Fundamentals of Life Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Life Science offers an introduction to the essential concepts and principles underlying the study of living organisms. This course explores the structure and function of cells, genetic inheritance, biological evolution, and organismal diversity. Students will examine the chemical basis of life, processes such as metabolism and cellular respiration, and the dynamic relationships between organisms and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, the course fosters a comprehensive understanding of how life operates at molecular, cellular, and ecological levels, laying the groundwork for further studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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Sample Questions
Q1) In science, what would an individual's personal experience or endorsement be considered?
A) anecdotal evidence
B) circumstantial evidence
C) a primary source
D) a peer review
Answer: A
Q2) What type of reasoning is used to make a hypothesis based on previously established observations?
Answer: Inductive
Q3) When graphing data, what scientific information do scientists plot on the x-axis?
A) independent variable
B) dependent variable
C) control
D) sampling error
Answer: A
Q4) What type of evidence would include a personal opinion on the effectiveness of a dietary supplement in preventing colds?
Answer: anecdotal
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Science Fiction, Bad Science, and
Pseudoscience:
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does "hydrophobic" mean?
A) made of water
B) repelled by water
C) attracted to water
D) dissolved in water
Answer: B
Q2) What kind of bond is found between the individual atoms of a single water molecule?
A) hydrogen bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) covalent bonds that are not polar
D) covalent bonds that are polar
Answer: D
Q3) What kind of molecule forms a bilayer that is the basis for all cellular membranes?
A) carbohydrate
B) cholesterol
C) phospholipid
D) protein
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better
Performance and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a deficiency of water in the body?
A) diffusion
B) dehydration
C) endocytosis
D) hypertension
Answer: B
Q2) Which statement is true about minerals?
A) Minerals will not dissolve in water.
B) Some minerals contain carbon.
C) Minerals cannot be made by the body.
D) Minerals are not used by body cells.
Answer: C
Q3) What protein fibers help form the framework of structural support for cells?
A) centriole
B) cholesterol
C) chromatin
D) cytoskeletal elements
Answer: D
Q4) What type of fatty acids include omega-3 and omega-6?
Answer: essential fatty acids
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Chapter 4: Body Weight and Health: Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the protein channel where H ions escape into the matrix of the mitochondrion?
A) to add a phosphate to ADP
B) to remove a phosphate from ATP
C) to break the bonds of ATP
D) to create ADP from ATP
Q2) What is the first reactant in the citric acid cycle?
A) pyruvic acid (C H O )
B) glucose (C H O )
C) carbon dioxide (CO )
D) oxalaoacetate (OAA)
Q3) Which statement describes enzymes?
A) Enzymes are not very specific.
B) Enzymes are not affected by high heat, as proteins are.
C) Enzymes can be recycled and used over and over again.
D) Enzymes are "used up" during chemical reactions.
Q4) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
Q5) What is the resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active? (three words)
Q6) What are the two molecules produced by cellular respiration? Page 6
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Climate Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost all scientists support the idea that the global warming observed over the past 100 years has been caused by elevated levels of gases in the atmosphere. Which gas is primarily responsible for this problem?
A) carbon dioxide
B) nitrous oxide
C) oxygen
D) ozone
Q2) Which item emits carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?
A) green plants
B) volcanoes
C) soil
D) water
Q3) According to the graph, which wavelengths of light are best absorbed by the chlorophyll pigments found in green leaves?
A) 520 nm
B) 560 nm
C) 620 nm
D) 680 nm
Q4) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur?
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met?
Q2) DNA polymerase moves along the length of the unwound helix, starting at the end of one strand and finishing at the end of the other strand. As shown in this figure, what is the result of this phenomenon?
A) One resulting double strand of DNA is composed of new DNA, and one is composed of parental DNA.
B) Free nucleotides are added to one strand of parental DNA but not to the other.
C) The DNA polymerase moves toward the unwound helix on one strand of DNA and away from it on the other strand.
D) DNA polymerase is destroyed as it binds nucleotides to form each daughter strand.
Q3) What is the surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed for cancerous cells?
Q4) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
Q5) What is the process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations?
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Chapter 7: Are You Only As Smart As Your Genes Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What single, circular structure is found in prokaryotes such as bacteria?
Q2) When does a dominant genetic disorder occur?
A) Only one allele of the gene is the mutant allele.
B) Both alleles of the gene are the mutant allele.
C) Neither allele of the gene is the mutant allele.
D) Either one or both alleles of the gene are mutant.
Q3) If DNA is like an instruction manual, what would be similar to the typographical errors that may result when the DNA manual is transcribed?
A) dominant alleles
B) recessive alleles
C) mutations
D) homologous chromosomes
Q4) What conclusion was based on experiments with "maze-bright" and "maze-dull" rats?
A) An enriched environment increases maze-running ability only in dull rats.
B) A poor environment adversely affects maze-running ability in both bright and dull rats.
C) Maze-running ability is highly heritable and unaffected by environment.
D) Maze-running ability is based entirely on environment and unaffected by genes.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
Dna Profiling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with hemophilia lacks the pleiotropic gene that codes for the protein called clotting factor VIII. What effects will this have on a person with hemophilia?
A) The person will only have the symptom of lack of blood clotting (bleeding).
B) The person will always have the same symptoms as other hemophiliacs.
C) The person will have many other symptoms in addition to excessive bleeding.
D) The person will always have neurological problems.
Q2) What is a family tree that is used to follow human matings that have already occurred?
A) test cross
B) karyotype
C) sex-linked record
D) pedigree
Q3) What is the ability of a gene to cause multiple effects on a phenotype?
A) pleiotropy
B) codominance
C) polygenic inheritance
D) continuous variation
Q4) What pattern of inheritance occurs in the ABO blood system where there are three distinct alleles in human populations?
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation,
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation may result from genetically modifying foods?
A) rice that allows greater synthesis of vitamin A
B) calorie-free potato chips
C) a tomato that tastes like a melon
D) lettuce that doesn't require water to grow
Q2) Which type of disease condition could be successfully treated by gene therapy?
A) a disease caused by a nonfunctional enzyme in the body
B) a disease caused by excess fat intake
C) a disease caused by bacterial infection
D) a cancer caused by uncontrolled cell division
Q3) Which RNA molecule carries the sequence of nucleotides that determines the order of amino acids in a protein?
A) transfer RNA
B) ribosomal RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) translator RNA
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From the Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which example shows nonevolutionary change in a population?
A) an increase in mosquitoes that are resistant to insecticide
B) plants in a dry climate that have faster-growing roots than plants found there 20 years ago
C) after decreases in airborne soot, a change in the most common color of moths
D) an increase in the number of people diagnosed with colon cancer
Q2) What aspect of the geology of the Galápagos was important in producing the diversity of organisms seen by Darwin?
A) The islands are in the Pacific.
B) The islands are in a chain.
C) The islands are very dry.
D) There are no mammals on the islands.
Q3) Which hypothesis was rejected by the evidence from radiometric dating of nonfossil rocks?
A) static hypothesis
B) transformation hypothesis
C) separate type hypothesis
D) common descent hypothesis
Q4) What term describes distribution patterns of living things around the world?
Q5) What is the main mechanism that results in evolution?
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is it possible to prevent bacteria from becoming resistant to antibiotics?
A) Yes: If we give antibiotics properly, resistance will go away and not evolve again.
B) No: Bacteria need to become resistant to anything that will kill them.
C) No: However, by using antibiotics properly, we can slow the rate at which resistance appears.
D) Yes: If we stop using antibiotics, the trait will disappear.
Q2) True or false: Any trait that is controlled by genes can be acted on by natural selection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What kind of bacterial variant would be most likely to survive in the human digestive system?
A) a variant that thrives at temperatures close to 100°C
B) a variant with a coating that is resistant to an acidic environment
C) a variant that reproduces slowly
D) a variant that easily attaches to hard surfaces
Q4) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?
Q5) What is the raw material for evolution?
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Chapter 12: Who Am I Species and Races
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Q1) What type of reproductive isolation would include closely related species of orchids that never mate in the wild because they bloom at different times?
Q2) How does the distribution shown on the map of alleles for the B blood type support the hypothesis that there are no biological races of humans?
A) All human groups show the same frequency of this allele.
B) A distinct frequency pattern of this allele is found in each human group.
C) A gradient of frequency of the allele is found from its origin in Asia outward to Europe.
D) There's no pattern with respect to frequency of this allele throughout Asia and Europe.
Q3) In what type of population would evolution occur most rapidly?
A) a large population with a large gene pool
B) a small population with a relatively diverse gene pool
C) a small population with a small gene pool
D) a large population with a relatively limited gene pool
Q4) Genealogical species are groups that have diverged from a common ancestor but aren't yet reproductively ________.
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Chapter 13: The Greatest Species on Earth Biodiversity and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are prokaryotes different from eukaryotes?
A) Prokaryotes have no DNA.
B) Prokaryotes have no nucleus separating the DNA from the rest of the cell.
C) Prokaryotes are unicellular, while eukaryotes are multicellular.
D) Prokaryotes cause disease, but eukaryotes don't.
Q2) Which kingdom would include an organism that is multicellular and makes its own food?
A) kingdom Animalia
B) kingdom Fungi
C) kingdom Plantae
D) kingdom Protista
Q3) What process is performed by both algae and plants?
Q4) The evolution of which trait allowed plants to grow taller?
A) seeds
B) vascular tissue
C) flowers
D) photosynthesis
Q5) What was the first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident?
Page 16
Q6) What organisms form mats of long, thin chains of cells and are important in decomposition?
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large Population
Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) True or false: Scientists agree on the size of the carrying capacity of Earth for the human population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When you look at the spacing of humans on a global level, what type of distribution does the population follow?
A) clumped
B) uniform
C) random
D) indescribable
Q3) True or false: The human population may continue to increase even though it surpasses carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) True or false: Nearly all developed countries in the world are beginning a demographic transition in the twenty-first century.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) Not everyone can travel to a remote area of the world to protect a rare habitat, but there are choices each of us can make each day to reduce habitat destruction and slow the rate of species extinction. What action could you take to reduce habitat destruction caused by the mining, drilling, and transport of fossil fuels?
A) Eat lower on the food chain.
B) Only buy products that are sustainably harvested.
C) Carpool or use public transportation.
D) Keep the thermostat turned to warmer levels in winter and cooler levels in summer.
Q2) What is the "psychological need" that many humans have for nature?
A) mutualism
B) commensalism
C) community
D) biophilia
Q3) What is the best strategy for preserving biodiversity?
A) to depend on the Endangered Species Act to produce its intended consequences
B) to prevent inbreeding in small populations
C) to use genetic engineering to create new combinations of genes
D) to prevent species from becoming endangered in the first place
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live Climate and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can the amount of yard waste produced by people be reduced?
A) through recycling
B) through composting
C) by having people bring their own waste to dumps
D) through burning
Q2) Which location might exhibit the greatest variation in temperatures throughout the seasons?
A) a small town at sea level in Panama
B) San Diego, California
C) a city in Finland
D) Rome, Italy
Q3) In which general direction do the prevailing winds blow between 30° North and the equator?
A) from south to north
B) from east to west
C) from north to south
D) from southwest to northeast
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues and Organs
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Q1) Which connective tissue type has collagen fibers arranged parallel with one another in a very organized, layered fashion?
A) bone
B) blood
C) adipose tissue
D) fibrous connective tissue
Q2) In nature, how does an ectothermic animal maintain a constant body temperature on a cold day?
A) by basking in a sunny location
B) by increasing its rate of metabolism without basking
C) by eating more food, which creates heat as it's burned for energy
D) by shivering
Q3) What does homeostasis allow an organism to do?
A) Organisms can obtain energy from food.
B) Organisms can interact with their specific environment.
C) Organisms can maintain a constant internal environment.
D) Organisms can survive without water for long periods of time.
Q4) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q5) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
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Chapter 18: Binge Drinking: the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Q1) True or false: Filtration is the process by which plasma is forced through tiny holes in the capillary walls by blood pressure and into the upstream end of the nephron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the functional units of the kidneys?
Q3) How does a digested nutrient enter the bloodstream?
A) through a series of large pores in the duodenum
B) through tiny blood vessels inside the microvilli
C) through the liver
D) through small openings in the epithelium of the stomach
Q4) Why do gallstones form in the gallbladder?
A) The gallbladder doesn't function at all.
B) The gallbladder removes too much water from bile.
C) The gallbladder converts bile into crystallized calcium propionate.
D) The gallbladder fills with dead hepatocytes.
Q5) True or False: Drinking any amount of alcohol always has negative effects on the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Clearing the Air: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the respiratory surface where gas exchange occurs?
A) trachea
B) bronchioles
C) pharynx
D) alveoli
Q2) Why is carbon monoxide deadly?
A) It binds to hemoglobin in white blood cells in place of oxygen.
B) It binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells in place of oxygen.
C) It binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells in place of carbon dioxide.
D) It binds to hemoglobin in white blood cells in place of carbon dioxide.
Q3) What is the advantage of having grape-like clusters called alveoli as part of the respiratory system?
A) Alveoli allow for an increase in surface area, which maximizes gas exchange.
B) Alveoli are circular in structure, which is ideal for maximal gas exchange.
C) Because alveoli have thinner walls, gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated.
D) The grape-like shape of alveoli allows capillaries to be in closer proximity to gases.
Q4) What term describes the many components of tobacco smoke that are known to cause cancer?
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Vaccination: Protection and Prevention or Peril
Immune System,
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Q1) True or false: Every antigen receptor synthesized by lymphocytes is encoded by a separate gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?
A) the common cold
B) rabies
C) tuberculosis
D) mononucleosis
Q3) A strategy currently in clinical trials to treat Alzheimer's disease is to infuse patients with antibodies, which then target the pathological protein produced in the disease, leading to its removal. What type of immune reaction applies to this technique?
A) an autoimmune response
B) active immunization
C) passive immunization
D) cell-mediated immunity
Q4) Where are developing lymphocytes tested to determine whether they'll bind to self-proteins?
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Chapter 21: Human Sex Differences: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) A tumor in an endocrine gland caused Jane to have weakened bones and unusually high levels of blood calcium. Which gland was affected?
A) parathyroid gland
B) pancreas
C) bone marrow
D) pituitary gland
Q2) When a person dies, muscles become rigid and fixed in position. This is a condition known as rigor mortis. Why does rigor mortis occur?
A) ATP is not available to release myosin heads from actin filaments.
B) Muscle fibers break down quickly in the absence of oxygen.
C) ATP is not available to cause sarcomeres to shorten.
D) The human skeletal system locks together after death.
Q3) Why does skeletal muscle have a striated appearance?
A) dark color of myosin
B) dense array of microtubules
C) dense packing of ATP molecules
D) regular arrangement of myofibrils
Q4) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs?
Q5) Which structure produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system?
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Chapter 22: Is There Something in the Water Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Q1) What hormone(s) are produced and released by the corpus luteum following ovulation?
A) FSH and LH
B) estrogen
C) progesterone
D) both estrogen and progesterone
Q2) Which conception control method is most effective?
A) diaphragm
B) condom
C) minipill
D) vaginal ring
Q3) What is one type of cell that contains half the genetic information of an individual?
A) zygote
B) gonad
C) sperm
D) fertilized egg
Q4) True or false: All sexually transmitted diseases have symptoms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Study Drugs: Brain Boost or Brain Drain Brain
Structure and Function
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Q1) Damage to which of the following brain structures is most likely to be fatal?
A) caudate nuclei
B) cerebellum
C) brain stem
D) cerebrum
Q2) Arrange the following neurons into the correct sequence for information flow during the withdrawal reflex following touching a hot burner on a stove.
A) interneuron, motor neuron, sensory neuron
B) motor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron
C) sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron
D) motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron
Q3) What would a drug that caused sodium to leak into a neuron do?
A) It would cause the outside of the neuron to become more positive.
B) It would trigger an action potential in the neuron.
C) It would cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative.
D) It would cause potassium to move into the neuron as well.
Q4) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?
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Chapter 24: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Q1) Why do plants containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their roots need less nitrogen-based fertilizer than others?
A) The plants break down the bacteria as a source of nitrogen-rich nutrients.
B) The bacteria convert nitrogen in the air into a form that can be taken up by the plants.
C) The plants and bacteria work together to attract birds, which deposit nitrogen-rich droppings near the plant.
D) The bacteria kill and digest earthworms and other animals in the soil, providing excess nitrogen to the plants.
Q2) What molecule is essentially a waste product of photosynthesis?
A) carbon dioxide
B) light
C) carbohydrates (sugars)
D) oxygen
Q3) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
Q4) What is the practice farmers use when they plant a single crop over a large area of land?
Q5) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?
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Chapter 25: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Q1) Which hormone plays an "anti-abscission role" in plants?
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) cytokinin
Q2) Which process occurs when a grapevine wraps around a trellis or another supporting structure?
A) photoperiodism
B) thigmotropism
C) gravitropism
D) phototropism
Q3) Which action is most similar to the way in which water is moved through the xylem sap of a plant?
A) a person drinking through a straw
B) a vaccine being ejected out of a syringe
C) water gushing up from a fountain
D) a dart being blown out the end of a blowgun
Q4) What are the narrow, tapering cells found in the xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species?
Q5) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
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