)search
B)experience
C)credence
D)tangible
E)separable
Q2) Services are usually provided through ____ directed at people or objects.
A)tangible and intangible products
B)physical labor
C)the application of human or mechanical efforts
D)ideas and other intangible efforts
E)knowledge and technology
Q3) Client-based relationships are most likely to be developed by
A)funeral directors.
B)electricians.
C)installers.
D)doctors.
E)brick layers.
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Q1) Consumers receive the benefits of place utility when
A)they have to travel excessively to obtain products they want.
B)retailers remain open 24 hours a day.
C)they can stock up on products they need but not use them right away.
D)they make purchases with credit and debit cards.
E)products are available in locations where consumers want to buy them.
Q2) Kolder Inc. is using a new just-in-time inventory management system that requires ordering smaller quantities of parts more frequently. The success of its business depends significantly on receiving these parts very quickly, so like many other companies using just-in-time, Kolder Inc. is relying more on the ____ mode of transportation despite its expense.
A)railroad
B)pipeline
C)airway
D)truck
E)waterway
Q3) Marketing intermediaries bridge the gap between suppliers (or producers) and buyers (or consumers).
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Shopping centers include
A)neighborhood, regional, superregional, power, and strip malls.
B)community, rural, urban, and traditional business districts.
C)outlet, power, lifestyle, superregional, regional, neighborhood, and community.
D)outlet malls, lifestyle, strip malls, and shopping malls.
E)free-standing, convenience, traditional, and regional.
Q2) Karen has been a buyer for Ocean Mist, a large cranberry processor, for several years. Believing that she knows a great deal about cranberries, their growers, and processors, she decides to go into business for herself. Karen wants to assume no risks of spoilage or price fluctuations. She sees herself as simply bringing the growers and processors together. Her new company would be a
A)sales agent.
B)commission merchant.
C)broker.
D)sales branch.
E)sales office.
Q3) Compare the services wholesalers provide for producers with the services they provide to retailers.
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Q1) Marketers usually decrease expenditures in advertising for products in the decline stage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, promotion was about as accurate as it is today.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Effective promotional programs require management efforts such as planning, organization, implementation, and control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pioneer promotion neither emphasizes brand names nor compares brands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is face-to-face communication more flexible in comparison with digital, web-based, or telephone communications when marketing a new or existing product?
Q6) Explain what product placement is and discuss its growing popularity within entertainment media.
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Q1) If during an advertising campaign a certain portion of advertising runs continuously, and then during specific periods additional advertising is used to intensify the level of communication, a(n) ____ media schedule is being used.
A)beating
B)alternating
C)flighting
D)continuous with emphasis
E)pulsing
Q2) What are the major components of a media plan? What limitations must be considered as the media plan is implemented?
Q3) Because ad agency personnel are outsiders to the firms, they may not judge the firm's product objectively.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Small firms generally depend on local newspapers and radio stations for assistance with advertising efforts.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Stacey's client group has been gradually shrinking and she is looking for new prospective clients. She has decided to spend a couple of days approaching potential customers without any prior consent. Stacey's method of approach is known as A)referral approach.
B)ambulance chasing.
C)door-to-door selling.
D)cold canvass.
E)repeat contact.
Q2) "Mrs. Brucker, you would agree that this is the most attractive car interior in this price range, wouldn't you?" Cliff Davis, a salesperson at Midtown Ford, was using a(n) ____ when he made this statement.
A)referral
B)objective
C)bandwagon approach
D)follow-up
E)trial close
Q3) Decisions regarding sales promotion do not affect advertising decisions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Suppose that the watchband department of Timex sells completed watchbands to the finished watch department. The finished watch department is charged the price it would have to pay an outside watchband manufacturer less a discount to reflect low sales and transportation costs. This method of pricing is called ____ pricing.
A)zone
B)actual full cost
C)standard full cost
D)cost plus investment
E)market-based cost
Q2) Profit margins for marketing channel members must be considered when determining the price of a product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the differences among value-conscious, price-conscious, and prestige-sensitive customers?
Q4) The point at which marginal revenue equals marginal cost is the breakeven point.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How can transfer pricing be calculated? Give three alternatives.
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Q1) The management at Allied Electronics is having difficulty in raising the introductory price on system components to cover the increased costs of producing the sensing devices for home security systems. Apparently, Allied used a(n) ____ strategy in pricing these components.
A)odd-even
B)skimming
C)lining
D)penetration
E)psychological
Q2) Which of the following would be used in setting the price of a new product if considerable competition is expected?
A)Psychological pricing
B)Penetration pricing
C)Odd-even pricing
D)Price skimming
E)Prestige pricing
Q3) Price skimming is designed to yield maximum unit sales volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is bundle pricing? Give three examples, each one from a different industry.
Page 22
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