

Fundamentals of Dental Radiography
Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Dental Radiography introduces the basic principles and techniques of radiographic imaging as applied in dentistry. The course covers the physics of x-ray production, radiographic anatomy, safety protocols, and infection control measures. Students will learn about different types of radiographic equipment, film processing, digital imaging, and proper patient positioning to obtain diagnostic-quality images. Emphasis is placed on minimizing radiation exposure for both patients and operators through adherence to ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) guidelines. The course includes both theoretical instruction and hands-on practice, preparing students to produce and evaluate dental radiographs for clinical use.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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Chapter 1: Radiation History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiation is defined as:
A) A form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles.
B) A beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on photographic film.
C) A high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube.
D) A branch of medicine that deals with the use of x-rays.
Answer: A
Q2) A radiograph is defined as:
A) A beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on photographic film.
B) A picture on film produced by the passage of x-rays through an object or body.
C) The art and science of making radiographs by the exposure of film to x-rays.
D) A form of energy carried by waves or a stream of particles.
Answer: B
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3

Chapter 2: Radiation Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fundamental unit of matter is the:
A) Proton
B) Neutron
C) Electron
D) Atom
Answer: D
Q2) ____ is the measurement of the number of electrons moving through a conductor.
A) Alternating current
B) Direct current
C) Amperage
D) Voltage
Answer: C
Q3) Photons are:
A) Bundles of energy with mass and weight.
B) Bundles of energy that travel at the speed of sound.
C) A component of the particle concept of electromagnetic radiation.
D) A component of the wave concept of electromagnetic radiation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Radiation Characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kVp represents:
A) The mean x-ray tube voltage.
B) The mean filament voltage.
C) The maximum or peak voltage of an alternating current.
D) The maximum or peak voltage of a direct current.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following changes will increase x-ray beam intensity?
A) Decreasing the kilovoltage peak
B) Decreasing the milliamperage
C) Decreasing the exposure time
D) Decreasing the source-to-film distance
Answer: D
Q3) The quantity of the x-rays produced is controlled by:
A) Voltage
B) Kilovoltage
C) Kilovoltage peak
D) Milliamperage
Answer: D
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5

Chapter 4: Radiation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The traditional unit of dose is called:
A) The roentgen (R)
B) The radiation absorbed dose (rad)
C) The roentgen equivalent in man (rem)
D) The gray (Gy)
Q2) Which of the following combinations will result in the lowest absorbed dose for the patient from a 20-film series of dental radiographs?
A) Round collimation with F-speed film
B) Rectangular collimation with F-speed film
C) Round collimation with D-speed film
D) Rectangular collimation with D-speed film
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of somatic effects of irradiation?
A) Changes are not transmitted to future generations.
B) Changes are in the genetic cells of the individual.
C) Mutations occur that affect the health of offspring.
D) Damage cannot be repaired.
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Chapter 5: Radiation Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is ____ inch(es) in diameter.
A) less than 1
B) 1.25
C) 2.75
D) 5.0
Q2) Added filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead:
A) Refers to the placement of tungsten discs in the path of the x-ray beam between the collimator and the tubehead seal.
B) Filters out shorter-wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam.
C) Results in a lower-energy beam.
D) Results in a more penetrating useful beam.
Q3) Which type of PID would be most effective in reducing patient exposure?
A) Conical
B) 16-inch round PID
C) 8-inch rectangular PID
D) 16-inch rectangular PID
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Chapter 6: Dental X-Ray Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ allow(s) for positioning of the tubehead.
A) control devices
B) extension arm
C) control panel
D) exposure button
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the film holder?
A) It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray film.
B) It requires the patient to stabilize the film in the mouth.
C) It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique.
D) It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique.
Q3) Features of the Stabe bite-block include:
A) Disposable.
B) Slot for film retention.
C) Molded plastic that can be sterilized.
D) Both a and b.
Q4) Which of the following are beam alignment devices?
A) Stabe bite-block
B) XCP bite-block
C) EEZEE-Grip
D) Precision film holders
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Chapter 7: Dental X-Ray Film
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of film exhibits the bony and soft tissue areas of the facial profile?
A) Periapical
B) Bite-wing
C) Panoramic
D) Cephalometric
Q2) The halide in dental x-ray film is primarily silver:
A) Iodide
B) Bromide
C) Chloride
D) Fluoride
Q3) The tube side of the dental film packet:
A) Has the flap used to open the dental film.
B) Is solid white.
C) Should face the patient's tongue.
D) Is color-coded.
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Chapter 8: Dental X-Ray Image Characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary factor that limits the size of the tungsten target is:
A) The cost of the materials.
B) Heat production.
C) The limited kinetic energy of the electrons.
D) The limited kinetic energy of the photons.
Q2) A radiograph that has ____ is said to have low contrast.
A) A very dark overall appearance
B) A very light overall appearance
C) Many shades of gray
D) Very dark areas and very light areas
Q3) Which of the following areas would appear the most radiolucent on a dental radiograph?
A) Composite
B) Amalgam
C) Air space
D) Enamel
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Chapter 9: Dental X-Ray Film Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Developer solution has a(n) ____ pH, and fixer solution has a(n) ____ pH.
A) acidic; acidic
B) acidic; basic
C) basic; acidic
D) basic; basic
Q2) The film emulsion is softened during which of the following stages of the development process?
A) Development
B) Rinsing
C) Fixation
D) Washing
Q3) Any leaks of white light in the darkroom cause film:
A) To be entirely clear on processing.
B) To become more sensitive to processing chemistry.
C) Fog.
D) To exhibit decreased contrast between light and dark areas.
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11
Chapter 10: Quality Assurance in the Dental Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) To conduct the coin test, the film and coin are exposed for:
A) 10 seconds.
B) 3 or 4 minutes.
C) 15 minutes.
D) An entire workday.
Q2) The results of a film-screen contact test should be viewed on a viewbox in a:
A) Dimly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.
B) Brightly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.
C) Dimly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.
D) Brightly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.
Q3) To create a reference radiograph, which of the following must be fresh? 1. Film
2) Developer
3) Fixer
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1 only
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Page 12

Chapter 11: Dental Radiographs and the Dental
Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assigned responsibilities of dental auxiliaries in regard to dental radiography may include:
A) Mounting and identification of dental radiographs.
B) Implementation and monitoring of quality control procedures.
C) Education of patients about dental radiography.
D) a, b, and c
Q2) The dental radiographer requires which of the following to perform dental radiographic procedures?
A) Sufficient knowledge
B) Technical skills
C) Sufficient knowledge and technical skills
D) Neither sufficient knowledge nor technical skills
Q3) Through the use of dental radiographs, the dental radiographer can detect ____ that cannot be detected clinically. 1. Diseases
2) Lesions
3) Conditions of teeth and bones
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 3 only
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient trusts the dental professional, the patient is:
A) Less likely to provide information.
B) Less likely to cooperate during treatment.
C) More likely to comply with prescribed treatment.
D) Less likely to return for further treatment.
Q2) Inviting a patient to ask questions:
A) Wastes time.
B) Discourages communication.
C) Enhances communication.
D) Intimidates the patient.
Q3) The term facilitation means :
A) Initiating.
B) The act of making easier.
C) The act of continuing.
D) Construction of a facility.
Q4) Communication is defined in the text as:
A) Having a conversation.
B) Establishing a connection.
C) The process by which information is exchanged between two or more persons.
D) Two or more persons in the same location or room.
14
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Chapter 13: Patient Education and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many recorded cases are there of a patient developing cancer from diagnostic x-rays?
A) Zero
B) Less than 50
C) Between 50 and 100
D) More than 100
Q2) There is ____ interval between x-ray examinations.
A) no set time
B) a set 6-month
C) a set 12-month
D) a set 24-month
Q3) Exposures in the range of thousands of roentgens are ____ in dental radiography.
A) Often exceeded
B) Exceeded with a full mouth series
C) Rarely exceeded
D) Inconceivable
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Chapter 14: Legal Issues and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is appropriate for any dental professional to discuss a patient's care with:
1) Another patient.
2) Office staff members who are not involved in the treatment of the patient.
3) Another dentist involved in the patient's care.
4) A physician with whom care is shared.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)1, 2
D)3, 4
Q2) If informed consent is not obtained from a patient before the exposure of dental radiographs, a patient may legally claim:
A) Negligence.
B) Malpractice.
C) Malpractice or negligence.
D) Disclosure.
Q3) Generally, there are ____ elements to informed consent.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Six
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Chapter 15: Infection Control and the Dental Radiographer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogens are:
A) Any microorganisms.
B) Bacteria but not viruses.
C) Viruses but not bacteria.
D) Microorganisms capable of causing disease.
Q2) Infectious diseases may be transmitted from:
1) A patient to the dental professional.
2) The dental professional to a patient.
3) One patient to another patient.
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 3
C)2, 3
D)1, 2
Q3) ____ is defined as the absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms.
A) Antiseptic
B) Antibiotic
C) Antiinfective
D) Asepsis
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Radiographic Examinations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CMRS is defined as a series of intraoral dental radiographs that shows:
A) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
B) All the edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
C) All the dentulous or edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws.
D) All the dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws that can be verified clinically.
Q2) CMRS stands for:
A) Complete mouth restorative series.
B) Complete mouth radiographic series.
C) Complete mouth restorative service.
D) Complete mouth radiographic service.
Q3) There are ____ methods for obtaining periapical radiographs.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Five
D) Ten
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18

Chapter 17: Paralleling Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) To achieve parallelism between the film and the tooth, the ____ distance must be increased to keep the film parallel with the long axis of the tooth.
A) Target-object
B) Object-film
C) Target-film
D) Operator-patient
Q2) The authors recommend using size ____ film for anterior teeth and size ____ film for posterior teeth.
A) 1; 1
B) 2; 2
C) 1; 2
D) 2; 1
Q3) An increased ____ distance results in increased image magnification.
A) Target-object
B) Object-film
C) Target-film
D) Operator-patient
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Chapter 18: Bisecting Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the bisecting technique is used, the film must be placed along the ____ surface of the tooth.
A) Buccal
B) Lingual
C) Mesial
D) Distal
Q2) With the finger-holding method, which of the following would be used to hold the maxillary right molar film?
A) Left thumb
B) Right thumb
C) Left finger
D) Right finger
Q3) When the ____ is/are used, the patient may use excessive force to stabilize the film, causing the film to bend and resulting in image distortion.
A) Rinn BAI instruments
B) Stabe bite-block
C) Finger-holding method
D) EEZEE-Grip film holder
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20
Chapter 19: Bite-Wing Technique
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the molar bite-wing exposure, the front edge of the film should be aligned with the midline of the:
A) Maxillary first premolar.
B) Mandibular first premolar.
C) Maxillary second premolar.
D) Mandibular second premolar.
Q2) The problem with a single bite-wing film per side for adult patients is increased:
A) X-ray exposure.
B) Possibility of inciting the gag reflex.
C) Overlapped contacts.
D) Useful diagnostic information.
Q3) For the premolar bite-wing exposure, the PID is positioned far enough forward to cover both maxillary and mandibular:
A) Lateral incisors.
B) Canines.
C) First premolars.
D) Second premolars.
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21
Chapter 20: Exposure and Technique Errors
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Q1) The possibility of exposure of radiographic film to white light can be reduced by:
A) Turning off the safelight and unwrapping the films in a pitch-dark room.
B) Pre-exposing the entire package of film to radiation before opening the package.
C) Not unwrapping the film in a room with white light.
D) Turning off the fluorescent lighting in the treatment room before exposing radiographic films.
Q2) Which of the following films would most likely appear black?
A) An unexposed film
B) A film exposed to light
C) An overexposed film
D) An underexposed film
Q3) The appearance of a patient's finger on the film is called a:
A) Hemangioma
B) Phalangioma
C) Myxoma
D) Pericytoma
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22

Chapter 21: Occlusal and Localization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a maxillary occlusal projection, but not a mandibular occlusal projection?
A) Topographic occlusal projection
B) Lateral occlusal projection
C) Cross-sectional occlusal projection
D) Pediatric projection
Q2) For the maxillary topographic occlusal projection, the central ray is directed at ____ degrees.
A) +30
B) +45
C) +65
D) -30
Q3) A radiograph depicts which of the following dimensions of an object?
1) Length
2) Width
3) Depth
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)2, 3
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Chapter 22: Panoramic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collimator used in panoramic radiography has an opening in the shape of a ____ slit.
A) Narrow horizontal
B) Narrow vertical
C) Wide horizontal
D) Wide vertical
Q2) A disadvantage of panoramic dental radiography when contrasted with intraoral dental radiography is:
A) Panoramic radiography results in higher exposure to the patient than intraoral radiography.
B) Fewer anatomic structures can be viewed on a panoramic film than on a complete intraoral radiographic series.
C) The images seen on a panoramic radiograph are not as sharp as those on intraoral radiographs because of the intensifying screens.
D) The exposure of a panoramic radiograph is readily accepted by the patient because there is no discomfort involved.
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24

Chapter 23: Extraoral Imaging
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Q1) The front side of the cassette is typically constructed of ____ and permits the passage of the x-ray beam, whereas the back side is made of ____ to reduce scatter radiation.
A) Metal; metal
B) Plastic; plastic
C) Plastic; metal
D) Metal; plastic
Q2) The most common extraoral film is the ____ projection.
A) Lateral cephalometric
B) Posteroanterior
C) Waters
D) Panoramic radiograph
Q3) To compensate for the strips found in the grid, ____ must be used to expose a film.
A) Increased kilovoltage
B) Increased milliamperage
C) Increased exposure time
D) Decreased exposure time
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Chapter 24: Imaging of Patients With Special Needs
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Q1) ____ periapical films can be used to examine the edentulous arches.
A) Eight
B) Twelve
C) Fourteen
D) Eighteen
Q2) Which of the following choices would represent the suggested film placement sequence for a patient who is likely to gag?
1) Anterior
2) Premolar
3) Molar
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 1, 3
C)2, 3, 1
D)3, 1, 2
Q3) Suggestions to avoid stimulating the gag reflex include:
A) Sliding the film along the palate.
B) Placing the film slowly to avoid stimulating the patient.
C) Demonstrating film placement.
D) Waiting for 30 seconds before exposing each film.
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Page 26

Chapter 25: Digital Imaging
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Q1) Storage phosphor imaging:
A) Is a form of direct digital imaging.
B) Is a wired digital radiography system.
C) Uses a sensor with a fiber-optic cable.
D) Uses a reusable imaging plate.
Q2) With the feature of ____, the gray-scale of the diagnostic image is reversed so that radiolucent images appear white and radiopaque images appear black.
A) Pseudocolor alteration
B) Digital subtraction
C) Contrast
D) Image orientation
Q3) How does the CMOS detector differ from the CCD detector?
A) The CMOS detector is silicon-based and differs from the CCD detector in the way that the pixels are read.
B) The CMOS detector is currently manufactured by one company and claims 25% less resolution than the CCD detector.
C) The CMOS detector is more expensive to produce than the CCD detector.
D) The CMOS detector is less durable than the CCD detector.
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Chapter 26: Three-Dimensional Digital Imaging
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Q1) Common uses of three-dimensional imaging include which of the following?
1) Implant placement
2) Extraction or exposure of impacted teeth
3) Definition of anatomic structures
4) Airway and sinus analysis
5) Evaluation of temporomandibular joint disorders
A)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B)2, 4, 5
C)1, 2, 3
D)Some other combination
Q2) Metallic restorations may eliminate or hide the surrounding anatomy with the appearance of:
A) High density.
B) Fogged film.
C) Streak artifacts.
D) Blank images.
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Chapter 27: Normal Anatomy: Intraoral Images
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Q1) Bony septa and nutrient canals may be seen within the walls of the:
A) Median palatal suture.
B) Maxillary sinus.
C) Incisive foramen.
D) Anterior nasal spine.
Q2) When the internal and external oblique ridges appear separate, the ____ band is the external oblique ridge.
A) Superior radiopaque
B) Superior radiolucent
C) Inferior radiopaque
D) Inferior radiolucent
Q3) The ____ is a linear prominence of bone extending from the molar region downward on the internal surface of the mandible.
A) External oblique ridge
B) Mylohyoid ridge
C) Internal oblique ridge
D) Symphysis
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29

Chapter 28: Film Mounting and Viewing
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Q1) With the lingual mounting method, films are viewed from the ____ aspect. The lingual method ____ recommended.
A) Labial; is
B) Labial; is not
C) Lingual; is
D) Lingual; is not
Q2) The text recommends viewing radiographs ____ in a room with ____ lighting.
A) as many times as necessary; bright
B) as many times as necessary; dimmed
C) A single time; bright
D) A single time; dimmed
Q3) When all the windows of the film mount are not filled with radiographs, the text recommends placing ____ in the unused frames.
A) Masking tape
B) Nothing
C) Black opaque paper
D) An unexposed film
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Chapter 29: Normal Anatomy: Panoramic Images
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Q1) Which of the following structures is part of the sphenoid bone?
A) Glenoid fossa
B) Articular eminence
C) Lateral pterygoid plate
D) Styloid process
Q2) Which of the following structures may be seen on both periapical and panoramic radiographs?
A) Mandibular condyle
B) Coronoid notch
C) Mandibular foramen
D) Mental foramen
Q3) Which of the following radiographs allows the dental professional to view the largest area of the mandible and maxilla on a single film?
A) Four bite-wing films
B) 18-film periapical series
C) 21-film periapical series
D) Panoramic
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Chapter 30: Introduction to Image Interpretation
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Q1) In the dental setting, most films are examined in the:
A) Business office.
B) Darkroom.
C) Operatory.
D) Reception room.
Q2) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
Q3) In the dental setting, interpretation refers to an explanation of what is viewed on a radiograph, whereas the term diagnosis refers to the identification of disease by examination or analysis.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Chapter 31: Descriptive Terminology
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Q1) The term ____ refers to a radiolucent lesion located around the crown of an impacted tooth.
A) Periapical
B) Inter-radicular
C) Pericoronal
D) Edentulous zone
Q2) Unilocular lesions tend to be:
A) Small and expansile.
B) Small and nonexpansile.
C) Large and expansile.
D) Large and nonexpansile.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a soft-tissue opacity?
A) Osteitis deformans
B) Sialolith
C) Chondrosarcoma
D) Florid osseous dysplasia
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Chapter 32: Identification of Restorations, Dental Materials, and Foreign Objects
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Q1) A large, well-adapted radiopaque restoration with smooth borders is probably:
A) Silver amalgam.
B) Gold.
C) Porcelain.
D) Stainless steel.
Q2) Diatorics are:
A) Color sources.
B) Metal retention pins.
C) Identification dots.
D) Orthodontic brackets.
Q3) Amalgam overhangs can be described as extensions of amalgam seen on dental radiographs beyond the crown portion of a tooth located in the ____ region.
A) Buccal
B) Lingual
C) Interproximal
D) Occlusal
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Chapter 33: Interpretation of Dental Caries
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Q1) Rampant caries are typically seen in children with ____ dietary habits or in adults with ____ salivary flow.
A) Poor; increased
B) Poor; decreased
C) Good; increased
D) Good; decreased
Q2) A radiograph is most useful for detection of ____ caries.
A) Buccal
B) Lingual
C) Occlusal
D) Interproximal
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of root surface caries?
A) Root surface caries involve the loss of enamel.
B) Root surface caries are clinically difficult to detect on exposed root surfaces.
C) Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just below the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).
D) Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just above the CEJ.
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35

Chapter 34: Interpretation of Periodontal Disease
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Q1) The ____ radiograph using the ____ technique is the film of choice for the evaluation of periodontal disease.
A) Bite-wing; paralleling
B) Bite-wing; bisecting
C) Periapical; paralleling
D) Periapical; bisecting
Q2) The normal periodontal ligament space appears as a ____ line.
A) Thin radiopaque
B) Thin radiolucent
C) Thick radiopaque
D) Thick radiolucent
Q3) Radiographs permit the evaluation of ____ in the detection of periodontal disease.
A) Pocket depth
B) Soft tissue
C) Inflammation
D) Bone
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Chapter 35: Interpretation of Trauma and Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Teeth that have been luxated should be evaluated by a(n) ____ radiograph.
A) Bite-wing
B) Periapical
C) Occlusal
D) Panoramic
Q2) Pulp stones ____ cause symptoms and ____ require treatment.
A) Do; do
B) Do; do not
C) Do not; do
D) Do not; do not
Q3) Condensing osteitis ____ vary in size and shape and ____ appear to be attached to the tooth root.
A) May; does
B) May; does not
C) May not; does
D) May not; does not
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