Fundamentals of Human Anatomy
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Human Anatomy provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure and organization of the human body. The course explores the major body systems, including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the relationships between anatomical structure and function, terminology, and basic physiological concepts. Through lectures, diagrams, and laboratory experiences, students gain foundational knowledge essential for advanced studies in health, biology, and medical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 7th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perineal region is the
A) side of the leg.
B) region between the external genitals and the anus.
C) point of the shoulder.
D) superior part of the gluteal region.
Answer: B
Q2) Clinicians refer to ________ anatomy when locating blood vessels to draw blood, feeling pulses, and avoiding nerves while giving injections.
Answer: surface
Q3) Which letter indicates the mental region?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: A
Q4) A transverse plane could cut the head off the body!
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell division is analogous to
A) two buildings duplicating their parts and fusing.
B) a building duplicating its blueprint and then forming a new building by splitting in two.
C) a building forming another building by random accumulation of materials.
D) a building forming another building through a loss of some of its parts.
Answer: B
Q2) The plasma membrane is
A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell.
B) a single-layered membrane enclosing the plasma.
C) the membrane surrounding the cell.
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae.
Answer: C
Q3) Describe the mitochondria.
Answer: These are long, thin organelles, that have their own DNA molecule which allows for self-replication. They produce ATP molecules, which are the equivalent of cellular energy. They are bound by two membranes. The inner one is highly folded into cristae, where many of the critical molecules involved in ATP production are imbedded.
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Chapter 3: Basic Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Division of cells in a zygote is called A) blastulation.
B) cleavage.
C) gastrulation.
D) induction.
Answer: B
Q2) The sclerotome will develop into the A) peritoneum.
B) visceral serosa.
C) vertebrae.
D) heart.
Answer: C
Q3) The body's axis of development is determined by the A) blastomeres.
B) epiblast.
C) notochord.
D) primitive streak.
Answer: C
Q4) The embryonic ________ ultimately form the arms and legs of the adult.
Answer: limb buds
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) In blood, the matrix is the liquid blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This term refers to the accumulation of fluid at a site of inflammation.
Q3) The type of cell junction that permits small sugar molecules and ions to pass from the cytoplasm of one cell to that of another is a
A) tight junction.
B) gap junction.
C) desmosome.
D) zonula occludens.
Q4) Which letter indicates the epithelium?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) Much of the body's adipose tissue is found in the hypodermis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The smallest diameter blood vessels, capillaries are comprised of ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the vascularization of the skin.
Q2) The stratum ________ lies between the stratum granulosum and the stratum corneum of thick skin.
Q3) As a person balds, terminal hair is replaced by vellus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In thin skin, the epidermis is comprised of how many layers?
Q5) The cells in the skin that store the most melanin granules are A) dendritic cells.
B) tactile epithelial cells.
C) basal keratinocytes.
D) melanocytes.
Q6) Which layer of the skin invaginates downward to form sebum-producing glands? A) dermis
B) hypodermis
C) epidermis
Q7) Name the location and function of these cells: keratinocytes, tactile epithelial cells, melanocytes, and dendritic cells.
Page 7
Q8) Keratinocytes produce keratin, as well as various enzymes and ________.
Q9) Describe the location, characteristics, and function of the hypodermis.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joint surface of each epiphysis is covered with a thin layer of hyaline cartilage called the ________.
Q2) In the repair of a simple fracture, the step that follows formation of a hematoma is
A) formation of a bony callus.
B) inflammation.
C) formation of fibrocartilaginous callus.
D) bone remodeling.
Q3) As a person ages, some calcium phosphate crystals are deposited within cartilage, leading to a condition called calcified cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a bone located in a limb is longer than it is wide, that bone is a(n) ________ bone.
A) long
B) short
C) irregular
D) flat
Q5) You might expect the epiphyseal plate to close between ages ________ years.
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Chapter 7: Bones, Part 1: The Axial Skeleton
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Q1) The jugular foramen is located
A) anterior to the foramen lacerum.
B) between the temporal and occipital bones.
C) posterior to the occipital condyles.
D) within the greater wing of the sphenoid.
Q2) Which letter indicates the foramen magnum of the occipital bone?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) This is the largest fontanelle of the skull.
Q4) Which letter indicates the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) Fatal whiplash involves what bony structure?
Q6) List the bones that articulate at each of the four major sutures of the skull.
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Chapter 8: Bones, Part 2: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The acromion of the scapula
A) articulates with the humerus.
B) attaches the biceps muscle of the arm.
C) is an extension of the scapular spine.
D) lies anterior to the coracoid process.
Q2) Which of the bones listed below is not found a carpal bone?
A) cuboid
B) triquetral
C) scaphoid
D) hamate
Q3) Which letter identifies the anterior superior iliac spine?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The proximal end of the fibula is the lateral malleolus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and the ________.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) Which of these joints is stabilized with an annular ligament?
A) elbow joint
B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint
E) ankle joint
Q2) Describe the three types of fibrous joints, including examples of each.
Q3) Which of these joints utilizes the acetabulum?
A) elbow joint
B) shoulder joint
C) sternoclavicular joint
D) hip joint
E) ankle joint
Q4) The atlantoaxial joint is a saddle joint.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name the major components of the synovial joint of the knee.
Q6) To ________ the foot, move the plantar surface laterally.
Q7) Baseball players often damage the ________ cuff at the shoulder region.
Q8) ________ causes the forearm to rotate laterally.
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Chapter 10: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the various types of skeletal muscle fibers, the type containing the most glycogen granules is
A) slow oxidative fibers.
B) fast glycolytic fibers.
C) fast oxidative fibers.
D) slow glycolytic fibers.
Q2) The difference in color between skeletal muscle fibers is caused by the abundance of ________.
Q3) This structure is the basic unit of contraction.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The origin of a muscle can also be an insertion, depending on the position of the body and the movement being performed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Within a fascicle, every muscle fiber is surrounded by the ________.
Q6) Typically, each skeletal muscle is supplied by one ________ and one ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which forearm muscle is absent in about 30% of individuals?
A) extensor pollicis
B) flexor carpi ulnaris
C) palmaris longus
D) pronator quadratus
Q2) The psoas major and ________ muscles are the prime movers in thigh flexion.
Q3) When the adductor muscles of the thigh adduct the thigh at the hip, what muscle or muscles act as antagonists to this movement?
A) pectineus
B) triceps surae
C) gluteus minimus and medius
D) gluteus maximus
Q4) The thenar eminence is located at the
A) base of the little finger.
B) base of the thumb.
C) tips of the fingers.
D) bulges formed by the gluteal muscles (commonly known as the "cheeks").
Q5) What muscles are important in mastication (excluding the muscles of the tongue)?
Q6) Most skeletal muscles are ________-class lever systems.
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Q7) Briefly describe the landmarks used in making a gluteal intramuscular injection.
Chapter 12: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Gray matter in the CNS contains all of the following except A) neuron cell bodies.
B) neuroglia.
C) dendrites.
D) fiber tracts.
Q2) These glial cells arise from embryonic white blood cells.
A) ependymal cells
B) microglia
C) oligodendrocytes
D) satellite cells
Q3) Identify which letter represents the most abundant category of glial cells in the CNS.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) Microglia are ciliated to help circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Central Nervous System
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Q1) Describe the difference between the primary sensory areas of the cerebrum and their corresponding association areas.
Q2) The insula is considered to be part of the ________.
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) thalamus
Q3) A cerebrovascular accident patient who is unable to recognize faces and objects but can still visually perceive spatial arrangement of objects most likely has damage to A) the primary visual cortex.
B) the occipital lobe.
C) the posterior association area.
D) the temporal lobe.
Q4) The vasomotor center of the medulla regulates blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is another term for the descending pyramidal tracts that relay motor impulses from the brain and down the spinal cord?
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Chapter 14: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lesion to the common fibular nerve causes A) footdrop.
B) paralysis of the peroneal muscles.
C) hammer toe.
D) the same deficit as a ruptured calcaneal tendon causes.
Q2) The phrenic nerve receives fibers from
A) C -C .
B) T -T .
C) CN X.
D) CN XI.
Q3) Which letter indicates a lamellar corpuscle (Pacinian corpuscle) that rapidly adapts to deep pressure stimuli?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The cervical plexus is found deep in the neck region covered by by what superficial muscle?
Q5) The obturator nerve is part of which nerve plexus?
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Sensory Neurons
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Q1) Which letter indicates the pelvic sympathetic trunk?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Parasympathetic impulses to the stomach pass through the A) celiac plexus.
B) esophageal plexus.
C) inferior hypogastric plexus.
D) superior mesenteric plexus.
Q3) Preganglionic fibers are myelinated, whereas postganglionic fibers are unmyelinated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Congenital megacolon, or Hirschsprung's disease, is a birth defect in which the ________ innervation of the distal region of the large intestine fails to develop normally.
Page 18
Q5) The cell bodies of postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the pupil and lens of the eye are located in the ________ ganglion.
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Chapter 16: The Special Senses
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Q1) Hair cells are receptor cells for
A) fine touch.
B) both hearing and equilibrium.
C) taste.
D) smell.
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the flow of taste sensation along the gustatory pathway to the cerebral cortex?
A) hypothalamic appetite centers
B) solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata
C) thalamic nuclei
D) vagus nerve
Q3) The ability of the eye to focus on nearby objects is a process called ________.
Q4) Taste sensation is carried by the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What structure is handled by an "eye bank"?
A) whole eyes for eye transplants
B) just the lens
C) just the cornea
D) just the retina
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The adrenal medulla consists of three distinct zones and secretes steroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells that manufacture and secrete androgens are located in the
A) bone tissue.
B) pituitary gland.
C) zona reticularis.
D) nonpregnant uterus.
Q3) The diffuse ________ system consists of endocrine cells scattered throughout the visceral organs.
Q4) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary?
A) LH
B) ADH
C) glucagon
D) adrenaline
Q5) All endocrine glands secrete their hormones into the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Blood
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Q1) What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus?
A) One occurs in the bloodstream, whereas the other occurs outside the bloodstream.
B) One occurs in arteries, the other in veins.
C) One is a blood clot, whereas the other is a parasitic worm.
D) A thrombus must travel to become an embolus.
Q2) An eosinophil can be distinguished from a basophil because the eosinophil
A) has a lobed (versus nonlobed) nucleus.
B) contains cytoplasmic granules.
C) has pink (versus dark purple) granules.
D) is smaller.
Q3) Hematocrit is the percentage of blood consisting of erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Produces antibodies.
A) erythrocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) eosinophil
D) neutrophil
E) basophil
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Chapter 19: The Heart
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Q1) Which of the following vessels does not carry oxygen-poor blood to the heart?
A) the superior vena cava
B) the inferior vena cava
C) the pulmonary vein
D) the coronary sinus
Q2) What structures anchor the chordae tendineae?
A) trabeculae carneae
B) papillary muscles
C) pectinate muscles
D) semilunar valves
Q3) Parasympathetic impulses to the SA node are transmitted on this cranial nerve.
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
B) Accessory nerve-spinal part
C) Vagus nerve
D) Trigeminal nerve
E) Hypoglossal nerve
Q4) The first heart sounds of "lub-dup" are produced by the closing of the right and left
Q5) The atrioventricular valves cannot be inverted because attachment of ________.
Page 22
Q6) The ________ of the heart prevents overdilation of the valve openings.
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Chapter 20: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Capillaries that allow a high degree of flow between the blood and tissue fluid usually have pores called ________ in their membranes.
Q2) A common theme to the development of atherosclerosis is
A) a ballooning out of the vessel walls.
B) a failure of the venous valves resulting in engorged and twisted vessels.
C) an accumulation of glycoproteins in the basement membrane of capillaries.
D) an inflammatory response to a damaged endothelium.
Q3) Identify the letter that indicates the brachial artery.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The middle and posterior cerebral arteries are connected by the posterior communicating arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Veins have less elastin in their walls than do arteries.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) The paired lymph trunks that carry lymph from the lower limbs are the
A) cisterna chyli.
B) iliac trunks.
C) lumbar trunks.
D) femoral trunks.
Q2) A bubo is
A) an infected lymph node containing a large number of pathogens that are trapped in the node but not destroyed.
B) a cancer-infiltrated lymph node.
C) any enlarged lymph node.
D) a structure that is unrelated to lymph nodes.
Q3) In lymph nodes, follicles are always located
A) in the cortex.
B) near the hilum.
C) in the lymph sinuses.
D) in the medullary cords.
Q4) ________ are lymphatic structures that collect fat-laden fluids from the intestinal tract.
Q5) ________ flows in one direction, toward the heart.
Q6) The paired ________ drain lymph from the head and neck.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Alveolar pores
A) allow gases to transfer from the alveoli to the blood.
B) allow pleural fluid to enter the alveoli and keep their walls from sticking together.
C) are the openings between the alveolar duct and the alveolus.
D) equalize air pressure throughout the lung.
Q2) The ________ tonsil, or adenoids, is located on the wall of the nasopharynx.
Q3) In lung cancer, the cancer cells usually arise from
A) the smooth muscle fibers around the bronchioles.
B) the epithelium lining a large bronchus.
C) the alveoli.
D) lymph nodes in the lung.
Q4) Identify the letter that indicates the uvula.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) The unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant during sleep is called
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Junction of the transverse and ascending colon.
A) splenic flexure
B) cecum
C) hepatic flexure
D) ileocecal valve
E) haustra
Q2) The union of the cystic and common hepatic ducts.
A) accessory pancreatic duct
B) main pancreatic duct
C) hepatopancreatic ampulla
D) common bile duct
E) bile canaliculi
Q3) Stretching of the anal sphincter initiates the defecation reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thin myofilaments of smooth muscle fibers are anchored to intermediate filaments through ________.
Q5) Blood flowing through the liver lobule enters at the portal venule and flows through ________ to the central vein and out of the liver through the hepatic vein.
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) Adjacent collecting ducts join to form larger ________ that drain into the minor calyx.
Q2) The glomerular capsule and the glomerular capillaries together make up the renal corpuscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The U-shaped ________ is located between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
Q4) Another name for the neck of the bladder is the
A) superior surface.
B) anterior angle.
C) inferior angle.
D) trigone.
Q5) Knot of capillaries that directs blood into the efferent arteriole.
A) arcuate arteries
B) cortical radiate arteries
C) glomerulus
D) afferent arterioles
E) peritubular capillaries
Q6) Five ________ arteries branch from the renal artery and enter the hilus.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) A factor that propels an oocyte through the uterine tube is
A) pressure exerted by ovarian fluid.
B) smooth muscle contraction (peristalsis).
C) secretions of the nonciliated cells.
D) amoeboid motion of the oocyte.
Q2) The placenta consists of which two structures?
A) chorionic villi and amnion
B) chorionic villi and decidua basalis
C) cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
D) decidua basalis and decidua capsularis
Q3) Identify the letter that indicates the cervix.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The uterus is composed of three basic layers. The inner layer is the ________.
Q5) The crura are extensions of the ________, the paired erectile bodies of the penis, and attach the penis to the pubic arch.
Page 28
Q6) The uterus consists of the fundus, body, cervix, and ________.
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