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Fundamentals of Human Biology provides an introduction to the structure and function of the human body at the molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels. The course covers the essential principles of anatomy and physiology, including topics such as cell biology, genetics, metabolism, and organ system interactions. Students will explore how the body maintains homeostasis and adapts to internal and external changes. Emphasis is placed on understanding both normal biological processes and common human health issues, laying a strong foundation for further study in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology 4th Edition by Eldra Pearl Solomon
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Q1) The body regulates metabolic activities to maintain _______, the appropriate internal environment, or steady state.
A) homeostasis
B) environment
C) temperature
D) ATP
Answer: A
Q2) _______ is a nucleic acid that functions mainly in the expression of the cell's genetic information for the manufacturing of proteins.
A) DNA
B) ATP
C) Glucose
D) RNA
Answer: D
Q3) Why is it important to view the body as a whole?
Answer: It is important to view the body as a whole because all organ systems are integrated and dependent upon each . Each cell, tissue, and organ relies on body parts for oxygen, nutrition, regulation, repair, waste disposal, and protection.
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Q1) _______ tissue stores fat and releases it when the body needs energy.
A) Loose connective
B) Adipose
C) Muscle
D) Cardiac
Answer: B
Q2) I ____________
A)Mitochondrion
B)Plasma membrane
C)Ribosomes
D)Centrioles
E)Nucleolus
F)Cytoplasm
G)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
H)Nucleus
I)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
J)Lysosome
K)Golgi complex
Answer: C
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Q1) The _______ is the body's tough, outer protective covering.
A) stratum basale
B) skin
C) dermis
D) subcutaneous layer
Answer: B
Q2) Nails appear pink because _______.
A) they are made of keratin
B) they contain melanin
C) of underlying capillaries
D) of their carotene content
Answer: C
Q3) _______, also known as oil glands, are generally attached to hair follicles.
A) Sebaceous glands
B) Papillae
C) Sweat glands
D) Arrector pili
Answer: A
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Q1) The neural arch _______.
A) is the body of a vertebra
B) contains the spinal cord
C) is the posterior, curved region of a vertebra
D) is protected by an intervertebral disk
Q2) The main shaft of a long bone is known as its _______.
A) epiphysis
B) metaphysis
C) cartilage
D) diaphysis
Q3) The _______ is/are not part of the axial skeleton.
A) sternum
B) skull
C) ribs
D) pelvic girdle
Q4) Compact bone consists of interlocking, spindle-shaped units called_______.
A) lacunae
B) articular cartilage
C) osteons
D) osteoblasts
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Q1) The gastrocnemius muscle _______.
A) rotates the thigh laterally
B) abducts the arm
C) flexes the trunk
D) flexes the knee
Q2) C ___________
A)Tensor fasciae latae
B)External oblique
C)Rectus abdominis
D)Aponeurosis of internal oblique
E)Transversus abdominis
F)Internal oblique
G)Aponeurosis of external oblique
Q3) The biceps brachii _______.
A) flexes the elbow
B) rotates the arm medially
C) flexes the trunk
D) flexes the knee
Q4) What might happen if a body is unable to produce enough acetylcholinesterase to break down acetylcholine?
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Q1) G __________
A)Occipital lobe
B)Prefrontal area
C)Parietal lobe
D)Cerebellum
E)Frontal lobe
F)Central sulcus
G)Temporal lobe
H)Medulla
I)Cerebrum
Q2) The cerebellum is responsible for _______.
A) maintaining fluid balance
B) coordination of movement
C) regulation of body temperature
D) emotional behavior
Q3) The resting potential of a neuron is maintained by _______.
A) transmission of an impulse along the neuron
B) sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane
C) passive ion channels
D) voltage-activated channels
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Q1) Neurons from the _______ region innervate the eye, structures of the head, and thoracic and abdominal organs.
A) cranial
B) sacral
C) lumbar
D) thoracic
Q2) The _______ system is most active during periods of calm and physical rest.
A) sympathetic
B) paravertebral
C) parasympathetic
D) peripheral nervous
Q3) There are _______ pairs of cervical spinal nerves, _______ pairs of thoracic spinal nerves, and _______ pairs of lumbar spinal nerves.
A) 5; 12; 8
B) 5; 8; 12
C) 8; 12; 5
D) 8; 5; 12
Q4) How would messages from the brain be affected if the spinal cord became damaged?
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Q1) The receptors for hearing are the _______.
A) vestibular nerves
B) perilymph and endolymph
C) ossicles
D) organs of Corti in the cochlea
Q2) F __________
A)Round window
B)Oval window
C)Eustachian tube
D)Cochlear nerve
E)Pinna
F)Semicircular canals
G)Ossicles
H)External auditory meatus
I)Cochlea
J)Tympanic membrane
K)Vestibule
Q3) How do eyeglasses correct vision?
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Q1) The adrenal medulla secretes _______.
A) cortisol
B) norepinephrine
C) ACTH
D) glucocorticoids
Q2) B __________
A)Pancreas
B)Thymus
C)Testis
D)Hypothalamus
E)Pituitary
F)Pineal
G)Ovary
H)Parathyroid glands
I)Adrenal
J)Thyroid
Q3) Why is it advantageous for endocrine glands to be ductless, releasing their secretions directly into surrounding interstitial (tissue) fluid or into the blood?
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Q1) Thrombin acts as an enzyme to convert the plasma protein fibrinogen to _______, a fibrous protein that forms long threads.
A) agglutinate
B) fibrin
C) antibodies
D) hemolysis
Q2) What would be the effect of platelet transfusion between individuals with different ABO blood types?
Q3) _______ are important acid-base buffers.
A) Plasma proteins
B) Neutrophils
C) Gamma globulins
D) Stem cells
Q4) _______ transport(s) nutrients, oxygen, hormones, and waste products.
A) Blood
B) White blood cells
C) Fibrinogen
D) Platelets
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Q1) Each heartbeat is initiated by the _______, or pacemaker.
A) Purkinje fibers
B) mitral valve
C) atrioventricular bundle
D) SA node
Q2) The condition in which the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute is called _______.
A) normal heart rate
B) tachycardia
C) coronary artery disease
D) bradycardia
Q3) F ___________
A)Pulmonary semilunar valve
B)Aorta
C)Left atrium
D)Right ventricle
E)Left ventricle
F)Right atrium
Q4) Based on what you have learned about how the sinoatrial (SA) node works, describe how a mechanical pacemaker would function to assist the heart.
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Q1) The two _______ pass through the foramen magnum and join on the ventral surface of the brain stem.
A) carotid arteries
B) basilar arteries
C) jugular veins
D) vertebral arteries
Q2) A _________
A)Aortic arch
B)Right common carotid
C)Ascending aorta
D)Brachiocephalic
E)Abdominal aorta (part of descending aorta)
F)Left common carotid
G)Celiac trunk
H)Thoracic aorta
Q3) Blood pressure depends on _______.
A) blood flow × blood viscosity
B) blood flow × peripheral resistance
C) pulmonary pressure × aortic pressure
D) blood volume × blood flow
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Q1) Antibodies of the IgG and IgM groups activate _______.
A) the complement system
B) cytokines
C) antigens
D) immunosuppression
Q2) _______ remain in lymph tissue for many years after an infection.
A) Memory T cells
B) Macrophages
C) Helper T cells
D) Killer B cells
Q3) A second exposure to an antigen, even years after the first exposure, ________.
A) results in a much more rapid immune response
B) stimulates an immune response that requires about 2 weeks to be effective
C) stimulates complement production
D) stimulates passive immunity
Q4) An antigen-antibody complex _______.
A) attacks mast cells
B) stimulates phagocytes to destroy pathogens
C) presents antigens to plasma cells
D) releases histamines

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Q1) The vital link between the alveoli and the body cells is the _______.
A) bronchial tree
B) diaphragm
C) circulatory system
D) lungs
Q2) The _______ is often referred to as the voice box.
A) epiglottis
B) pharynx
C) larynx
D) hilus
Q3) The trachea divides into the right and left primary _______.
A) larynx
B) pharynx
C) bronchioles
D) bronchi
Q4) The _______ is more popularly known as the voice box.
A) pharynx
B) larynx
C) trachea
D) bronchioles
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Q1) The first 22 cm of the small intestine make up the _______, which is curved like the letter C.
A) jejunum
B) ileum
C) colon
D) duodenum
Q2) The amount of energy used by the body per unit of time is a measure of _______.
A) calories
B) metabolic rate
C) nutritional status
D) malnutrition
Q3) The villi in the lining of the small intestine _______.
A) produce pepsin
B) increase the surface area for digestion and absorption
C) secrete alkaline mucus
D) secrete bile
Q4) In addition to the damage from obesity, why is it a health problem to substitute unhealthy foods for nutritious foods?
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Q1) The principal metabolic by-products are _______.
A) amino acids, nucleic acids, carbon monoxide, and glucose
B) water, protein, and carbon monoxide
C) carbon dioxide, nitrogenous wastes, and glucose
D) water, carbon dioxide, and nitrogenous wastes
Q2) A __________
A)Afferent arteriole
B)Glomerulus
C)Bowman's capsule
D)Proximal convoluted tubule
E)Loop of Henle
F)Collecting duct
G)Distal convoluted tubule
H)Efferent arteriole
Q3) Urine is temporarily stored in the _______ before discharge.
A) urethra
B) urinary bladder
C) kidney
D) renal cortex
Q4) What might a reduction in urine production and darkly colored urine indicate?
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Q1) I __________
A)Bulbourethral gland
B)Urethra
C)Epididymis
D)Vas deferens
E)Ejaculatory duct
F)Glans penis
G)Seminal vesicle
H)Penis
I)Scrotum
J)Prostate gland
Q2) Sperm leaving the epididymis next pass into the _______.
A) seminiferous tubules
B) ejaculatory duct
C) vas deferens
D) urethra
Q3) Why do males ejaculate millions of sperm when only one sperm is required for fertilization?
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Q1) Before a cell divides to form two cells, the chromosomes are precisely duplicated and the cell undergoes _______.
A) phagocytosis
B) osmosis
C) mitosis
D) interphase
Q2) The portion of the hair below the surface of the skin, along with its epithelial and connective tissue coverings, is called the _______.
A) shaft
B) hair follicle
C) gooseflesh
D) arrector pili
Q3) _______ is a type of protein that gives color to both hair and skin.
A) Collagen
B) Sebum
C) Vitamin D
D) Melanin
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Q1) C __________
A)Mandible
B)Maxilla
C)Nasal
D)Parietal
E)Temporal
Q2) The first step in any type of neural action is _______.
A) transmission of impulses to the spinal cord
B) integration in the brain
C) transmission to the brain
D) receptors receive a stimulus
Q3) D __________
A)Mandible
B)Maxilla
C)Nasal
D)Parietal
E)Temporal
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Q1) The muscle that contracts to produce a particular action is known as the prime mover, or _______.
A) antagonist
B) origin
C) agonist
D) insertion
Q2) In a(n) _______ contraction, muscle fibers shorten and thicken.
A) origination
B) isometric
C) fatigued
D) isotonic
Q3) E _________
A)Carpels
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Metatarsals
E)Pubic symphysis
F)Radius
G)Sternum
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Q1) The brain stem includes the _______.
A) cerebrum, midbrain, and pons
B) medulla, midbrain, and pons
C) medulla, cerebrum, and pons
D) cerebrum, midbrain, and medulla
Q2) Each spinal nerve is attached by the _______.
A) dorsal root
B) spinal ganglion
C) ventral root
D) both A and C
Q3) The _______ is the second largest part of the brain and is responsible for coordination of movement.
A) medulla
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) pons
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Q1) Sympathetic nerves release the neurotransmitter _______, which speeds the heart rate and increases the strength of contraction.
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) beta blocker
Q2) The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle during one beat is called the
A) stroke volume
B) cardiac cycle
C) cardiac output
D) coronary bypass
Q3) Each heartbeat is initiated by the _______.
A) sinoatrial (SA) node
B) bicuspid
C) atrioventricular (AV) node
D) AV bundle
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
A) Helps maintain fluid balance
B) Defends the body against disease
C) Absorbs lipids from the intestine
D) Produces renin
Q2) From the seminiferous tubules, sperm next enters the _______.
A) testis
B) vas deferens
C) ejaculatory duct
D) epididymis
Q3) The kidney consists of an outer renal _______ and an inner renal _______.
A) medulla; cortex
B) pyramid; cortex
C) cortex; pyramid
D) cortex; medulla
Q4) An autoimmune disease may develop when ______.
A) complement proteins are overactive
B) the immune system attacks self-molecules
C) cytokines activate B cells
D) HIV infects helper T cells
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Q1) D ________
A)Cervix
B)Ovary
C)Uterine tube
D)Vagina
Q2) Bile is stored and concentrated in the pear-shaped ________.
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) gallbladder
D) spleen
Q3) Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
A) 1A
B) 2C
C) 3D
D) 4E
Q4) From the cecum to the rectum, the large intestine is known as the _______.
A) anus
B) colon
C) vermiform appendix
D) transverse colon Page 26
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