Fundamentals of Human Anatomy
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Human Anatomy provides an in-depth introduction to the structure and organization of the human body. This course covers major anatomical systems, including skeletal, muscular, cardiovascular, nervous, digestive, respiratory, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding the terminology, spatial relationships, and functions of organs and tissues, as well as their clinical significance. Students will gain foundational knowledge through lectures, laboratory exercises, and visual aids, enabling them to recognize normal anatomy and appreciate its role in human health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specialized cell types organized in a way that provides a specific function form
A)tissues,which build organs.
B)organs,which build tissues.
C)organ systems,which build tissues.
D)atoms,which comprise tissues.
Answer: A
Q2) The diaphragm separates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Self-regulating control mechanisms usually operate by a process called ______ feedback.
Answer: negative
Q4) Standing erect with face and palms forward and upper limbs at the sides describes the ____________ position.
Answer: anatomical
Q5) Kidneys are part of the lymphatic system. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The isotope most likely to be used to study the thyroid gland is
A)Iodine-131
B)Iron-59
C)Thallium-201
D)Cobalt-60
Answer: A
Q2) Water causes ionically-bonded atoms to A)bond more strongly.
B)dissociate.
C)bond covalently.
D)decompose.
Answer: B
Q3) Exposure to ionizing radiation may A)cloud the lens of the eye.
B)cause cancer.
C)interfere with normal growth.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q4) The amino acid sequence of a protein is its __________ structure.
Answer: primary
4
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenoleukodystrophy is caused by deficiency of a protein in the outer membrane of A)cells.
B)lysosomes.
C)mitochondria.
D)peroxisomes.
Answer: D
Q2) During telophase of mitosis,chromosomes elongate and form chromatin threads.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The average number of divisions that a human cell cultured in a dish can undergo is A)10-20.
B)30-40. C)40-60.
D)60-100.
Answer: C
Q4) Mitosis occurs in _______ cells.
Answer: somatic
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic code is the correspondence between DNA sequence and amino acid sequence of a protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oxidation of glucose is important because it releases energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its _________.
Q4) Building up large molecules is called _______.
Q5) During DNA replication,
A)tRNAs bring specific amino acids to an mRNA molecule.
B)two single strands of DNA come together,restoring complementary base pairing.
C)amino acids are joined.
D)the DNA double helix comes apart where hydrogen bonds join base pairs,and new nucleotides are brought in,forming two double helices.
Q6) The metabolome includes
A)all of the genes that encode protein in the genome.
B)the DNA that does not encode protein in the genome.
C)all of the small molecules that are part of metabolism.
Page 6
D)all of the enzymes that take part in aerobic respiration.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of intercellular junction that forms tubular channels is
A)a desmosome.
B)a gap junction.
C)a tight junction.
D)found in the blood-brain barrier.
Q2) There are __ types of muscle cells.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) A synovial membrane is entirely connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Skin is a mucous membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Histology is the study of the history of anatomy and physiology.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The cells that respond to environmental stimuli are ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Skin and the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acne is a disorder of the A)sweat glands.
B)hair follicles.
C)sebaceous glands.
D)apocrine glands.
Q2) Which is the most likely explanation for the defect in dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa,in which the skin blisters with any touch?
A)The skin has too many melanocytes that produce too much melanin.
B)Melanocytes cannot produce melanin.
C)Collagen fibrils that attach the epidermis to the dermis break down.
D)The skin layers are reverseD.
Q3) Inflammation makes skin
A)red,swollen and painful to touch.
B)cool and clammy.
C)secrete abundant antibodies.
D)peel off.
Q4) Decreased hair growth,decreased sensory receptors in the skin,and inability to regulate body temperature are all signs of ________________.
Q5) Two or more types of tissue functioning together constitute a(n)___________.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deltoid tuberosity is part of the humerus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not found associated with spongy bone?
A)Trabeculae
B)Osteons
C)Canaliculi
D)Osteocytes
Q3) Lordosis is excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following describes the function(s)of the skeletal system?
A)It interacts with muscles,providing movement.
B)It stores inorganic salts.
C)It protects organs,especially in the head and thorax.
D)All of the above describe skeletal system functions.
Q5) Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Blood cell formation is called _____________.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The synovial membrane reabsorbs fluid and may help remove substances from an infected joint cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ______ ______ in the knee joint help prevent displacement of the articulating surfaces.
Q3) The fibrous joints between the flat bones of the skull are sutures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The movement of a limb away from the midline is ______.
Q5) A movement that brings the foot closer to the shin is a(n)
A)extension.
B)abduction.
C)plantar flexion.
D)dorsiflexion.
Q6) Joints
A)bind bones.
B)allow bones to grow.
C)enable body parts to move.
D)all of the above.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of
A)ATP.
B)myosin.
C)troponin.
D)tropomyosin.
Q2) The enzyme acetylecholinesterase causes acetylcholine to A)bind to actin.
B)be secreted from the motor end plate.
C)decompose.
D)form cross-bridges.
Q3) Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of
A)slow fatigable muscle fibers.
B)fast fatigable muscle fibers.
C)slow fatigue-resistant fibers.
D)fast fatigue-resistant fibers.
Q4) The rhythmic,wavelike motion produced by smooth muscles in tubular visceral organs is called _______.
Q5) Muscles that assist an agonist are called ______.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diverging axons amplify an impulse by
A)contacting many neurons.
B)returning the impulse to the neuron of origin.
C)splitting into multiple axons.
D)stimulating themselves.
Q2) Which of the following is(are)a type of neuroglia?
A)Astrocyte
B)Oligodendrocyte
C)Schwann cell
D)All of the above
Q3) If a neuron receives a series of stimuli whose effect is excitatory but subthreshold,the neuron is more excitable to incoming stimulation than before and is said to be A)graded.
B)amplified.
C)facilitated.
D)refractory.
Q4) Myelin is composed largely of carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of skin that sensory nerve fibers of a particular spinal nerve innervate is called a A)dermatome.
B)myotome.
C)sensory body.
D)nerve body.
Q2) A soldier suffers a brain injury,and becomes unable to speak.The damage is likely in A)Broca's areA.
B)the hippocampus.
C)the brainstem.
D)the basal nuclei
Q3) The central nervous system (CNS)consists of A)spinal and cranial nerves.
B)the brain and spinal cord.
C)the cerebrum and cerebellum.
D)nerves in the upper and lower limbs.
Q4) The cardiac center,vasomotor center,and respiratory center are located in the __________ __________ of the brain.
Q5) The _________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light is refracted when it passes A)between media of the same optical density.
B)into glass at a right angle.
C)between media of different optical densities at a right angle.
D)between media of different optical densities at an oblique angle.
Q2) Opiate drugs used to treat pain come from a A)bacterium.
B)fungus.
C)snail.
D)plant.
Q3) The ability to ignore your socks around your ankles demonstrates A)general adaptation.
B)receptor integration.
C)interpretive assimilation.
D)sensory adaptation.
Q4) Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?
A)Sweet
B)Salty
C)Pungent
D)Sour
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones from the adrenal medulla increase
A)blood pressure.
B)heart rate.
C)breathing rate.
D)all of the above.
Q2) A hormone has a half-life of 20 minutes.After an hour,___ percent of the original number of molecules remains.
A)0
B)12.5
C)25
D)50
Q3) A person under stress may have a lowered resistance to infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A hormone is a secreted molecule that is carried in the bloodstream to where it acts on target cells that bear specific receptors for that hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The central region of the adrenal gland is the adrenal ______.
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thrombocytopenia is due to a deficiency of A)vitamin K.
B)platelets.
C)leukocytes.
D)factor VII.
Q2) Which of the following elements is included in hemoglobin molecules?
A)Cobalt
B)Iron
C)Copper
D)Iodine
Q3) Which is the correct sequence for differentiation of a red blood cell?
A)Hematopoietic stem cell,erythrocyte,hematoblast,erythroblast
B)Hematopoietic stem cell,erythroblast,erythrocyte,reticulocyte
C)Hematopoietic stem cell,hemocytoblast,erythrocyte,erythroblast
D)Hematopoietic stem cell,erythroblast,reticulocyte,erythrocyte
Q4) The final step in the formation of a blood clot is A)the formation of prothrombin activator.
B)that thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
C)that prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin.
D)tissue damage.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following supplies blood to parts of the intestinal tract?
A)Phrenic arteries
B)Superior mesenteric artery
C)Lumbar artery
D)Middle sacral artery
Q2) Sudden cardiac arrest can result from
A)an artery blocked with plaque.
B)scar tissue from a previous heart attack.
C)accelerated heart rate.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Pulse pressure is calculated by
A)adding systolic and diastolic pressures.
B)multiplying systolic and diastolic pressures.
C)subtracting systolic pressure from diastolic pressure.
D)subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure.
Q4) The loose-fitting sac around the heart is the
A)fibrous pericardium.
B)visceral pericardium.
C)epicardium.
D)endocardium.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marsha gets a splinter in her finger.What is her body's response to any microbe that might try to enter her body as a result of the splinter breaking the skin?
A)innate defense.
B)adaptive defense.
C)specific defense.
D)cytotoxic T cell response.
Q2) The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels and nerves pass is called the A)sinus.
B)capsule.
C)nodule.
D)hilum.
Q3) A lymph node consists of
A)compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes and macrophages.
B)afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface.
C)lymph nodules.
D)all of the above.
Q4) Lymph is ______ ______ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.
Q5) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ______.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatic duct connects the gallbladder to the bile duct.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parotid gland differs from the submandibular and sublingual glands in that it secretes a clear fluid that is rich in amylase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gallstones may form if
A)bile is too concentrated.
B)hepatic cells secrete too much HCl.
C)the pH of the gallbladder becomes too alkaline.
D)the liver is lacerateD.
Q4) Peristalsis occurs in the digestive tract
A)from the pharynx to the anus.
B)in the stomach and small intestine only.
C)in the small and large intestines only.
D)in the stomach,small intestine,and large intestine.
Q5) The stomach is C-shaped and extends from the duodenum to the spleen.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Sarah eats only dairy,and no meat or eggs.She is a(n)
A)lacto-vegetarian.
B)ovo-vegetarian.
C)vegan.
D)pesco-vegetarian.
Q2) Vanessa takes many vitamin supplements,claiming that they give her energy.She is mistaken,because cells preferentially use _______ for energy.
A)minerals
B)amino acids
C)proteins
D)carbohydrates
Q3) Excess intake of which vitamin could possibly lead to irreversible renal damage?
A)Vitamin C
B)Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C)Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
D)Vitamin D
Q4) Intake of at least 10 grams of carbohydrate is needed daily to avoid protein breakdown.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Q1) Cellular respiration enables cells to harness the energy from oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carbon monoxide bonds to hemoglobin more effectively than does oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Coughing reflexes become faster with age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The walls of the alveoli are composed of
A)ciliated columnar epithelium.
B)simple squamous epithelium.
C)stratified squamous epithelium.
D)areolar connective tissue.
Q5) Air entering the potential space of the pleural cavity is called A)pneumoniA.
B)pneumothorax.
C)pulmonary ventilation.
D)internal respiration.
Q6) In a mixture of gases,each gas creates a pressure called its ______ ______.
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Podocytes and pedicels are part of the A)collecting duct.
B)distal convoluted tubule.
C)glomerular capsule.
D)peritubular capillaries.
Q2) Michael is 26 years old.He becomes dehydrated after a long run if he has not drunk enough.His infant son Sean,however,becomes dehydrated fairly frequently.This difference in susceptibility to dehydration is because A)adults drink more liquid.
B)infants grow rapidly.
C)infant kidneys are less able to conserve water.
D)the infant thirst mechanism is underdevelopeD.
Q3) Kidney stones are least likely to be composed of A)uric acid.
B)calcium oxalate.
C)cholesterol.
D)magnesium phosphate.
Q4) Inulin clearance measures the rate of glomerular filtration.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Maxwell has just finished a brutal 10 kilometer run.His body has
A)an increased production of carbonic acid and increased pH of body fluids.
B)an increased production of carbonic acid and decreased pH of body fluids.
C)a decreased production of carbonic acid,and increased pH of body fluids.
D)a decreased production of carbonic acid and decreased pH of body fluids.
Q2) Acidosis is a pH of arterial blood
A)below 4.5
B)above 4.5
C)below 7.35
D)above 7.35
Q3) Kidneys help to regulate acid-base balance of the blood by secreting OH<sup>-</sup>.
A)True B)False
Q4) Arterial blood with a pH above 7.45 produces _____________.
Q5) The part of the brain that helps regulate hydrogen ion concentrations is the _______ center.
Q6) The hormone ADH is released from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. A)True B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sperm cells mature in the A)ductus deferentiA.
B)ejaculatory ducts.
C)epididymides.
D)seminal vesicles.
Q2) The last fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the A)testes.
B)bulbourethral gland.
C)prostate gland.
D)seminal vesicles.
Q3) The epididymis is a _____ and it _____.
A)compartment inside a testis;secretes testosterone and forms sperm
B)stage of spermatogenesis;forms two sperm cells and semen
C)tightly coiled tube on the outside of the testis;is the location for sperm maturation
D)compartment that contains seminiferous tubules;ejaculates sperm
Q4) Each epididymis emerges from the bottom of a testis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) The ductus arteriosus allows fetal blood to bypass the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hormones that maintain the uterine wall during the last 5 to 6 months of pregnancy are
A)FSH and LH.
B)human chorionic gonadotropin and synthetic estrogen.
C)placental lactogen and relaxin.
D)placental estrogen and progesterone.
Q3) Centenarians are
A)people who live past 90.
B)people in the military.
C)people who live past 100 years.
D)people who die just before their 100<sup>th</sup> birthdays.
Q4) The term newborn refers to the period from birth through _____,whereas the term infant refers to the period from _____.
A)3 months;3 months to 6 months
B)the first four weeks;the first month to 1 year
C)one week;the second week through the second year
D)the first year;the first year to the second year
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) Gene expression profiling
A)detects the mRNAs present in a particular cell type under particular conditions.
B)detects the mutations that a person has inherited.
C)is a chart of chromosomes in specific cell types.
D)is a size-order chart of chromosomes.
Q2) A multifactorial trait is determined by many environmental factors,but not necessarily genetic influences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antonio is colorblind.His partner Emilia is not colorblind nor is she a carrier (heterozygote)for colorblindness.The offspring of this couple would
A)be sons with colorblindness and daughters with color vision.
B)be colorblind daughters and sons with normal color vision.
C)all be colorblind.
D)all have normal color vision.
Q4) A pedigree is a chart that aligns chromosome pairs by size.
A)True
B)False
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