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Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Human Nutrition introduces students to the scientific principles that underpin the role of nutrients in human growth, development, and health. The course explores macronutrients and micronutrients, their sources, metabolism, and functions in the body, as well as the factors influencing dietary requirements throughout the lifespan. Students will examine the impact of nutrition on disease prevention and health promotion, analyze dietary guidelines, and learn to assess nutritional status. The course also addresses contemporary nutrition issues, such as food security, cultural influences on diet, and the relationship between nutrition and chronic diseases.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Q1) Health care professionals can be most successful at motivating others to become more physically active when they:
A)design age-specific programs.
B)develop workplace wellness programs.
C)deliver weekly lectures on the topic.
D)demonstrate a physically active lifestyle.
Answer: D
Q2) One of the first nutritional surveys taken before World War II suggested:
A)at least 90% of the population had adequate nutritional intakes.
B)75% of the population needed to change their eating habits.
C)less than 5% of the population were eating appropriately.
D)up to one-third of the population might be eating poorly.
Answer: D
Q3) Identify and give an example of several factors that influence food choices.
Answer: not answered
Q4) Minerals and water are organic and yield energy in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Leftovers should be used within _____ days.
A)5-7
B)3-4
C)2-3
D)1-2
Essay
Answer: B
Q2) Elevated HDL concentrations are associated with a low risk of heart disease because they:
A)transport newly absorbed lipids from intestinal cells to the rest of the body.
B)carry cholesterol and triglycerides from the liver to the rest of the body.
C)carry lipids around in the blood more often than LDL.
D)take excess cholesterol and phospholipids from the tissues and return them to the liver.
Answer: D
Q3) Outline and trace the path food follows through the digestive tract from one end to the other.
Answer: not answered
Q4) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
Answer: not answered
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ are the basic units of all carbohydrates.
A)monosaccharides
B)disaccharides
C)polysaccharides
D)sucrose molecules
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following fibers is a nonpolysaccharide?
A)cellulose
B)lignin
C)pectin
D)gum
Answer: B
Q3) The hormone that moves glucose from the blood into the cells is:
A)glucagon.
B)insulin.
C)testosterone.
D)sucrose.
Answer: B
Q4) What is blood glucose homeostasis, and how is it achieved within the body?
Answer: not answered
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Ann is watching her weight, which of the following suggestions would be most beneficial to her?
A)Use margarine instead of butter.
B)Switch from whole milk to fat-free milk.
C)Eliminate fat from your diet.
D)Choose processed meats instead of fresh meats.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Saturated fatty acids elevate LDL blood cholesterol.
B)Polyunsaturated fatty acids elevate LDL blood cholesterol.
C)Monounsaturated fatty acids elevate LDL blood cholesterol.
D)Trans fatty acids lower LDL blood cholesterol.
Q3) Characteristics of olestra include all of the following except:
A)it is made with sucrose.
B)it cannot be absorbed by the body.
C)it is used in some snack foods.
D)it can be toxic.
Q4) High intakes of saturated and trans fats increase the risk of heart disease by lowering LDL and raising HDL cholesterol.
A)True
B)False

Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Essential amino acids:
A)are found mostly in plant foods.
B)cannot be synthesized by the body.
C)cannot be supplied by the diet.
D)are the best source of energy for the body.
Q2) The task of acquiring enough vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may pose a problem to vegans because:
A)fibers in vegetables inhibit its absorption.
B)they lack the intrinsic factor.
C)it is found naturally only in animal-derived products.
D)deficiency may occur from excess intake of soy products.
Q3) One reason why proteins in fluids can help determine the fluids' distribution in living systems is that proteins are:
A)large.
B)resistant to heat.
C)attracted to water.
D)small.
Q4) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Q5) What nutrition education would you offer a healthy vegan client?
Q6) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
Page 7
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of alcohol on body weight?
A)Alcohol yields no energy so it does not affect body weight.
B)Alcohol is low in kcalories and has very little effect on body weight.
C)Alcohol slows down the body's use of fat, causing more fat to be stored.
D)Alcohol speeds up the body's metabolism and discourages the storage of body fat.
Q2) In the first few days of fasting, body protein is used primarily to:
A)rebuild tissue.
B)replace worn out cells.
C)provide glucose.
D)stabilize fluid balance.
Q3) Basal metabolic rate is lowered by:
A)loss of lean body mass.
B)stress or fever.
C)high thyroid gland activity.
D)an increase in lean body mass.
Q4) Discuss three indicators used to identify and evaluate the health risks from overweight and obesity.
Q5) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
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Q1) Obese people who are maintaining weight have lower blood levels of ghrelin than thinner people on weight-loss diets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the roles of the built environment and food deserts in the development of obesity.
Q3) A good way to begin a safe and effective weight-loss program is to:
A)keep a food and activity diary.
B)reduce energy intake to 800 kcalories per day.
C)start on a Monday.
D)recognize that the feelings of starvation are inevitable.
Q4) Compared to refined foods, high-fiber, unprocessed, or lightly processed foods aid in weight loss because they provide:
A)less absorption, resulting in fewer kcalories.
B)a faster transit time through the intestinal tract.
C)more kcalories in a larger amount of food.
D)bulk and satiety for fewer kcalories.
Q5) Describe strategies for successful weight gain.
Q6) What are the three characteristics of the female athlete triad?
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Q1) The absorption of iron from iron-containing foods can double or triple when eaten at the same meal with foods containing:
A)folate.
B)protein.
C)vitamin C.
D)calcium.
Q2) Many of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency, such as blindness and an increase in respiratory infections, are related to the role of vitamin A in:
A)blood clotting.
B)synthesis of visual pigments.
C)maintaining the epithelial cells.
D)synthesis of hormones.
Q3) Identify factors that can place people at risk for vitamin E deficiency and explain why.
Q4) Which of the following has an AI?
A)inositol
B)carnitine
C)ubiquinone
D)choline
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Q1) When blood calcium falls too low, a regulatory system acts in three locations to raise it.Which of the following is not one of those locations?
A)stomach
B)small intestine
C)bones
D)kidneys
Q2) The best advice to give a healthy person eating a typical diet who is considering a supplement to improve his health is:
A)Choose a supplement that has been approved by the FDA.
B)Spend your money on fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean meats, and milk products instead.
C)Buy supplements that have the USP symbol on the label for assurance of safety and effectiveness.
D)Choose a supplement that contains the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for maximum effectiveness.
Q3) Describe how the body regulates blood calcium levels.
Q4) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Q5) Discuss the functions of copper in the body.
Q6) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
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Q1) All of the following will support Carrie's efforts to successfully breastfeed her infant except:
A)breastfeeding the infant on demand.
B)offering breast milk on a rigid schedule.
C)drinking ample amounts of fluids.
D)starting breastfeeding immediately after delivery.
Q2) During what period are kcalorie needs per unit of body weight the highest?
A)infancy
B)toddler years
C)childhood
D)adolescence
Q3) Which of the following should be used to feed an infant under one year of age who is being weaned from breast milk?
A)whole milk
B)low-iron infant formula
C)evaporated milk
D)iron-fortified infant formula
Q4) Describe the energy, carbohydrate, and protein needs of a pregnant woman.
Page 12
Q5) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
Q6) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who drinks a lot of milk and won't consume much else is likely to show signs of:
A)anemia.
B)ariboflavinosis.
C)hyperkeratosis.
D)rickets.
E)pellagra.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Normal-weight children naturally regulate their energy intake.
B)The preference for sweet tastes is innate.
C)Children can be trusted to naturally choose healthful foods.
D)Underweight children can be allowed to eat higher-kcal but nutritious snacks.
Q3) The most important risk factor for type 2 diabetes in children is:
A)food intolerances.
B)high cholesterol.
C)obesity.
D)food allergies.
Q4) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
Q5) Describe an ideal treatment program for childhood obesity.
Q6) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers. Page 14
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult complains about the expense of cooking for one.You suggest:
A)purchasing large bags of frozen vegetables.
B)purchasing large bags of shredded cheese.
C)purchasing eggs in large quantities.
D)stocking up on fresh produce when in season.
Q2) Increasing evidence suggests that overweight and obesity in middle age are associated with Alzheimer's disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Older adults at risk nutritionally, such as Mrs.Wylie, should have their diets assessed at medical appointments for:
A)total energy and protein.
B)calcium, iron, and zinc.
C)vitamin B<sub>6</sub>, vitamin B<sub>12</sub>, folate, and vitamin D.
D)all of the above
Q4) Severe fat restriction among older adults may lead to:
A)nutrient deficiencies.
B)weight gain.
C)greater risk of cancer.
D)dehydration.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nursing diagnoses has a nutritional implication?
A)feeding self-care deficit
B)impaired verbal communication
C)bowel incontinence
D)sleep deprivation
Q2) Which of the following is most valuable for evaluating the degree of nutrition risk associated with acute illness?
A)ideal body weight
B)height-weight tables
C)percent ideal body weight
D)percent usual body weight
Q3) All of the following standardized conditions should be used when making repeated weight measures on adults except:
A)weight should be taken at the same time of day.
B)weight must be estimated for bedridden patients.
C)the same scale should be used.
D)weight should be taken after the person has voided.
Q4) List and describe the steps in the nutrition care process.
Q5) Describe how bed rest and immobility compromise nutrition status.
Q6) Describe the types of information collected in a nutrition screening.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients would most benefit from indirect calorimetry?
A)65 yo with hip fracture
B)55 yo undergoing gastric bypass
C)88 yo in the critical care unit for sepsis
D)70 yo with pneumonia
Q2) Using the Mifflin-St.Jeor equation for men (below) and a stress factor of 1.3, estimate the energy needs of Mr.Briggs, who is 33 years old, is 173 cm tall, and weighs 67 kg. RMR = [9.99 * weight (kg)] + [6.25 * height (cm)] - [4.92 * age (years)] + 5
A)1593 kcal
B)1918 kcal
C)2071 kcal
D)2493 kcal
Q3) The nurse removes a patient's meal tray from the meal cart and is not certain that it contains the correct foods for the diet order.The nurse should:
A)call the kitchen.
B)ask the patient.
C)check the diet manual.
D)check the care plan.
Q4) Differentiate between regular and modified diets.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phelebitis may develop as a result of:
A)tube feeding intolerance.
B)refeeding syndrome.
C)peripheral parenteral nutrition.
D)the use of hypertonic formulas.
Q2) Identify and discuss the major factors that influence the selection of an enteral formula.
Q3) Parenteral nutrition can be discontinued when _____ of estimated energy needs are being met by oral intake, tube feeding, or a combination of the two.
A)35-50%
B)25-35%
C)35-75%
D)65-75%
Q4) Aspiration risk is high for all of the following except:
A)patients with esophageal disorders.
B)patients with neuromuscular diseases.
C)patients who are unconscious.
D)patients with renal disease.
Q5) Describe the proper administration of tube feedings.
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Q1) Laura is a critically ill patient.She is 5'4" tall and weighs 150 pounds.What are Laura's protein needs?
A)34-40 grams
B)54-68 grams
C)82-136 grams
D)136-170 grams
Q2) Estimate Kati's energy needs using the Ireton-Jones equation: 1925 + [5 * wt (kg)][10 * age (yr)] + (281 * sex) + (292 * trauma) + (851 * burn).
A)2288
B)2828
C)3420
D)3240
Q3) A parenteral feeding should supply no more than _____ milligrams of dextrose per kilogram of body weight per minute.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q4) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
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Sample Questions
Q1) General discomfort in the upper abdominal area with complaints of stomach pain, gnawing sensations, fullness, nausea, and bloating is descriptive of:
A)peptic ulcer disease.
B)dyspepsia.
C)hiatal hernia.
D)Sjögren's syndrome.
Q2) To avoid dehydration, the patient who has undergone bariatric surgery should:
A)sip water and other noncaloric beverages throughout the day.
B)drink plenty of fluids with meals.
C)increase intake of foods with high water content.
D)drink sports drinks.
Use the following case study to answer questions 40-45.
Jennie Wilson is a 42-year-old administrative assistant who recently underwent gastric bypass surgery to treat her obesity and weight-related problems: diabetes and hypertension.Ms.Wilson will need nutrition education before being discharged from the hospital.
Q3) List the symptoms of dumping syndrome and explain the sequence of events that results in these symptoms.
Q4) Define dysphagia and explain the dietary treatment for this disorder.
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Q1) The dietary adjustments frequently recommended for the person with irritable bowel syndrome include all of the following except:
A)avoiding fried and fatty foods.
B)avoiding alcohol.
C)consuming small, frequent meals.
D)consuming a high-protein diet.
Q2) The treatment for irritable bowel syndrome includes all of the following except:
A)surgery.
B)dietary adjustments.
C)stress management.
D)behavioral therapy.
Q3) To be considered "probiotic," bacteria must meet all of the following criteria except:
A)they must be nonpathogenic when consumed.
B)they must be able to survive transit through the digestive tract.
C)they must be able to alter the intestinal environment in a beneficial way.
D)they must produce gas as a by-product of their activity.
Q4) A colostomy involves removal of the entire colon.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Organs affected by alcohol abuse include all of the following except the:
A)lungs.
B)liver.
C)GI tract.
D)heart.
Q2) Fat should be restricted in the diet of all clients with cirrhosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following results when bilirubin accumulates in the bloodstream?
A)jaundice
B)ascites
C)hepatic coma
D)mental disturbances
Q4) Ascites is exacerbated by:
A)low plasma albumin levels.
B)abdominal pressure.
C)hyperglycemia.
D)amino acid imbalances.
Q5) Describe why ascites, portal hypertension, and esophageal varices occur in clients with cirrhosis.
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Q1) Mr.Joiner's blood glucose level meets the criteria for a diagnosis of:
A)type 1 diabetes.
B)type 2 diabetes.
C)prediabetes.
D)ketoacidosis.
Q2) Acetone breath is characteristic of hypoglycemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which group of symptoms is characteristic of the metabolic syndrome?
A)insulin resistance, abdominal obesity, reduced HDL cholesterol levels
B)hypertension, hypoglycemia, abdominal obesity
C)elevated liver enzymes, insulin resistance, microalbuminuria
D)polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
Q4) The diet for diabetes should provide less than _____ milligrams of cholesterol per day.
A)100
B)200
C)300
D)500
Q5) What is the "honeymoon period" associated with diabetes treatment?
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Q1) The number of deaths from CVD is greater among men than women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Clinical studies suggest that an overweight hypertensive individual can reduce blood pressure by losing weight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes often have small, dense LDL, elevated VLDL levels, and low HDL levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Q5) Ischemia refers to a deficiency of blood and oxygen delivery to the tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Weight loss is associated with all of the following except:
A)a decline in blood pressure.
B)a decrease in LDL cholesterol.
C)an increase in triglycerides.
D)a decrease in insulin resistance.

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Q1) Following kidney transplantation, dietary restrictions:
A)are more strict.
B)are liberalized.
C)can replace immunosuppressive therapy.
D)determine whether the body rejects the kidney.
Q2) Weight gain can become a problem when peritoneal dialysis continues for an extended period of time.This is likely due to:
A)the kcalories contributed by the dialysate.
B)a less restrictive diet.
C)food cravings experienced by the patient.
D)the body's adaptation to dialysis.
Q3) Individuals on peritoneal dialysis have lower protein needs than those on hemodialysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acidosis can worsen:
A)blood pressure.
B)malnutrition.
C)renal osteodystrophy.
D)GFR.
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Q1) Most cancer patients abandon conventional treatments and use alternative therapies in the place of conventional therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A female cancer patient tells the nurse that she has begun taking St.John's wort in conjunction with her cancer therapy.The nurse should respond by saying:
A)"Be sure you take the dose as prescribed on the bottle."
B)"Be sure you are buying a brand-name supplement."
C)"St.John's wort may reduce the effectiveness of your cancer therapy."
D)"I've read that St.John's wort can cure cancer, too."
Q3) The symptoms that Ms.Arther is experiencing are consistent with:
A)radiation enteritis.
B)tissue rejection.
C)steatorrhea.
D)lipodystrophy.
Q4) Untreated HIV infection can increase a person's susceptibility to opportunistic infections such as Kaposi's sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
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