Fundamentals of Human Biology
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Course
Introduction
Fundamentals of Human Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure and function of the human body, exploring the foundational principles of biology as they relate to human systems. This course covers topics such as cell biology, genetics, anatomy, physiology, and the interrelationships between major organ systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how the body maintains homeostasis, responds to internal and external stimuli, and how disruptions in biological processes can lead to disease. Through discussions, laboratory investigations, and case studies, students gain essential knowledge to support further studies in health sciences, biology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by David Shier
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A subcellular structure built of assemblies of macromolecules that carries out a particular function is a(n) _____________.
Answer: organelle
Q2) Which of the following organs is in the abdominopelvic cavity?
A) The heart
B) The trachea
C) The thymus
D) The liver
Answer: D
Q3) The anatomical term that indicates a structure close to the surface is
A) anterior.
B) proximal.
C) superficial.
D) superior.
Answer: C
Q4) Organ systems consist of organs, which consist of tissues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are A) bases.
B) nucleotides.
C) acids.
D) electrons.
Answer: C
Q2) Exposure to ionizing radiation may A) cloud the lens of the eye.
B) cause cancer.
C) interfere with normal growth.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) An acid is an electrolyte that releases hydroxide ions (OH<sup>-</sup>) in water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) When atoms form chemical bonds, the subatomic particles that directly interact are the ________.
Answer: electrons
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microfilaments and microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following does not influence the rate of diffusion?
A) Distance
B) The concentration of the substance
C) The amount of energy available for transport molecules
D) The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules
Answer: C
Q3) A selectively permeable membrane
A) allows all substances to pass through.
B) allows all organic substances to pass through but excludes all inorganic substances.
C) allows some substances to pass through and excludes others.
D) does not allow any substances to pass through.
Answer: C
Q4) A partly specialized cell that is the daughter of a stem cell is a ________ cell.
Answer: progenitor
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule that is common to carbohydrate and lipid metabolic pathways and connects these two pathways metabolically is
A) glucose.
B) pyruvic acid.
C) acetyl coenzyme A.
D) glycogen.
Q2) The correspondence between a unit of DNA information and an amino acid is the genetic ______.
Q3) Codons are three contiguous mRNA bases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Humans require vitamins in their diets because these nutrients
A) provide energy.
B) are broken down by catabolic reactions.
C) bond with minerals.
D) act as coenzymes.
Q5) Dehydration synthesis is catabolic and hydrolysis is anabolic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its _________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collagen is a major component of A) bone.
B) ligaments and tendons.
C) connective tissue.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The tissue that forms the outermost layer of the skin is a type of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mutations usually disrupt collagen's function because
A) there are many types of collagen and this protein is widespread in the body.
B) collagen has a variable structure.
C) collagen has a very precise structure.
D) collagen is used as a cosmetic.
Q4) A mucus-secreting goblet cell is a unicellular gland.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Intercellular junctions include gap junctions, tight junctions, and desmosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hardness of a nail comes from A) carotene.
B) collagen.
C) calcium.
D) keratin.
Q2) A future treatment for baldness may potentially be
A) head massages.
B) high protein shakes.
C) scalp transplants.
D) stem cells from the bulb region at the base of hair follicles.
Q3) Cutaneous carcinomas are usually caused by regular exposure to A) X-rays.
B) gamma radiation.
C) ultraviolet light.
D) mutagenic chemicals.
Q4) The major blood vessels that supply the skin lie between the dermis and the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ______________ of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thyroid hormone thyroxine ______.
A) increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate
B) stimulates osteoclasts
C) stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate
D) removes calcium from bone
Q2) The term "bone" can refer to
A) a tissue, an organ, or a type of cell.
B) a tissue or an organ only.
C) a tissue only
D) an organ only.
Q3) Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are
A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts.
B) chondrocytes and osteocytes.
C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
D) osteoclasts and phagocytes.
Q4) Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
B) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C) The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
D) The female iliac bones are less flared.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moving a part backward is called ______.
Q2) The joint between adjacent vertebral bodies is a A) symphysis that is amphiarthrotic.
B) symphysis that is synarthrotic.
C) symphysis that is diarthrotic.
D) synovial that is synarthrotic.
Q3) A fibrous joint in which an interosseous ligament binds bones is a A) suture.
B) syndesmosis.
C) gomphosis.
D) symphysis.
Q4) Kicking a soccer ball is flexion of the leg at the knee joint as the foot draws back and then extension as it contacts the ball.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A shiny, vascular lining of loose connective tissue that forms the inner layer of the joint capsule is the _______ membrane.
Q6) The bodies of adjacent vertebrae are separated by ______ ______ that act as shock absorbers.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The buccinator muscle is in the A) buttocks.
B) chest.
C) bladder.
D) cheek.
Q2) A muscle that assists the agonist is a(n)
A) antagonist.
B) prime mover.
C) mediator.
D) synergist.
Q3) A sign of aging of the muscular system is
A) expansion of muscle fiber diameters.
B) decreased supplies of myoglobin to muscles.
C) excess ATP.
D) increased creatine phosphate.
Q4) The combining of a series of twitches to produce a more forceful contraction is called ______.
Q5) ATP is necessary for muscle relaxation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a neurotransmitter hyperpolarizes a cell membrane and an action potential is less likely, the change is called ______ ______ ______.
Q2) In reuptake
A) an action potential reverses direction.
B) a neuropeptide breaks down into amino acids, which act as neurotransmitters.
C) a neurotransmitter that has already been released into the synaptic cleft is taken back into the synaptic knob of the presynaptic neuron or into nearby neuroglia or neurons.
D) an enzyme breaks down a neurotransmitter and then another enzyme builds it back up.
Q3) An impulse conducted along an axon consists of a wave of ______ ______ moving away from a point of stimulation.
Q4) Drugs that increase the actions of norepinephrine and/or serotonin by keeping them in synapses longer are most likely used to treat A) multiple sclerosis. B) Tay-Sachs disease. C) clinical depression. D) erectile dysfunction.
Q5) Muscles and glands that respond to nervous stimulation are called _______.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Division of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn has a CT scan of the brain to identify a cause of seizures. The scan showed no convolutions (gyri) of the cerebral cortex. She has
A) lissencephaly.
B) anencephaly.
C) spina bifida.
D) leakage of cerebrospinal fluid.
Q2) If the right lateral spinothalamic tract is severed,
A) muscles on the left side are paralyzed.
B) muscles on the right side are paralyzed.
C) pain impulses from the left side are blocked.
D) pain impulses from the right side are blocked.
Q3) Which of the following are generally adrenergic fibers?
A) Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
B) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers
C) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers
D) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers
Q4) Brain damage to the temporal lobe, where recent memory is processed, can impair long-term memory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Receptors that are stimulated by changes in chemical concentrations are called thermoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Another name for pain receptors is
A) tactile corpuscles.
B) lamellated corpuscles.
C) nociceptors.
D) mechanoreceptors.
Q3) The Golgi tendon organ is stimulated more when
A) muscles are metabolically active and produce oxygen.
B) muscle tension increases.
C) muscle tension decreases.
D) muscle tension stays the same.
Q4) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called ____________ .
Q5) Light is refracted when it passes
A) between media of the same optical density.
B) into glass at a right angle.
C) between media of different optical densities at a right angle.
D) between media of different optical densities at an oblique angle.
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thymus gland secretes hormones called _____ that _______.
A) thyroxines; control metabolism
B) melatonins; control circadian rhythms
C) prostaglandins; control strength
D) thymosins; control production and differentiation of white blood cells
Q2) The blood concentration of growth hormone
A) rises in females after menopause.
B) varies greatly in males during adulthood.
C) drops at puberty and rises after adolescence.
D) rises at puberty and levels off after adolescence.
Q3) A nonsteroid hormone acts on a target cell by
A) causing synthesis of a second messenger.
B) stimulating cell division.
C) promoting phagocytosis.
D) directly causing protein synthesis.
Q4) The hormone that stimulates the release of growth hormone is called ______ ______-______ ______.
Q5) A person under stress may have a lowered resistance to infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally the most common type of leukocyte in a blood sample is the
.
Q2) The normal white blood cell count is
A) 500-1,000 cells per microliter of blood.
B) 4,500-10,000 cells per microliter of blood.
C) 45,000-100,000 cells per microliter of blood.
D) 5,000,000-10,000,000 cells per microliter of blood.
Q3) A person with type AB blood can successfully receive blood from a person with type ___________ blood.
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) all of the above
Q4) The test that determines the percentages of various types of leukocytes in a blood sample is the _____ white blood cell count.
Q5) The formed elements in the blood are
A) mostly red blood cells.
B) mostly white blood cells.
C) mostly platelets.
D) about equal numbers of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs?
A) Right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle, tricuspid valve
B) Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve
C) Right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve
D) Right ventricle, pulmonary valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle
Q2) Water and dissolved substances leave the arteriole end of a capillary due to ____, and enter the venule end of a capillary due to ______.
A) hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure; active transport being greater than osmotic pressure
B) osmotic pressure being higher than hydrostatic pressure; hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure
C) hydrostatic pressure being higher than osmotic pressure; osmotic pressure being higher than hydrostatic pressure
D) osmosis; active transport
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two mechanical barriers to infection are interferon and inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lymph is ______ ______ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.
Q3) Fluid is kept from accumulating in tissue spaces by A) sweating.
B) breathing.
C) the urinary system.
D) the lymphatic system.
Q4) A primary immune response ______, and a secondary immune response ______.
A) is very important; is less important to the body's ability to protect itself
B) produces antibodies within five to ten days of exposure to antigens; produces antibodies within a day or two of a subsequent exposure to the same antigen
C) is very rapid in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens; is very slow in producing antibodies after exposure to antigens
D) occurs only in children; occurs only in adults
Q5) A population of lymphocytes whose members are all alike and are capable of responding to the same specific antigen is called a(n) _______.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater omentum is composed of
A) the peritoneal membrane.
B) the pericardial membrane.
C) the pleural membrane.
D) the hiatal membrane.
Q2) Enlarged blood vessels of the anal columns are called A) peritonitis.
B) hemorrhoids.
C) diarrhea.
D) flatulence.
Q3) Because of their location, swollen palatine tonsils may interfere with A) breathing.
B) swallowing.
C) both breathing and swallowing.
D) neither breathing nor swallowing.
Q4) The epiglottis is attached to the A) esophagus.
B) trachea.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 75% of the minerals in the body are in bones and teeth as calcium and phosphorus, and homeostatic mechanisms regulate their concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gram for gram, carbohydrate provides about twice as much energy as protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fat-soluble vitamins are
A) absorbed more readily in the presence of bile salts.
B) excreted rapidly by the kidneys.
C) easily destroyed by heat during cooking.
D) not stored in tissues.
Q4) Hannah eats tremendous amounts of food, but then takes laxatives, vomits, and exercises to keep from gaining weight. She has an eating disorder called ____.
Q5) Intrinsic factor regulates the absorption of A) biotin.
B) folacin.
C) vitamin B<sub>6</sub>.
D) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breathing rate increases during exercise due to
A) signals from the cerebral cortex to the respiratory areas when it also signals skeletal muscles to contract.
B) stimulation of the respiratory areas by decreasing blood concentration of oxygen and increasing blood concentration of carbon dioxide.
C) a joint reflex.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Of the respiratory air volumes listed, which one has the largest volume?
A) Expiratory reserve volume
B) Inspiratory reserve volume
C) Vital capacity
D) Tidal volume
Q3) The chloride shift
A) maintains the ionic balance between the red blood cells and the plasma.
B) inflates alveoli while decreasing oxygen delivery to tissues.
C) replaces carbonic anhydrase.
D) regulates the amount of salt in the large intestine compared to the small intestine.
Q4) In a mixture of gases, each gas creates a pressure called its ______ ______.
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells in the _________ produce ADH.
Q2) Michael is 26 years old. He becomes dehydrated after a long run if he has not drunk enough. His infant son Sean, however, becomes dehydrated fairly frequently. This difference in susceptibility to dehydration is because
A) adults drink more liquid.
B) infants grow rapidly.
C) infant kidneys are less able to conserve water.
D) the infant thirst mechanism is underdeveloped.
Q3) Kidney shrinkage with age is due to
A) spooling of collecting ducts.
B) loss of glomeruli.
C) merging of proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
D) proliferating nephron loops.
Q4) An increase in sodium reabsorption increases water reabsorption by actively transporting water into the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Uric acid results from the metabolism of _____ _____.
Q6) Water is reabsorbed throughout most of the renal tubule by the process of _____.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Based Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water of metabolism is
A) water that a person drinks after exercising.
B) water that is in food.
C) a by-product of the oxidative metabolism of nutrients.
D) present only in adults.
Q2) The part of the brain that helps regulate hydrogen ion concentrations is the _______ center.
Q3) The thirst mechanism is usually not triggered until the volume of the body water has been decreased by 5-10%.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Respiratory alkalosis can be
A) caused by anything that decreases breathing rate.
B) compensated for by a decreased secretion of bases in the kidneys.
C) compensated for by a decreased respiratory rate.
D) characterized by muscle paralysis.
Q5) The concentration of calcium ions in extracellular fluid is regulated primarily by a hormone secreted by the _____ glands.
Q6) Arterial blood with a pH above 7.45 produces _____________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is unpaired?
A) Seminal vesicle
B) Ductus deferens
C) Bulbourethral gland
D) Prostate gland
Q2) The tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the A) fundus.
B) cervix.
C) perimetrium.
D) endometrium.
Q3) Oral contraceptives may cause
A) increased skin pigmentation.
B) breast tenderness.
C) fluid retention.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Measles can inflame the testes, impairing fertility by destroying cells in the seminiferous tubules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nuclei from the approaching sperm and egg are called A) prenuceli
B) mononuclei
C) pronuclei
D) gametocytes.
Q2) The structure that surrounds the cell membrane of the secondary oocyte is the ___
Q3) The adolescent period begins at the end of the first year and completes at puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After birth, the ductus arteriosus constricts and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As a rule, during adulthood
A) skeletal muscles tend to lose strength.
B) the circulatory system becomes less efficient.
C) the skin becomes less elastic.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia A is
A) due to an X-linked dominant gene.
B) passed from affected males to their sons.
C) more common in females.
D) a defect in the clotting mechanism.
Q2) In von Willebrand disease, which is either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant, clotting time slows and the person bruises and bleeds easily. Not everyone who inherits the disease genotype actually develops the phenotype. Affected individuals have differing degrees of difficulty in clotting of blood. This condition is
A) completely penetrant, variably expressive, and not genetically heterogeneic.
B) incompletely penetrant, variably expressive, and genetically heterogeneic.
C) completely penetrant, invariably expressive, and not genetically heterogeneic.
D) pleiotropic and genetically heterogeneic
Q3) A human cell that has 47 chromosomes is
A) monosomic.
B) euploid.
C) polyploid.
D) trisomic.
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