Fundamentals of Management
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Management introduces students to the key principles, functions, and practices of management in modern organizations. This course explores foundational concepts including planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while analyzing the roles and responsibilities of managers at various levels. Students gain insight into decision-making processes, effective communication strategies, motivation, and team dynamics. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving and leadership skills that are applicable to a wide range of industries and sectors. By examining real-world case studies and current trends, students are equipped to understand the challenges and opportunities faced by contemporary managers.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Management Concepts and Skills 12th Edition by Samuel C. Certo
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Chapter 1: Introducing Modern Management: Concepts and Skills
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Q1) If a manager reaches goals but wastes resources, the manager is considered to be
A) efficient and effective
B) neither effective nor ineffective
C) ineffective and efficient
D) effective and inefficient
E) inefficient and ineffective
Answer: D
Q2) ________ skills are very important to managers at the lower, middle and top levels.
A) Human
B) Conceptual
C) Technical
D) Strategic
E) Tactical
Answer: A
Q3) Career plateauing is a period of declining performance and productivity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Managing: History and Current Thinking
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Q1) Hawthorne study results helped managers to see that ________.
A) better working conditions are subject to the managers' discretion
B) reducing each work task to the most basic movements improves worker efficiency
C) worker bonuses for overproduction helped increase productivity
D) the best way to increase productivity was to set a good piece-rate system
E) understanding what motivates employees is a critical part of management
Answer: E
Q2) The management science approach emphasizes "if--then" relationships: "If" this situational variable exists, "then" a manager probably would take this action.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) According to Gantt, the role of a manager is to ________.
A) divide specialized work among individuals and groups
B) make it in employees' interests to accomplish tasks
C) choose the management tactics best suited to particular situations
D) convince workmen to do work which they have no desire to do
E) use mathematical models to investigate the decision situation
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Corporate Social Responsibility, Ethics, and Sustainability
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Q1) Ethical managers strive for success within the confines of sound management practices that are characterized by fairness and justice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The Davis Model of Corporate Social Responsibility proposes businesses to operate as two-way open systems, with open receipt of inputs from society and open disclosure of operations to the public.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Kant's categorical imperative proposes to act in such a way that the action taken under the circumstances could be a universal law, or rule, of behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Management and Diversity
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Q1) "Token" employees are always given very high visibility in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How can diversity be promoted through equal employment and affirmative action?
Q3) The ________ approach focuses on how interpersonal skills and attitudinal changes relate to organizational performance.
A) culture-specific
B) multicultural
C) golden rule
D) assimilation
E) righting-the-wrongs
Q4) Josie, a manager for Koaha Corporation, collected data on the rate of promotions of African American men in her division to assess the effectiveness of diversity training within the division. In doing so, she was involved in the activity of ________.
A) planning
B) influencing
C) organizing
D) controlling
E) leading
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Chapter 5: Managing in the Global Arena
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Q1) SNL manufactures and sells customized shoes for people with special needs. The company caters mostly to customers within the U.S., though it occasionally sends products to overseas customers. The company is very eco-friendly, and takes pride in sourcing all its raw materials locally. According to the information, SNL is a(n) ________ company.
A) transnational
B) global
C) multinational
D) domestic
E) international
Q2) A polycentric attitude reflects the belief that multinational corporations should regard home-country management practices as superior to foreign-country management practices.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the three basic managerial attitudes toward the operation of multinational corporations. What are their advantages and disadvantages?
Q4) What can managers do to ensure that management action taken across national borders is ethical?
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Chapter 6: Management and Entrepreneurship
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an opportunity that arose from the use of a new method of organizing?
A) using corn to produce ethanol
B) using the Internet to sell a product
C) raising chicken without antibiotics
D) an American bank providing services in China
E) the invention of the heart stent
Q2) Which of the following best describes an angel investor?
A) Families and friends of an entrepreneur are not angel investors.
B) Angel investors raise money and then use this money to make investments in new firms.
C) Angel investors make fewer investments than venture capitalists.
D) Angel investors focus on a small number of industries.
E) Angel investors provide the initial financing to start-up ventures.
Q3) Opportunity evaluation is the first stage of the entrepreneurial process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When do entrepreneurs require external capital? Describe the three primary sources of external capital.
Q5) Who is an entrepreneur?
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Chapter 7: Principles of Planning
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Q1) Targets to be achieved in one year or less are ________.
A) time-bound actions
B) departmentalized goals
C) short-term objectives
D) long-term objectives
E) intermediate-term plans
Q2) What is the underlying assumption in the second alternative?
A) Competitors are also likely to adopt high-end technology.
B) Consumers' purchase decisions are directly influenced by the manufacturing process.
C) The availability of better technology translates into higher worker productivity.
D) The costs associated with upgrading will outweigh the benefits.
E) Alternate suppliers can provide raw materials at a lower cost.
Q3) Managers should establish performance objectives that are within easy reach for employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the difference between an organizational objective and a statement of organizational purpose?
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Chapter 8: Making Decisions
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the definition of bounded rationality?
A) Managers rely on their inborn ability to synthesize information quickly and effectively.
B) Managers have access to complete and accurate information for making a decision.
C) Managers adhere to rules of the thumb when making decisions.
D) Statistical probabilities can be attributed to alternative potential outcomes.
E) Managers do not always have access to the resources required to make rational decisions.
Q2) An advantage of brainstorming is that ________.
A) it allows members to know why individuals voted the way they did
B) it provides the option of supporting or rejecting an idea without fear of recrimination
C) it supports the expression of as many useful ideas as possible
D) it is suitable for teams whose group members are geographically dispersed E) members are not required to defend their ideas
Q3) What is the probability theory? Define probability and expected value. How are they related to each other?
Q4) Discuss the advantages of group decision-making.
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Chapter 9: Strategic Planning: Strategies, Tactics, and Competitive Dynamics
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Q1) Which of the following statements supports the assumption that the company is following a differentiation strategy?
A) The company moves its base to another country where it has a stronger hold over the market.
B) The company encourages standardization of products to focus on economies of scale.
C) The company invests a huge amount for the research and development of the product.
D) The company switches to intermediaries that supply raw materials at competitive prices.
E) The company opens subsidiaries in developing countries to take advantage of low-cost, skilled labor.
Q2) Strategic implementation is the last step of the strategic management process. A)True B)False
Q3) SWOT is an acronym for a firm's strengths, weaknesses, objectives, and threats. A)True B)False
Q4) What are the main strategy formulation tools of strategic management?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Plans and Planning Tools
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Q1) Explain the critical path of the program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
Q2) A ________ is a standing plan that outlines a series of related actions that must be taken to accomplish a particular task.
A) policy
B) form
C) procedure
D) rule
E) program
Q3) In which of the following stages do product sales continue to climb because of the fact that the product has been in the marketplace for some time and has become more accepted by the people?
A) decline stage
B) introduction stage
C) growth stage
D) maturity stage
E) saturation stage
Q4) What is a Gantt chart, explain its features.
Q5) What is a plan? Describe the four major dimensions of plans?
Q6) Explain the concept of input planning.
Q7) Explain the qualitative methods of sales forecasting.
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of Organizing
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Q1) Which of the following is the last step in the organizing process?
A) Allocate resources and directives for subtasks.
B) Evaluate results of organizing strategy.
C) Establish major tasks.
D) Reflect on plans and objectives.
E) Divide major tasks into subtasks.
Q2) According to the contingency viewpoint to designing span of management, the appropriate span of management narrows when ________.
A) the activities performed by supervised individuals are similar
B) subordinates are carrying out simple functions
C) the manager needs to spend a lot of time on planning activities
D) subordinates' activities need little synchronization
E) subordinates are physically located close to one another
Q3) ________ organizations are also called project organizations.
A) Silo
B) Functional
C) Radial
D) Pyramid
E) Matrix
Q4) Discuss the five main steps in the organizing process.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Responsibility, Authority, and Delegation
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Q1) Explain the concepts of line, staff, and functional authority.
Q2) Which of the following key dimensions of responsible management behavior is concerned with managers accepting criticism for mistakes and buffering their groups from excessive criticism?
A) behavior with upper management
B) personal attitudes and values
C) attitude toward and conduct with subordinates
D) behavior with people outside the organization
E) behavior with other groups
Q3) As a general rule, the more physically separated the organization's customers are, the more viable a significant amount of centralization is.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A manager who is directly responsible for executing a function has ________.
A) general responsibility
B) specific responsibility
C) operating responsibility
D) cyclical responsibility
E) consultative responsibility
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Chapter 13: Human Resource Management
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Q1) Give a brief description of the sources of human resources inside an organization.
Q2) The purpose of training is to ________.
A) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
B) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
C) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
D) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone eventually will be hired
E) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational diversity
Q3) Wikstrom's human resource inventory records furnish different data on which to base a hiring-from-outside decision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Write a short note on the process of recruitment and its importance.
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Chapter 14: Organizational Change: Stress, Conflict, and Virtuality
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Q1) The highest level of worker performance and productivity is associated with the lowest level of worker stress.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following strategies is likely to be most useful in reducing organizational stress?
A) increasing power distance in the organization
B) promoting employees based on objective criteria such as years of experience
C) modifying the basic values of organizational culture
D) making the organizational environment more informal
E) establishing vertical decision making procedures
Q3) Organizational changes typically affect the established lines of organizational communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the concept of grid organizational development (grid OD).
Q5) Organizational conflicts can result in positive impact for the organization.
A)True B)False
Q6) Briefly describe the four strategies used to manage conflicts. Page 16
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Chapter 15: Influencing and Communication
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Q1) An effective listener should go easy on arguments and criticism because being critical ________.
A) reduces the importance of the conversation
B) is a symptom of unreceptive communication
C) puts the talker on the defensive
D) creates a permissive environment for the speaker
E) is a sign of distraction
Q2) A signal refers to ________.
A) a decoded message with the receiver
B) the medium used to encode a message
C) a nonverbal clue provided by a communicator
D) the medium used to transmit a message
E) a message transmitted from one person to another
Q3) In which of the following grapevine patterns does information travel only to selected individuals?
A) single-strand
B) gossip
C) probability
D) serial
E) cluster
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Chapter 16: Leadership
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Q1) Pygmalion effect is observed when the leaders display job centered behavior rather than being employee centered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Buildtech is a small scale manufacturer of light weight building panels. Ruth Wallace, the CEO of the company, leads the organization by clearly telling employees what to do and how to do it. Here, Ruth is exhibiting ________ behavior.
A) achievement
B) accommodating
C) directive
D) participative
E) supportive
Q3) The trait approach to leadership assumes a good leader is born, not made. Do you agree with this view? Explain your answer.
Q4) Being tough-minded and structured are characteristics associated with managers rather than emerging leaders.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Motivation
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Q1) Although flextime is generally desirable to employees, it rarely results in greater productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Alderfer's ERG theory, which of the following refers to the need for physical well-being?
A) relatedness need
B) esteem need
C) existence need
D) growth need
E) goal need
Q3) Which of the following theories describe how motivation occurs?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
B) Vroom expectancy theory
C) Alderfer's ERG theory
D) McClelland's acquired needs theory
E) Argyris's maturity-immaturity continuum
Q4) List the process theories of motivation.
Q5) Define behavior modification and explain how reinforcement and punishment can be used to shape behavior.
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Chapter 18: Groups and Teams
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Q1) As used in management-related discussions, a group is simply a gathering of people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sociometric diagram that summarizes the personal feelings of organization members about the people in the organization with whom they would like to spend free time is a ________.
A) social audit
B) sociogram
C) social network diagram
D) formal group development diagram
E) friendship chart
Q3) Which of the following would be an example of a task group?
A) a group meeting to prepare the routine financial reports
B) a group set up to consider the feasibility of a new product
C) a group of employees forming an exercise group
D) a group of supervisors responsible for scheduling weekly work
E) a group of students coming together because of their music preferences
Q4) Briefly describe the two kinds of formal groups.
Q5) Distinguish between a group and a team.
21
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Chapter 19: Managing Organization Culture
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Q1) During an interview, Roy asks his interviewer about the type of culture of the organization. The interviewer informs Roy that the organization has a very simple structure and interactions between employees are extremely informal in nature. Also, there are few rules and procedures that employees are expected to follow. Employees are encouraged to take risks and be creative in the workplace. The organization most likely has a(n) ________.
A) clan culture
B) hierarchy culture
C) adhocracy culture
D) market culture
E) bureaucracy culture
Q2) ________ is defined as the dedication of organization members to uphold the values of the organization and to make worthwhile contributions to fulfilling organizational purpose.
A) Job satisfaction
B) Organizational effectiveness
C) Employee proactivity
D) Business resilience
E) Organizational commitment
Q3) What are the functions of organization culture?
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Chapter 20: Encouraging Creativity and Innovation
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a topic technology ideas encompass in the invention stage of the innovation process?
A) promoting products in the market
B) redesigning organizational structure
C) employing barcoding to better manage inventory
D) redesigning workstations to make employees more productive
E) improving human resource management
Q2) Expertise and creative thinking are the individual's raw materials for being creative, but motivation determines whether an individual will actually be creative.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Managers can ensure the generation of creativity by making work groups more diverse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the seven principles of reengineering improvements, as outlined by Michael Hammer?
Q5) Provide a brief note on the time-pressure/creativity matrix.
Q6) Describe the importance of creativity in organizations.
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Chapter 21: Controlling, Information, and Technology
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Q1) The first major step in evaluating organizational information is to determine the expected cost of obtaining that information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following information would be most appropriate for the first-line management of a large corporation?
A) summary reports of operations
B) environmental data and trends
C) decisions on strategic plans
D) detailed reports of problems
E) forecasts
Q3) What are the challenges faced by executives in managing the IS workforce?
Q4) The quality of the IS refers to ________.
A) the accuracy of the information
B) its cost
C) the relevance of the information
D) the proficiency of the users
E) its ease of use
Q5) Describe the six steps necessary to operate an IS properly.
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Chapter 22: Production and Control
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Q1) Which of the following ratios would be most useful to obtain quantitative information on the company's inventory management processes?
A) activity ratio
B) profitability ratio
C) liquidity ratio
D) leverage ratio
E) solvency ratio
Q2) Effectiveness refers to doing things right whereas efficiency refers to doing the right things.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Costs of packaging a product and costs of materials needed to make the product are fixed costs associated with production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organizations commonly employ more than one type of manufacturing process at the same time and in the same facility.
A)True
B)False
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