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Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Healthy Living introduces students to the essential concepts and practices that promote physical, mental, and social well-being. The course explores topics such as nutrition, physical activity, stress management, personal safety, disease prevention, and the impact of lifestyle choices on long-term health. Emphasizing evidence-based strategies, students will learn to evaluate health information, set realistic goals, and develop lifelong habits that contribute to a holistic sense of wellness. Through discussions, case studies, and self-assessments, the course aims to empower students to take an active role in maintaining and improving their overall health.
Recommended Textbook
Health The Basics 10th Edition by Rebecca
J. Donatelle
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1657 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy life expectancy is another term for life span.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Going out for dinner at your favorite restaurant as a reward for finishing a big project is an example of a(n)
A) activity reinforcer.
B) manipulative reinforcer.
C) consumable reinforcer.
D) social reinforcer.
Answer: C
Q3) The contemporary definition of wellness is
A) the ability to move about freely without pain.
B) the absence of ongoing symptoms or chronic disease.
C) living longer than one's parents.
D) all factors leading to positive health status or overall well-being.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alicia has been experiencing persistent sadness, despair, and hopelessness. She is displaying symptoms of A) exhaustion.
B) anxiety.
C) an eating disorder.
D) a chronic mood disorder.
Answer: D
Q2) A person who experiences persistent and sometimes extreme emotional states is suffering from a(n)
A) personality disorder.
B) anxiety disorder.
C) post-traumatic stress disorder.
D) chronic mood disorder.
Answer: D
Q3) Warning signs of suicide include all of the following EXCEPT A) a change in behavior.
B) expressions of self-hatred.
C) giving away prized possessions.
D) planning an important future event.
Answer: D

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does spiritual health contribute to physical health?
Answer: There is an association between spiritual health and positive physiological changes. Studies have shown that spiritual health improves immunity, decreases the risk of cardiovascular disease, decreases anxiety and depression, decreases alcohol and drug abuse, improves the ability to cope with illness and medical treatments, and increases feelings of optimism and hope.
Q2) In many cultures, breath, or the force that animates life is synonymous with A) faith.
B) energy.
C) heart.
D) spirit.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following presents a conflict between values and behaviors?
A) Valuing friendships but having to mend a quarrel with a friend
B) Loving animals but not owning a pet
C) Valuing honesty but cheating on a test
D) Enjoying alone time but having a roommate
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jeff knows the midterm chemistry exam is going to be tough. He is trying to prepare for it by taking a practice test every night before he goes out with his buddies. Jeff is A) using the technique of stress inoculation.
B) restructuring his thinking patterns.
C) increasing his level of stress before the test.
D) using alcohol as a coping mechanism to relax.
Q2) Julia discovered that her spouse was cheating on her, and she confronted him about it. After days of arguments, he has moved out. By the end of the week, all she can do is cry herself to sleep. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome applies to this situation?
A) Alarm
B) Resistance
C) Exhaustion
D) Denial
Q3) A pop quiz in class is an example of A) chronic stress.
B) a stressor.
C) a frustration.
D) eustress.

Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lack of sleep can have a detrimental effect on academic performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some researchers believe that the link between obesity and sleep is related to A) blood glucose levels.
B) family history.
C) seasonal affective disorder.
D) hormonal disturbances.
Q3) Lack of sleep increases a person's risk for heart disease by increasing blood levels of A) cholesterol.
B) creatine.
C) C-reactive protein.
D) calcium.
Q4) During which stage of sleep does a person disengage from the environment?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q5) Explain the four stages of NREM sleep.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tendency toward violent acts based on prejudice and discrimination is A) bias.
B) harassment.
C) ethnoviolence.
D) assault.
Q2) College campuses have responded to the Virginia Tech and Northern Illinois tragedies by
A) enacting more restrictive admissions policies.
B) restructuring prevention and emergency response strategies
C) doing more extensive background checks on students and faculty.
D) decreasing ways to notify students and faculty of immediate risk.
Q3) The presence of a gun in the home doubles the risk of a homicide occurring in that location.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Select two societal causes of violence from the chapter and provide an argument explaining why you believe each one contributes to the epidemic of violence in the United States. Support your arguments with examples.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Greg and Kate always support each others' interests, hoping to ensure that the other will succeed. This best demonstrates that
A) they are practicing serial monogamy.
B) they are intimately exclusive.
C) they are fascinated by each other.
D) they are advocates for each other.
Q2) Which of the following is true about androgyny?
A) Androgynous people follow traditional sexual roles.
B) A person has feminine traits but tries to be a male.
C) A person has a combination of both traditional masculine and feminine traits.
D) A person has masculine traits but tries to be a female.
Q3) In relationships, the process of resolving differences peacefully and creatively is A) anger management.
B) conflict resolution.
C) self-disclosure.
D) intimacy.
Q4) The first sign of puberty in females is the beginning of breast development.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about male condoms?
A) They can be used with baby oil and body lotions as lubricants.
B) They can be purchased with a spermicide.
C) They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections.
D) They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently.
Q2) The various methods used to prevent pregnancy are known as
A) implantation.
B) conception.
C) ovulation.
D) contraception.
Q3) The typical use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following?
A) Daily use
B) Human error
C) Perfect use
D) Familiarity with the method
Q4) Explain the difference between abstinence and outercourse and the pros and cons of each. Provide information from the chapter to support your answer.
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Q1) Which type of drug has the potential to alter a person's mood or behavior?
A) Over-the-counter drug
B) Illicit drug
C) Psychoactive drug
D) Recreational drug
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a process addiction?
A) Compulsive gambling
B) Regular Internet use
C) Alcoholism
D) A disciplined exercise routine
Q3) The excessive use of a drug is
A) abuse.
B) dependence.
C) tolerance.
D) misuse.
Q4) Using a drug for a purpose other than that which it is intended is
A) drug abuse.
B) drug use.
C) drug misuse.
D) drug tolerance.
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Q1) Drinking games result in the consumption of large quantities of alcohol in a short period of time and have been associated with A) paranoid behavior.
B) developing respiratory problems.
C) muscle and joint disorders.
D) death from alcohol poisoning.
Q2) The effects of alcohol are different for women and men because
A) women have lower levels of body fat than men.
B) women have lower levels of alcohol dehydrogenase than men.
C) women are not affected by congeners.
D) men are not affected by congeners.
Q3) Worrying about an upcoming test would increase the alcohol absorption rate in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are smoking cessation medications EXCEPT
A) Chantix.
B) NicVax.
C) Xenadrine.
D) Zyban.
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Q1) Which of the following has the most saturated fat?
A) Coconut oil
B) Palm kernel oil
C) Peanut oil
D) Olive oil
Q2) About 95% of total body fat is made up of
A) triglycerides.
B) cholesterol.
C) cellulite.
D) water.
Q3) Explain the difference between a food allergy and a food intolerance. Give examples of each.
Q4) Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense?
A) A glass of whole milk
B) A glass of low-fat milk
C) A bowl of ice cream
D) A stick of butter
Q5) Food allergy and food intolerance mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In planning a weight management program that has the best chance of success you must
A) decide to eliminate all fat from the diet.
B) think of weight management as a temporary phase.
C) set realistic short- and long-term goals.
D) follow a formal plan such as Weight Watchers.
Q2) When an individual's body increases its metabolic rate to compensate for an increased food intake, this is the process known as A) adaptive thermogenesis.
B) ketogenesis.
C) digestion.
D) enhanced metabolism.
Q3) A condition in which a person has an excessive number of fat cells is A) hyperglycemia.
B) hypertrophy.
C) hyperthyroidism.
D) hyperplasia.
Q4) Extremely low body fat can contribute to amenorrhea in females.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) A healthy body image is a key indicator of a person's
A) self-awareness.
B) self-esteem.
C) self-motivation.
D) self-actualization.
Q2) A compensatory behavior, such as vomiting or using laxatives to get rid of food that has been consumed, is a behavior that
A) has obvious health benefits.
B) attempts to balance out a previous behavior.
C) indicates a healthy body image.
D) has no potential negative health consequences.
Q3) An individual with an eating disorder may also have
A) other psychological disorders.
B) impulsive behavior.
C) a sense of empowerment.
D) high self-esteem.
Q4) Eating disorders affect people of all ages.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast compulsive exercise and the female athlete triad.
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Q1) Athletes who engage in very extreme or intense physical activities, such as marathons, have been shown to be at an increased risk for colds and flu.
A)True B)False
Q2) A vigorous workout raises a person's metabolic rate during exercise and for several hours afterward.
A)True B)False
Q3) The lower the intensity of activity, the longer the duration of exercise should be.
A)True B)False
Q4) With weight training, women can expect to develop muscle to the same extent as men.
A)True B)False
Q5) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of muscles in the lower back.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is true in regard to atherosclerosis?
A) It is characterized by a buildup of substances within the arteries that form plaque.
B) It is easily reversed with medication and exercise.
C) It starts to develop after the age of 50.
D) Males are much more likely to develop it than are women.
Q2) Which of the following groups has the highest incidence of hypertension?
A) Men under the age of 55
B) Women over 40 who have type 2 diabetes
C) African Americans
D) Asian Americans
Q3) Thin-walled vessels that are involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide are
A) veins.
B) capillaries.
C) arteries.
D) chambers.
Q4) Briefly describe what occurs when a person has a stroke. Include the most common signs and symptoms, what is happening to the brain, and the possible lingering effects.
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Q1) Nerve damage associated with diabetes can cause numbness and tingling in A) the neck.
B) the hands.
C) the feet.
D) the hands and feet.
Q2) People with diabetes generally do self-checks to monitor blood sugar throughout the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following individuals would have the highest risk for developing type 2 diabetes?
A) A white male with a waist circumference of 34 inches
B) A normal-weight black female with a history of depression
C) An Asian American female with high blood pressure
D) A Native American male with a BMI of 30
Q4) The increase in type 2 diabetes risk is primarily due to genetic risk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What steps can an individual take to lower their risk of diabetes?
Q6) How does type 2 diabetes develop from early stages leading to a diagnosis?
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Q1) Two high-risk behaviors associated with the development of HIV/AIDS are having unprotected sex and injecting drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The stage of syphilis that is characterized by a bacteria-filled chancre is
A) primary syphilis.
B) secondary syphilis.
C) latent syphilis.
D) tertiary syphilis.
Q3) Asthma is an allergic reaction to specific types of pollen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following behaviors will compromise your immune system's ability to fight infections EXCEPT
A) not getting enough sleep.
B) eating junk food.
C) excessive alcohol consumption.
D) exercising regularly.

Page 19
Q5) Discuss five strategies to protect yourself from back pain and injury.
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Q1) After his stroke at the age of 80, Austin now has urinary incontinence, meaning he has
A) kidney failure.
B) reduced control or no control over urination.
C) slowing of the urinary stream flow.
D) dietary phosphorus that interfered with urination.
Q2) Withholding life-prolonging treatments and allowing a terminally ill patient to die naturally is
A) palliative care.
B) active euthanasia.
C) passive euthanasia.
D) rational suicide.
Q3) Too often, drug interactions in elderly people are first diagnosed as which condition before the underlying cause is found?
A) Addiction
B) Diabetes
C) Dementia
D) Chronic fatigue syndrome
Q4) Explain the phenomenon of aging gracefully.
Q5) Describe four characteristics of people who have aged successfully.
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Q1) All of the following are examples of renewable resources EXCEPT
A) solar.
B) wind.
C) water.
D) coal.
Q2) Electromagnetic waves and particles with short wavelengths and enough energy to ionize atoms is
A) cell phone radiation.
B) nonionizing radiation.
C) ionizing radiation.
D) microwave radiation.
Q3) Most experts agree that the only truly effective way to reduce air pollution is to A) change all industrial waste laws.
B) reduce consumption of fossil fuels and shift to alternative energy sources.
C) make cars larger, heavier, and more efficient.
D) eliminate mass transportation as much as possible.
Q4) Most solid municipal waste is recycled.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss four factors involved in the continuing increase in health care costs.
Q2) Conventional Western medical practice is known as A) naturopathic medicine.
B) allopathic medicine.
C) Chinese medicine.
D) evidence-based medicine.
Q3) The majority of health care dollars in the United States is spent on A) hospital care.
B) physician services.
C) prescription drugs.
D) nursing home care.
Q4) Requesting an x-ray when it is unnecessary but the patient demands it would be considered defensive medicine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You should consult a physician
A) to check blood pressure and temperature.
B) to learn new relaxation techniques.
C) to treat a reaction to an insect bite.
D) for a monthly breast or testicular exam.
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Q1) Which supplement affects the pituitary gland and helps with metabolism, concentration, and resisting the effects of stress?
A) Echinacea
B) Flaxseed
C) Ginseng
D) Ginkgo biloba
Q2) According to a NCCAM survey, the people who use alternative therapy tend to have higher levels of education.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A somatic education technique designed to improve movement, flexibility, and nervous system function is
A) Rolfing Structural Integration.
B) the Alexander Technique.
C) the Trager Approach.
D) the Feldenkrais Method.
Q4) Echinacea can cause an allergic reaction in some individuals.
A)True
B)False
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