Fundamentals of Human Anatomy Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Human Anatomy offers a comprehensive introduction to the structure and organization of the human body. This course covers basic anatomical terminology, the major organ systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems and the relationships between their structures and functions. Emphasis is placed on understanding anatomical concepts through lectures, visual aids, and practical examinations, equipping students with foundational knowledge essential for further study in health, medicine, or biological sciences.
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Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells working together to perform a specific function
A)Chemical
B)Organelle
C)Cellular
D)Tissue
E)Organ
F)System
G)Organism
Answer: D
Q2) The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the:
A)brain.
B)spinal column.
C)spinal cord.
D)thyroid gland.
Answer: D
Q3) List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback.
A)negative
B)positive
C)inhibitory
D)deviating
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop?
A)Effector mechanism
B)Transmitter
C)Sensor
D)Integrating center
Answer: B
Q3) Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations.
A)occurrence
B)distribution
C)transmission
D)All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Household ammonia, an 11 on the pH scale
A) Acid
B) Base Answer: B
Q2) An atom is chemically inert if its outermost shell has two pairs of electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The pH scale indicates the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The hydrogen isotope tritium consists of:
A)one proton.
B)one proton and one neutron.
C)two protons and one neutron.
D)one proton and two neutrons.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component.
A)a lipid and a protein; the lipid
B)carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate
C)a lipid and a protein; the protein
D)carbohydrate and protein; protein
Q2) Nucleic acid that contains thymine and deoxyribose sugar
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Carbohydrate
D)Fat
E)Steroid
F)Protein
G)Prostaglandins
H)ATP
Q3) When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H ion is released.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell connections that form tunnels between cells and are found in heart muscles
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q2) Damage to the centrosome and centrioles in a cell would have the greatest impact on which cell function?
A)Energy production
B)Protein synthesis
C)Cell division
D)Synthesis of lipids and carbohydrates
Q3) Explain the functions of the cell membrane.
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrostatic pressure in the blood is:
A)generated by the contraction of the heart.
B)generated by gravity.
C)important to the functioning of the kidney.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The small water channels in the cell membrane are called:
A)phospholipid molecules.
B)transport pumps.
C)aquaporins.
D)transport vesicles.
Q3) Allosteric effectors activate or inactivate enzymes by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anaerobic respiration is about 17 times more efficient in producing ATP than is aerobic respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the three types of vesicle-mediated transport and explain how they are different.
8
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription can be best described as the:
A)degradation of tRNA.
B)reading of mRNA codons by tRNA.
C)replication of DNA.
D)synthesis of mRNA.
Q2) Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi?
Q3) Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as:
A)haploid.
B)diploid.
C)myoid.
D)dioid.
Q4) Explain the difference in the cells formed by mitosis and meiosis. Why is this difference important?
Q5) The complete set of proteins that can be made by the cell is called its proteome. A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the process of DNA replication.
Q7) Describe the structure of a DNA molecule. What is the importance of the "triplet"?
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matrix may be defined as the living intracellular material surrounding the cells of a tissue.
A)True B)False
Q2) Collagen is a rubbery substance that is held in a fibrous shape by long, thin microfilaments.
A)True B)False
Q3) During a heart attack, heart muscle is damaged. Explain why, even when a person is fully "recovered," the heart is not as good as new.
Q4) Name and differentiate the two types of stem cells. What are some possible uses for stem cells?
Q5) The study of how the primary germ layers differentiate into the different kinds of tissues is called histogenesis.
A)True B)False
Q6) Cells in the embryo begin the process of cell differentiation. A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteocytes were once osteoclasts that became trapped in the hardening bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An axon is an important part of which kind of tissue?
A)Nervous
B)Smooth muscle
C)Cardiac muscle
D)Glandular epithelium
Q3) Which is not a function of connective tissue?
A)Transport
B)Support
C)Defense
D)Communication
Q4) Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue?
A)Glucosamine
B)Collagen
C)Hyaluronic acid
D)All of the above are proteoglycans.
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The death of melanocytes in the hair follicle of older people causes the hair to turn gray.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The skin of an infant is more easily damaged by penetration or abrasion than that of an adult. Which layer is probably thinner in an infant than in an adult?
A)Stratum basale
B)Stratum corneum
C)Stratum lucidum
D)Stratum spinosum
Q3) If a person were in a totally bacteria-free environment, any sweat produced would have no odor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hair follicles and skin glands, made up of epithelial tissue, extend from the epidermis into the reticular layer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter.
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the six structures of long bones that are visible to the naked eye.
Q2) In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: A)osteoclasts.
B)osteocytes.
C)osteoblasts.
D)chondrocytes.
Q3) Because of repeated wear and tear, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than people who exercise less often.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tensile strength of bone is nearly equal to that of cast iron, but much lighter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Articular cartilage can be defined as a layer of elastic cartilage that covers the joint surface.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and describe the parts of the osteon.
Q7) Describe the two chemical components of the extracellular bone matrix.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dens are found on the second cervical vertebra, or axis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of thoracic vertebrae is:
A)5.
B)7.
C)10.
D)12.
Q3) Which bone is a part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)Scapula
B)Vertebra
C)Parietal
D)Mandible
Q4) The top of the skull is also called the calvaria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) There are more bones in the appendicular skeleton than in the axial skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the hyoid bone, including shape, location, and any unique features.
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:
A)pelvic outlet.
B)symphysis pubis.
C)pelvic brim.
D)ilium.
Q2) The ulna bone is on the thumb side of the forearm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following may cause skeletal variations?
A)Inadequate supply of calcium and vitamin D
B)Mechanical stress
C)Age
D)All of the above may cause skeletal variations
Q4) The trochlea and capitulum can be described as:
A)markings on the scapula.
B)parts of the proximal end of the ulna.
C)distal portions of the humerus.
D)metacarpal bones.
Q5) What is the clinical significance of palpable bony landmarks?
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gomphosis joint is the most complex joint in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The periodontal membrane is associated with which type of joint?
A)Gomphosis
B)Suture
C)Syndesmosis
D)Synovial
Q3) Ball-and-socket joints are multiaxial joints.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Eversion turns the sole of the foot outward.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a person is standing on her toes, dorsiflexion of the foot has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What purpose do ligaments serve?
Q7) What is the function of bursae?
Q8) Describe the stability of the hip joint.
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two levator ani and coccygeus muscles form most of the pelvic floor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscle can have only one origin attachment and one insertion attachment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Which of the following is true?
A)The knee is acting as a fulcrum.
B)The movement is an example of a first-class lever.
C)The movement is an example of a second-class lever.
D)Both A and C are true.
Q4) The most common type of lever in the body is a _____-class lever.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q5) A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles maintain posture by the property of tonicity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea.
Q3) In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized?
A)Triceps brachii
B)Biceps brachii
C)Deltoid
Q4) The deltoid is an example of a multifunction muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the structure of smooth muscle. Differentiate between single-unit and multiunit muscle tissue.
Q2) Myofibrils contain several sarcomeres lined up end to end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rigor mortis occurs because of damage done to the sarcolemma after death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect?
A)Cardiac muscle forms an electrically coupled mass called a syncytium.
B)Much of the calcium necessary for contraction comes from outside the cell.
C)In cardiac muscles, the T-tubules form dyads rather than the triads formed in skeletal muscles.
D)All of the above statements are correct.
Q5) Fibrillation is a tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q6) At rest, troponin covers the active sites on the actin molecules.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating for all of the following reasons except:
A)there is no neurolemma in cells of the CNS.
B)astrocytes fill in the path of regrowth.
C)microglia lay down scar tissue.
D)All of these lessen the chance of healing in the CNS.
Q2) Interneurons reside in the:
A)CNS and peripheral nervous system (PNS).
B)CNS only.
C)PNS only.
D)None of the above is correct.
Q3) The nervous system and the endocrine system share a common function of communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Neurons have:
A)complete regeneration capacity.
B)no regeneration capacity.
C)very limited capacity to repair themselves.
D)none of the above.
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tiny bulge at the end of the presynaptic cell
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotransmitter
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical synapse
G)Synaptic cleft
Q2) Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated?
A)Metabotropic receptor
B)G-protein-coupled receptors
C)Gated-channel receptor
D)Ionotropic receptor
Q3) No impulse can be sent if a nerve cell is in the absolute refractory period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A neurotransmitter can be excitatory or inhibitory, not both.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the three peduncles that enter or leave the cerebellum, and explain where they come from or go to.
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is not found in the epidural space.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For voluntary skeletal muscle activity, impulses originate in the cerebrum but coordination of the activity is a function of the cerebellum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The part of the dura that extends into the longitudinal fissure is the falx cerebri.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Several "vital centers" are located in the:
A)basal ganglia.
B)cerebrum.
C)cerebellum.
D)medulla.
Q6) Describe the three distinct layers that compose the meninges.
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abducts the eye
A)Olfactory nerve
B)Optic nerve
C)Oculomotor nerve
D)Trochlear nerve
E)Trigeminal nerve
F)Abducens nerve
G)Vestibulocochlear nerve
H)Glossopharyngeal nerve
I)Vagus nerve
J)Hypoglossal nerve
Q2) Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm?
A)Brachial
B)Cervical
C)Lumbar
D)Sacral
Q3) The trochlear nerve stimulates movement of the eye.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
A)All of its axons are afferent fibers.
B)It operates without conscious control.
C)It regulates visceral activities.
D)All of its neurons are motor.
Q2) Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acetylcholine affects visceral effectors by first binding to alpha receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The neurotransmitter released by both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons is acetylcholine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The sympathetic division is the dominant controller of the body at rest.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons.
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Golgi tendon receptors are stimulated by touch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary mechanism of fibromyalgia seems to be an abnormal amplification of pain information by the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Free nerve endings respond to all of the following stimuli except: A)tickling.
B)itching.
C)strength of muscle contractions.
D)pain.
Q4) Proprioceptors can be found in:
A)the urinary bladder.
B)major blood vessels of the body.
C)skeletal muscles.
D)both A and C.
Q5) Osmoreceptors monitor the concentration of glucose in the blood. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) Changes in size or shape determine the size of the pupil
A)Aqueous humor
B)Choroid
C)Cones
D)Cornea
E)Fovea centralis
F)Iris
G)Optic disk
H)Retina
I)Rods
J)Vitreous humor
Q2) Taste buds are stimulated by chemicals called tastants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The membranous labyrinth is filled with perilymph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium? Where are the sense organs for each located?
Q5) What is the function of the eustachian tube?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Cells either have receptors for neurotransmitters and respond to the nervous system or have hormone receptors and respond to the endocrine system, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aspirin and ibuprofen produce some of their effects by inhibiting PGA synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most hormones are highly specific in their action.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protein hormones that contain lipid molecules can be classified as glycoprotein hormones.
A)True B)False
Q5) Steroid hormones frequently travel in the bloodstream attached to soluble plasma proteins.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Under stress conditions, the hypothalamus is a "go between," linking the cerebrum and the pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells in the neurohypophysis make two hormones: ADH and oxytocin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Release of PTH in the body would cause a(n):
A)increase in blood calcium.
B)decrease in blood phosphate.
C)decrease in vitamin D production.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q4) Besides the cells of the kidney, target cells of ADH include muscle cells of the walls of the arteries.
A)True B)False
Q5) The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is LH.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly summarize how growth hormone affects metabolism.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Q1) The buffy coat composes about 5% of the total blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To maintain the homeostatic level of red blood cell production, the body must supply the bone marrow with recycled iron, amino acids, and bilirubin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Whole blood constitutes about what percent of total body weight?
A)0.8%
B)5.3%
C)8%
D)Between 12% and 15%, depending on body type
Q4) Whether a blood clot event begins in or out of the circulatory system determines whether it is intrinsic or extrinsic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Type O blood contains both antigen A and antigen B on the red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) When fibers of the vagus nerve stimulate the heart, the heart rate increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heart chamber that receives blood from the pulmonary vein
A)Right ventricle
B)Right atrium
C)Left atrium
D)Left ventricle
E)Right atrioventricular valve
F)Left atrioventricular valve
G)Aortic semilunar valve
H)Pulmonary semilunar valve
I)Superior vena cava
J)Aorta
K)Pulmonary vein
L)Pulmonary artery
Q3) Chordae tendineae are cordlike structures that connect semilunar valves to papillary muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Veins always carry deoxygenated blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The order of blood flow through the vessels is:
A)arterioles, venules, capillaries, arteries, and veins.
B)arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.
C)veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, and arteries.
D)arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, and venules.
Q3) The tunica media in veins is thinner than the tunica media in arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The foramen ovale is a hole in the wall between the right and left ventricles in the fetus heart that facilitates blood being shunted away to avoid the nonfunctioning lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the various types of capillaries and the differences in the structure of their walls. Explain why capillaries are the most important of all the blood vessels.
Q6) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Q1) Osmotic pressure tends to move plasma out of the capillary and into the tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pulse in the wrist is felt over which artery?
A)Radial
B)Brachial
C)Ulnar
D)Axillary
Q3) Grief tends to make the heart beat faster.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the stroke volume remains constant, parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in cardiac output.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how a drop in blood protein can cause edema (the collection of fluid) in the tissues.
Q6) ANH and ADH work synergistically to increase total blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hassall corpuscles are part of the: A)thymus.
B)spleen.
C)tonsils.
D)thoracic duct.
Q2) Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin are categories of lymphangitis.
A)True B)False
Q3) The valves in the lymphatics are more numerous in the larger vessels.
A)True B)False
Q4) Lymph circulation is maintained by all of the following except: A)the heart.
B)inspiration.
C)skeletal muscle contractions.
D)valves.
Q5) After puberty, the thymus decreases in size; this process is called involution. A)True B)False
Page 33
Q6) Describe the important functions performed by the thymus.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toll-like receptors on the cell membrane can be seen as a midpoint between specific and nonspecific immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which substance produced by the skin contains pathogen-inhibiting agents?
A)Hydrochloric acid
B)Mucus
C)Enzymes
D)Sebum
Q3) All of the following represent examples of nonspecific immunity except:
A)species resistance.
B)phagocytosis.
C)cell-mediated immunity.
D)mechanical and chemical barriers.
Q4) Which substance can destroy pathogens by chemically hydrolyzing them?
A)Hydrochloric acid
B)Mucus
C)Enzymes
D)Sebum
Q5) Explain the role of toll-like receptors in the nonspecific immune system.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An activated B cell can give rise to both plasma cells and memory cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An antigen consists of two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which antibody has four antigen-binding sites?
A)IgM
B)IgA
C)IgD
D)IgG
Q4) Macromolecule that induces the immune system to produce antibodies
A)Specific immunity
B)Antibody
C)B cell
D)Antigen
E)T cell
Q5) T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in the body that help it respond to changes in the environment
A)Stage of resistance
B)Stressors
C)Adaptation
D)Stress syndrome
E)Alarm reaction
F)Stage of exhaustion
G)General adaptation syndrome
H)Glucocorticoids
Q2) Which of the following is not an alarm reaction response resulting from hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex?
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Decreased digestion
C)Decreased immunity
D)Decreased allergic responses
Q3) According to Selye, anything that causes stress, either good or bad, is a stressor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define stress.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Richard is a heavy smoker. Recently he has noticed that when he gets up in the morning, he has a bothersome cough that brings up a large amount of mucus. The cough persists for several minutes and then stops until the next morning. What is an explanation for this condition?
Q2) Enlarged pharyngeal tonsils are called sinusoids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The right lung is divided into three lobes by horizontal and oblique fissures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vocal cords and epiglottis are synonymous terms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
A)Their origin is the hyoid bone.
B)They move the larynx as a whole.
C)They serve in voice production.
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q6) Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx, and give one function of each.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of air left in the lung after a normal expiration is called:
A)anatomical dead air space.
B)physiological dead air space.
C)functional residual capacity.
D)vital capacity.
Q2) An increase in pulmonary ventilation in excess of the need for oxygen
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q3) The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is much more influenced by carbon dioxide in the blood because there is no buffering system in the CSF as there is in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why less oxygen would enter the blood at a high altitude than would enter the blood at sea level.
Q2) The presence of hemoglobin in the blood approximately doubles the oxygen-carrying capacity of plasma alone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because of tissue layers between alveolar air and the blood supply, arterial blood PO is always less than alveolar PO .
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is one iron atom in one heme group.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
Q6) The PCO in alveolar air is _____ blood.
A)less than in the systemic venous
B)greater than in the systemic venous
C)equal to the systemic arterial
D)Both A and C are correct.
39
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestion must occur so food can pass through the wall of the alimentary canal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The group of blood vessels running through the submucosal layer is called the Meissner plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the functions of the stomach.
Q4) The esophagus is anterior to the trachea.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The serosa layer of the alimentary canal is actually the parietal peritoneum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The oral fissure divides the:
A)upper lip from the lower lip.
B)cheek muscle from the teeth.
C)right and left sides of the palate.
D)right side of the tongue from the left side of the tongue.
Q7) Briefly explain the role of exocrine glands within the GI tract.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Division of the small intestine through which food passes second
A)Liver
B)Common bile duct
C)Mesentery
D)Ascending colon
E)Jejunum
F)Duodenum
G)Cystic duct
H)Ileum
I)Gallbladder
J)Descending colon
K)Pancreas
Q2) Bile is secreted by:
A)parietal cells.
B)crypts of Lieberkühn.
C)Kupffer cells.
D)hepatic cells.
Q3) Hemorrhoids are enlargements of the smaller arteries in the anal canal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digestion uses the following methods in which order to accomplish its function?
A)Ingestion, absorption, secretion
B)Ingestion, secretion, absorption
C)Absorption, secretion, ingestion
D)Absorption, ingestion, secretion
Q2) Although both peristalsis and segmentation require movement of the alimentary canal, only peristalsis moves food through the alimentary canal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pancreatic enzyme that works on proteins
A)Amylase
B)Bile
C)Lactase
D)Maltase
E)Pepsin
F)Peptidase
G)Sucrase
H)Trypsin
I)Lipase
Q4) What happens in the chemical process of hydrolysis?
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose phosphorylation is catalyzed by which of the following enzymes?
A)Amylase
B)Glucokinase
C)Phosphatase
D)Phosphorylase
Q2) Process that rebuilds lactic acid formed under anaerobic conditions and transfers it back into glucose
A)Citric acid cycle
B)Glycogenesis
C)LDL
D)Glycolysis
E)Leptin
F)Electron transport system
G)HDL
H)Incretins
I)Cori cycle
Q3) The conversion of proteins to glucose is an example of gluconeogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why the mitochondria are referred to as power plants.
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most reabsorption occurs in the nephron loop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A hormone that affects reabsorption in the kidney is made in the wall of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The renal artery branches directly from the abdominal aorta.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The renal fasciae anchor the kidney to surrounding structures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is true that women suffer from urinary bladder infections more often than men do. Why?
Q6) The renal tubule is made up of simple squamous and simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain how the nephron loop establishes a solute concentration gradient from the top of the loop to the bottom of the loop.
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of unknown mechanisms, the secretion of saliva generally increases when there is a decrease in the total volume of body water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
Q3) Hydrostatic pressure serves as the chief regulator of water transfer between intracellular and interstitial fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The total body potassium content may be 1000 times greater than the serum potassium level.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most crucial mechanisms for maintaining fluid balance adjust output to intake, as in the aldosterone mechanism and the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are two means of obligatory water loss?
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: A)fats.
B)carbohydrates. C)proteins.
D)vitamins.
Q2) Stomach acid is the most alkaline substance in the body.
A)True B)False
Q3) Distilled water (pure water) contains equal amounts of hydrogen and hydroxide ions.
A)True B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)Arterial blood has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood.
B)Venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood.
C)Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
D)Venous blood has a lower hydrogen ion concentration than arterial blood.
Q5) Vomiting results in acidosis because of the loss of chloride from the stomach.
A)True B)False
46
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of testosterone?
A)Initiation of spermatogenesis
B)Development of secondary male sex characteristics
C)Regulation of metabolism
D)Inhibition of secretion of gonadotropins
Q2) Which structure is not found in the scrotum?
A)Testes
B)Seminal vesicles
C)Lower part of the spermatic cord
D)Epididymis
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Each testis is 4 to 5 cm long.
B)Each testis weighs about 10 to 15 grams.
C)The right testis is usually lower than the left testis.
D)All of the above are true.
Q4) The prostate and the testes are essential organs of reproduction in males.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and describe the accessory reproductive glands in the male reproductive system, and explain what each secretes.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of the female reproductive system?
A)Ovary
B)Vagina
C)Fallopian tube
D)Mammary glands
Q2) Phase that occurs frequently on cycle day 14 in a 28-day cycle
A)Menses
B)Postmenstrual phase
C)Ovulation
D)Premenstrual phase
Q3) During a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation would be most likely to occur on day _____ of the cycle.
A)3
B)8
C)14
D)21
Q4) List and describe the various components of the vulva.
Q5) Explain the importance of lactation.
Q6) Describe the location, structure, and function of the uterine tube.
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of glaucoma increases with age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the human, the haploid number of chromosomes is: A)23.
B)46.
C)the result of meiosis.
D)both A and C.
Q3) The trophoblast is the inner wall of the blastocyst.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Histogenesis may be defined as the process during which: A)implantation occurs.
B)the tissues arrange themselves into organs.
C)the primary germ layers develop into many different kinds of tissues.
D)both B and C occur.
Q5) The placental tissues secrete large amounts of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) early in pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tay-Sachs disease is a dominant condition involving failure to make a lipid-producing enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If PKU victims avoid large amounts of phenylalanine in their diets, especially during critical stages of development, severe complications can be avoided.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Coding portions of DNA tend to lie in clusters rich in which two nucleotides?
A)Thymine and cytosine
B)Cytosine and guanine
C)Cytosine and adenine
D)Thymine and adenine
Q4) In a pedigree, a half-shaded circle indicates a:
A)female that is a carrier for a trait.
B)male that is a carrier for a trait.
C)female with the trait.
D)male with the trait.
Q5) Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?
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