Fundamentals of Management Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Management introduces students to the essential concepts, principles, and practices of management within organizations. The course covers key topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, providing an overview of the functions and roles of managers in modern business environments. Students will explore decision-making processes, organizational structure, motivation, leadership styles, and effective communication techniques. By examining real-world case studies and engaging in practical exercises, learners will develop a foundational understanding of how managers drive organizational success and adapt to changing business landscapes.
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MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams
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54 Chapters
2662 Verified Questions
2662 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Management
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Volkswagen. In late September, Pischetsrieder flew to Brussels to meet with employees at a VW plant and explain his plans for improving the company's profitability. In this example, the CEO assumed the role of:
A) figurehead
B) spokesperson
C) liaison
D) disseminator
E) monitor
Answer: D
Q2) The CEO of Camper Brand Shoes expects its designers to operate like a team when they create new shoe designs. Most of its designers do not have a background in fashion so it is important that each person shares his or her expertise. Each team has a leader who is responsible for:
A) developing organizational codes of ethics
B) managing external and internal team relationships
C) developing growth strategies
D) coordinating the performances of all teams
E) doing all of these
Answer: B
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Chapter 1: Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?
A) human skills and decisional skills
B) informational skills and the motivation to manage
C) conceptual skills and the motivation to manage
D) conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills
E) human skills and informational skills
Answer: C
Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 1: Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typical responsibilities for __________ include setting objectives consistent with organizational goals and then planning and implementing the subunit strategies for achieving these goals.
A) top managers
B) shift supervisors
C) first-line managers
D) team leaders
E) middle managers
Answer: E
Q2) Which type of skills tends to be most important to the success of lower-level managers?
A) decisional skills
B) human skills
C) conceptual skills
D) motivation to manage
E) technical skills
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 2: History of Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Mary Parker Follett, if managers use ____ to settle or reduce conflict, each of the parties involved give up some of what they want.
A) reallocation
B) mediation
C) arbitration
D) negotiation
E) compromise
Q2) How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?
Q3) Refer to ISG. The shift supervisor needs to motivate the students to work much, much harder than they have been all summer, and they've gotten used to the leisurely pace and job assignments. One of the stated beliefs of ____ was that it was management's responsibility to pay workers fairly for their work, "a fair day's pay for a fair day's work."
A) Max Weber
B) Elton Mayo
C) Frederick Taylor
D) Mary Parker Follett
E) Frank Gilbreth
Q4) List the four principles of scientific management.
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Page 6
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?
A) Managers realized the importance of synergistic tasks.
B) Managers realized the importance of customer relations.
C) Low-paid, unskilled workers running machines began to replace high-paid, skilled artisans.
D) Skilled jobs were performed in homes rather than in factories.
E) Managers learned to use delegation.
Q2) The Gantt chart:
A) was a precursor to the organizational chart
B) is a chart that shows when and where tasks need to be completed so that a job can be completed in a timely fashion
C) was an early method for breaking jobs down into their smallest common denominator
D) was a major tool of scientific managers and is not widely used today
E) is a method for continuous training of front-line employees
Q3) Technological management involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management ideas and practices have actually been used from the earliest times of recorded history.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth are important to management because they:
A) used motion studies to eliminate unnecessary or repetitive motions from the work process
B) proved the effectiveness of nonfinancial motivators in convincing workers to strive for organizational goals
C) realized how the principles of sociology applied to worker performance
D) viewed the organization as a system that influenced its environment and that was influenced by its environment
E) identified the four functions managers perform
Q3) _____ involves managing the daily production of goods and services.
A) Operations management
B) Resource management
C) Systems management
D) Contingency management
E) Bureaucratic management
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Page 8
Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Dofasco. The company's commitment to triple the bottom line and to keeping its employees happy is indicative of Dofasco's ____.
A) organizational hierarchy
B) general environment
C) organizational culture
D) environmental munificence
E) specific environment
Q2) What are the two types of external organizational environments?
A) general and the specific
B) public and private
C) global and the national
D) organizational and the interpersonal
E) market-specific and the product-specific
Q3) Environmental ____ is affected by environmental complexity, change, and resources.
A) uncertainty
B) differentiation
C) difficulty
D) essence
E) entrepreneurship
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
A) industry code of ethics
B) internal environment
C) organizational culture
D) organizational strategy
E) organizational vision
Q2) Which of the following is a component of Volkswagen's specific environment and will directly influence how it does business?
A) Renault, a French car maker
B) laws concerning air bags
C) inflation
D) gasoline prices
E) the fact consumers are buying fewer SUVs
Q3) According to its rate of environmental change, an organization's environment can be either stable or dynamic, but not both.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a component of Volkswagen's specific environment and will directly influence how it does business?
A) Renault, a French car maker
B) laws concerning air bags
C) inflation
D) gasoline prices
E) the fact consumers are buying fewer SUVs
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of successful organizational cultures?
A) adaptability
B) consistency
C) involvement
D) a clear vision
E) all of these
Q3) __________ is/are a primary source of organizational culture.
A) The company's founder
B) The organization's competitive strategy
C) The industry in which the organization operates
D) Employees
E) Customers
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under the stakeholder model, ____ would be an example of a stakeholder group that does not engage in regular transactions with the company and is not critical to its long-term survival but can still affect public perceptions and opinions about the company's socially responsible behavior.
A) the media
B) suppliers
C) governments
D) employees
E) shareholders
Q2) To create a compliance program that is acceptable under the U.S. Sentencing Guidelines, a company should ____.
A) establish standards and procedures to meet the company's business needs
B) put upper-level managers in charge of the compliance program
C) encourage employees to report violations
D) train employees on standards and procedures
E) do all of these
Q3) List four of the seven requirements for an effective compliance program as established under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines.
Q4) Identify and briefly describe Kohlberg's three phases of moral development.
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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stakeholder model holds that the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize profits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:
A) how the behavior was motivated
B) where the motivation occurred
C) the target of the deviant behavior
D) the intent of the violator
E) organizational norms
Q3) What is social responsibility?
A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society
B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders
E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers
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13
Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary stakeholders are important to a company because:
A) it depends on them for long-term survival
B) they can affect public perceptions and opinions
C) the company is endangered by a termination of their relationship
D) they have the direct power to control management decisions
E) they create an awareness of overt organizational integrity
Q2) What is social responsibility?
A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society
B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers
C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments
D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders
E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers
Q3) Kohlberg's three phases of moral development in order are law and order, instrumental exchange, and universal principle.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making
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Sample Questions
Q1) A manufacturer of suntan lotion could set a(n) ____ goal to increase revenues by 8 percent over the next five years and a(n) ____ goal to increase sales next June in the Miami Beach area by 3 percent.
A) tactical; strategic
B) operational; tactical
C) distal; proximal
D) operational; strategic
E) proximal; distal
Q2) Standing plans deal with unique, one-time-only events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One method of weighing decision criteria uses ____, which is a process where each decision is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q4) Identify and explain the purpose of the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines.
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A
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Q1) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q2) Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry out_______plans.
A) single-use
B) standing
C) operational
D) tactical
E) hierarchical
Q3) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.
A) absolute comparisons
B) relative comparisons
C) valences
D) minimum threshold rule
E) comparative ranking scales
Q2) The __________ approach to decision making is a method in which an individual or a subgroup is assigned the role of a critic.
A) dialectical inquiry
B) groupthink
C) devil's advocacy
D) Delphi
E) dyadic communications
Q3) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy
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126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Michael Porter, five industry forces determine an industry's overall attractiveness and potential for long-term profitability. Which of the following is one of those forces Porter identified?
A) existence of complementary products
B) organizational structure
C) existing benchmarks
D) span of management
E) bargaining power of suppliers
Q2) In an attempt to stop declining profitability, ICI, a British chemical company, deleted petrochemical products from its production and concentrated on specialty chemicals, a less capital-intensive, less cyclical business. If ICI is successful in making the needed changes, it will more than likely implement a ____ strategy.
A) harvesting
B) revitalization
C) diversification
D) revival
E) recovery
Q3) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.
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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A
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Q1) In any organization, the __________ are the less visible, internal decision-making routines, problem-solving processes, and organization cultures that determine how efficiently inputs can be turned into outputs.
A) imperfectly imitable resources
B) valuable resources
C) distinctive competencies
D) core capabilities
E) sources of innovation
Q2) There are four conditions that must be met if a firm's resources are to be used to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. The resources must be valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable, and nonsubstitutable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An analysis of an organization's external environment begins with an assessment of the company's distinctive competencies and core capabilities.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B
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Q1) The term __________ refers to the overall organizational strategy that addresses the question "What business or businesses are we in or should we be in?"
A) firm-level strategy
B) corporate-level strategy
C) industry-level strategy
D) portfolio strategy
E) vision
Q2) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.
A) non-industry-specific companies
B) expert managers
C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals
D) other firms within an industry
E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change
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Q1) Tom Valerio was the point man on a major push to reinvent CIGNA Property & Casualty. His vision for CIGNA was to become a top-quartile, specialist property and casualty company. It was a radical proposition. Valerio was a(n) ____.
A) change ombudsman
B) staff moderator
C) change mentor
D) change agent
E) intrapreneur
Q2) Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
A) unfreezing
B) organizational dialogue
C) change definition
D) incremental change
E) change mentoring
Q3) The three parts of the experiential approach to innovation are design iterations, testing, and milestones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A
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Q1) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizational innovation is defined as doing things differently in an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
A) not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
B) declaring victory too soon
C) not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
D) not removing obstacles to the new vision
E) a poorly designed organizational mission
Q4) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B
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Q1) The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
A) compression
B) milestones
C) dialectical
D) generational
E) prototypical
Q2) The same techniques for managing innovation work equally as well after technological discontinuities as during periods of incremental change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Global Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Global joint ventures can be difficult to manage because they represent a merging of four cultures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An expatriate is someone who ____.
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
Q3) The Japanese government has proclaimed that its snow is different from that found in any other region of the world and as a result ensures that all snow skis marketed for sale in Japan must be manufactured in Japan. This is an example of a(n) ____.
A) tariff
B) government subsidy
C) voluntary export restraint
D) government import standard
E) subsidy
Q4) Briefly explain how companies can assess the growth potential of new markets.
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A
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Q1) Export restraints, government subsidies, and quotas are all examples of nontariff trade barriers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) More than any other regional trade agreement, the Maastricht Treaty of Europe liberalizes trade between countries so that businesses can plan to operate in a single market instead of multiple national markets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An expatriate is someone who:
A) claims dual citizenship
B) lives and works outside of his or her own country
C) believes strongly in nationalization
D) is unhappy with his or her present residence
E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own
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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B
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Q1) The evidence clearly shows that __________ is the most important factor in determining the success or failure of an international assignment.
A) the amount of language training provided to the expatriate
B) the amount of cross-cultural training provided to the expatriate
C) how well an expatriate's spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture
D) how willing the expatriate was to accept the foreign assignment
E) the similarity of the foreign language to the expatriate's native language
Q2) Hofstede's research has shown there are:
A) no cultural differences among nations in which Spanish is the national language
B) two distinct methods for dealing with cultural differences--adaptation and continuation
C) direct relationships existing between type of infrastructures and growth potential
D) five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries
E) four factors upon which a company should base its decision to globalize
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ determines the number, kind, and variety of tasks that individual workers perform in their jobs.
A) Standardization
B) Task mapping
C) Job design
D) Job specialization
E) An organizational chart
Q2) ____ is characterized by simple, easy-to-learn steps; low variety; and high repetition.
A) Job consistency
B) Job specialization
C) Task reengineering
D) Standardization
E) Task homogeneity
Q3) The coordination of departmental activities tends to be more difficult with the geographic approach to departmentalization than with the other approaches.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is job specialization? Briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A
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Q1) __________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
A) Pooling interdependence
B) Reciprocating interdependence
C) Reengineering
D) Repositioning
E) Manufacturing conversion
Q2) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
Q3) The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view of the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B
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Q1) A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
A) modular
B) departmentalized
C) standardized
D) organic
E) mechanistic
Q2) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.
A) delegation of command
B) empowerment
C) synergistic authority
D) unity of command
E) centralization of authority
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29
Chapter 10: Managing Teams
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Q1) A leading coatings and paints manufacturer established a team made up of members from various departments to increase plant availability and decrease plant downtime. The plant loses considerable time daily because the assembly line has to be cleaned whenever the production schedule calls for a different color or type of paint to be produced. This cross-functional team needs to avoid ____ conflict if it hopes to be successful.
A) c-type
B) affective
C) behavioral
D) cognitive
E) b-type
Q2) Team norms in an organization can create ____.
A) stronger organizational commitment
B) more trust in management
C) negative behaviors, such as breaking rules
D) increased job satisfaction
E) all of these
Q3) What are stretch goals? What four things must occur for stretch goals to motivate teams effectively?
Q4) What are the five guidelines managers use to determine the use of teams?
Page 30
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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A
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Q1) __________ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.
A) Team diversity
B) Group synergy
C) Team level
D) Team conformity
E) Team performance
Q2) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q3) Since teams should be an end in themselves, it is appropriate to use them in most situations.
A)True
B)False
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31
Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B
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Q1) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?
A) cross-functional teams
B) project teams
C) virtual teams
D) employee involvement teams
E) none of these
Q2) The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:
A) localized synergy
B) bureaucratic immunity
C) strategic diversity
D) organizational accommodation
E) limited cohesiveness
Q3) __________ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.
A) Team diversity
B) Group synergy
C) Team level
D) Team conformity
E) Team performance
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems
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Q1) A job specification summarizes the basic tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job, and a job description summarizes the qualifications needed to successfully perform the job.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A study in the construction industry found that when equipment is stolen from building sites, workers are the culprits 82 percent of the time. Which type of selection information would employers in the construction industry receive the greatest benefit from if their goal is to stop employee theft?
A) résumés
B) performance appraisals
C) job descriptions
D) background checks
E) connotative ability tests
Q3) Identify and describe the three kinds of job interviews. Which type works best as a selection tool?
Q4) What is a performance appraisal? How does it influence organizational success? Explain why it poses a particular challenge to managers.
Q5) List and briefly define the three basic kinds of compensation decisions.
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41969
Sample Questions
Q1) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
A) job analysis
B) task evaluation
C) job specification
D) job validation
E) job description
Q4) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B
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Q1) To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal employment law apply?
A) selection decisions
B) compensation decisions
C) performance appraisals
D) training and development activities
E) all of these
Q2) __________ is the loss of high-performing employees who voluntarily choose to leave a company.
A) De-employment
B) Dysfunctional turnover
C) Reactive turnover
D) Regressive turnover
E) A "brain leak"
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a subjective performance measure?
A) behavioral observation scales
B) sales quotas
C) production rate
D) revenues
E) customer complaints
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973
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Q1) Among the paradigms for managing diversity, only the learning and effectiveness paradigm focuses on integrating deep-level diversity differences in addition to dealing with surface-level diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jean-Marie has excellent keyboarding skills and enters data for a marketing research firm. Jean-Marie is also vision-impaired. In order to perform his job, Jean-Marie needs a computer monitor that produces oversized print so he can read it. Providing the monitor to facilitate Jean-Marie's job performance is an example of ____.
A) assistive technology
B) job enrichment
C) management reciprocity
D) task reengineering
E) disparity balances
Q3) Identify the three different methods or paradigms for managing diversity. Specify which level of diversity each paradigm focuses on. Explain which approach you personally believe will make the greatest contribution to helping U.S. companies manage diversity more effectively in the future.
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part A
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Q1) A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that:
A) diversity requires a wider span of management
B) diversity has a broader focus
C) diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
D) affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies
E) affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
Q2) __________ consists of differences communicated through verbal and nonverbal behaviors, such as personality and attitudes that are learned only through extended interaction with others.
A) Organizational plurality
B) Behavioral diversity
C) Surface-level diversity
D) Deep-level diversity
E) Ego-driven heterogeneity
Q3) The Big Five dimensions of personality are autonomy, Machiavellianism, empathy, locus of control, and affectivity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work
Force: Part B
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Q1) Conscientiousness is:
A) the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement oriented
B) the degree to which someone is curious
C) the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
D) the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
E) defined by none of these
Q2) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ consists of differences communicated through verbal and nonverbal behaviors, such as personality and attitudes that are learned only through extended interaction with others.
A) Organizational plurality
B) Behavioral diversity
C) Surface-level diversity
D) Deep-level diversity
E) Ego-driven heterogeneity
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Chapter 13: Motivation
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Q1) The two kinds of inequity are underreward and overreward.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward?
A) a sense of achievement
B) a feeling of responsibility
C) a salary increase
D) pride from accomplishing a difficult task
E) all of these
Q3) Differentiate between distributive and procedural justice. Briefly explain how each relates to motivating with equity theory.
Q4) The ____ states that people will be motivated to the extent to which they believe that their efforts will lead to good performance, that good performance will be rewarded, and that they are offered attractive rewards.
A) reinforcement theory
B) equity theory
C) expectancy theory
D) goal-setting theory
E) theory of motivational instrumentality
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A
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Q1) Overreward frequently causes inequity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?
A) valences
B) reinforcement
C) referents
D) instrumentality
E) expectancy
Q4) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:
A) goal congruity
B) goal commitment
C) goal valence
D) goal expectancy
E) groupthink
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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B
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Q1) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary ways for creating reinforcement contingencies in organizations are:
A) extrinsic rewards and the schedules of reinforcement
B) extrinsic and intrinsic rewards
C) perceptions of equity and reward desirability
D) situational motivators
E) higher-order needs and organizational structure
Q3) In a(n) __________ reinforcement schedule, a consequence follows every instance of a behavior.
A) continuous
B) intermittent
C) variable interval
D) fixed ratio
E) variable ratio
Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership
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Q1) Relatively stable characteristics such as abilities, psychological motives, or consistent patterns of behavior, form the basis for the ____ of leadership.
A) situational theory
B) behavioral theory
C) trait theory
D) expectancy theory
E) path-goal theory
Q2) The normative decision theory ____.
A) states that the situation determines what leadership style to use
B) assumes that certain inalienable characteristics determine the most effective leaders
C) helps managers determine how much employee participation should be used in decision making
D) assumes leader behavior can be fitted to subordinate characteristics
E) assumes leaders are generally unable to change their leadership style
Q3) According to the path-goal theory, what are the two leadership styles that parallel the two key leadership behaviors of initiating structure and consideration? Describe each style.
Q4) Identify and define the components of visionary leadership.
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
Q2) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q3) Since there are no consistent trait differences between leaders and nonleaders, or between effective and ineffective leaders, trait theory is wrong.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transactional leaders:
A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior
B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision
C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities
D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work
E) are accurately described by all of these
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four leadership styles identified in the path-goal theory of leadership?
A) directive
B) supportive
C) participative
D) charismatic
E) achievement-oriented
Q3) Fiedlers contingency theory assumes:
A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well
B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation
C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation
D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members
E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Feedback is more likely to be destructive than constructive when it is ____.
A) immediate
B) judgmental
C) influenced by situational contexts
D) problem-oriented
E) focused on specific behaviors
Q2) Jergen Lindegaart is the chief executive of SAS Scandinavian Airlines. When he explained to stockholders why SAS was withdrawing from a joint venture with another company, he was engaged in ____.
A) encoding
B) feedback preparation
C) feedforward
D) selective filtering
E) decoding
Q3) In nonverbal communication, the term kinesics is used to refer to the pitch, rate, tone, volume, and speaking pattern (i.e., use of silences, pauses, or hesitations) of one's voice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distinguish between coaching and counseling.
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A
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Q1) The self-serving bias is the tendency to overestimate our value by attributing successes to ourselves (internal causes) and attributing failures to others or the environment (external causes).
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
Q3) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the system of official channels that carry organizationally approved messages and information.
A) downward communication channel
B) upward communication channel
C) horizontal communication channel
D) formal communication channel
E) informal communication channel
Q2) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ is the withholding of information about organizational problems or issues by employees.
A) Organizational silence
B) Organizational filtering
C) Negative grapevining
D) Lower-level filtering
E) Communication shutdown
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Chapter 16: Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the steps in the basic control process and how you would respond to the statement, "Control is a process that should be employed intermittently?"
Q2) Customer satisfaction surveys are an accurate and effective way to answer the Balanced Scorecard question: "How do customers see us?"
A)True
B)False
Q3) When Marriott decided to improve the quality of service offered to customers, it asked special corporate guests to comment on the good and bad issues of their stay and also to tell what the competition is doing that is better than Marriott. The Marriott acted accordingly. In other words, it used ____.
A) benchmarking
B) data decentralization
C) information processing
D) mirroring
E) comparative criterion
Q4) Sometimes the costs of control exceed its benefits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
Q2) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance.
A) feedback; concurrent
B) concurrent; feedback
C) feedback; feedforward
D) feedforward; feedback
E) concurrent; stasis
Q3) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Control: Part B
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Q1) One significant advantage of economic value added (EVA) is that it clearly specifies what managers should or should not do to improve financial performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is the extent to which it is possible to implement each step in the control process.
A) Control feasibility
B) Cybernetic feasibility
C) A quasi-control assessment
D) A balanced scorecard assessment
E) Information management
Q3) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?
A) waste prevention and reduction
B) recycle and reuse
C) waste treatment
D) waste disposal
E) waste remarketing
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Chapter 17: Managing Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pages listing all of the felony crimes perpetrated in a given city during the last decade would be an example of ____.
A) a resource allocation table
B) traditional knowledge
C) raw data
D) perceived knowledge
E) information
Q2) The two basic methods of capturing information are continuous and periodic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unsupervised data mining can be used to recognize ____ patterns.
A) association, affinity, and sequence
B) association, extrapolative, and predictive
C) affinity, predictive, and adjacency
D) progressive, predictive, and accommodative
E) affinity, sequence, and predictive
Q4) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define data mining. Briefly describe the two general approaches to data mining.
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A
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Q1) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:
A) replace the need for intuition in decision making
B) create a link among authorized data and network users
C) protect organizational data from hackers
D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers
E) do none of these
Q2) Which of the following statements about knowledge is true?
A) Data and information are the same as knowledge.
B) Knowledge resides in information.
C) Knowledge is the understanding that one gains from information.
D) Knowledge is easier to acquire than data and information.
E) All of these statements about knowledge are true.
Q3) A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and publish information using Internet software.
A) LAN portal
B) private company network (PCN)
C) intranet
D) electronic data sharing system
E) information network
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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B
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Q1) Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to the person for which the data were gathered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ is a private company network that allows employees to easily access, share, and publish information using Internet software.
A) LAN portal
B) private company network (PCN)
C) intranet
D) electronic data sharing system
E) information network
Q3) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
A) productivity = (inputs/outputs)
B) productivity = [(inputs ´ outputs)/100]
C) outputs = (productivity/inputs)
D) productivity = (outputs/inputs)
E) inputs = (productivity/outputs)
Q2) The first step in the service-profit chain is the establishment of ____.
A) employee satisfaction
B) service capability
C) internal service quality
D) high value service
E) nonmonetary rewards
Q3) The ability to consistently perform a service well is referred to as service ____.
A) reliability
B) assurance
C) responsiveness
D) tangibility
E) durability
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
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Q1) A product's quality is determined by its:
A) reliability, homogeneity, and durability
B) reliability, validity, and effectiveness
C) serviceability, tangibility, and homogeneity
D) durability, reliability, and serviceability
E) consistency, tangibility, and durability
Q2) Which of the following shows the correct relationship for productivity, outputs, and inputs?
A) productivity = (inputs/outputs)
B) productivity = [(inputs outputs)/100]
C) outputs = (productivity/inputs)
D) productivity = (outputs/inputs)
E) inputs = (productivity/outputs)
Q3) The two types of productivity are:
A) partial productivity and complete productivity
B) multifactor productivity and partial productivity
C) individual productivity and departmental productivity
D) departmental productivity and organizational productivity
E) organizational productivity and industry productivity
Page 55
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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing
Operations: Part B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:
A) third party certification
B) delegation
C) participative management
D) customer focus and satisfaction
E) distinctive competence
Q2) The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:
A) inventory depreciation
B) inventory amortization
C) weeks of supply
D) multifactor inventory
E) speed of obsolescence
Q3) The first step in the service-profit chain is external service quality or the quality of treatment that employees receive from a company's internal service providers.
A)True
B)False
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