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Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Dental Imaging introduces students to the essential concepts and practices in dental radiography and other dental imaging modalities. The course covers the principles of radiation physics, X-ray generation, and image formation, alongside safety protocols for minimizing radiation exposure. Students will learn proper techniques for acquiring high-quality intraoral and extraoral images, as well as interpreting normal and abnormal findings. Emphasis is placed on the application of dental imaging in diagnosis, treatment planning, and patient management, while also exploring advancements such as digital imaging and three-dimensional imaging technologies.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 4th Edition by Iannucci DDS MS
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811 Verified Questions
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Q1) A radiograph is defined as:
A) A beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on photographic film.
B) A picture on film produced by the passage of x-rays through an object or body.
C) The art and science of making radiographs by the exposure of film to x-rays.
D) A form of energy carried by waves or a stream of particles.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of dental radiographs?
A) An oral examination with dental radiographs limits the practitioner to what is seen clinically.
B) All dental diseases and conditions produce clinical signs and symptoms.
C) Dental radiographs are not a necessary component of comprehensive patient care.
D) Many dental diseases are typically discovered only through the use of dental radiographs.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of orbits or shells in the atom?
A) Protons travel around the nucleus in well-defined shells.
B) An atom contains innumerable shells.
C) The energy level within each shell is the same.
D) The K shell is located closest to the nucleus and has the highest energy level.
Answer: D
Q2) Particulate radiations:
A) Are tiny particles of matter.
B) Do not possess mass.
C) Travel in curved lines at low speeds.
D) Do not transmit kinetic energy.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following elements is the simplest atom, with an atomic number of 1?
A) Hydrogen
B) Helium
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen
Answer: A
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Q1) When contrasted with the use of 65 kV to 75 kV for dental x-rays, the use of 85 kV to 100 kV produces:
A) More penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelength.
B) Less penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelength.
C) More penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength.
D) Less penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength.
Answer: C
Q2) A film with "low" contrast (greater or equal to 90 kVp):
A) Is useful for the detection of periodontal or periapical disease.
B) Is useful for the detection and progression of dental caries.
C) Has many shades of gray.
D) Both a and c.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements is/are true of wavelength in reference to radiation?
A) X-rays with longer wavelength have less penetrating power.
B) X-rays with longer wavelength have more penetrating power.
C) X-rays with longer wavelength are more likely to be absorbed by matter.
D) Both a and c.
Answer: D
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Q1) 1) More radiation damage takes place with high dose rates, 2) because a rapid delivery of radiation does not allow time for cellular damage to be repaired.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) Short-term radiation effects are associated with:
A) Large amounts of radiation absorbed in a short time.
B) Small amounts of radiation absorbed over a long period.
C) Acute radiation syndrome.
D) Both a and c.
Q3) Naturally occurring background radiation includes:
A) Cosmic radiation.
B) Consumer products.
C) Terrestrial radiation.
D) Both a and c.
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Q1) A rectangular collimator:
A) Restricts the beam more than a circular collimator.
B) Restricts the beam less than a circular collimator.
C) Significantly reduces patient exposure.
D) Both a and c
Q2) Radiation legislation varies greatly from state to state. For example, in some states a dental radiographer must successfully complete a radiation safety examination before he or she may expose dental x-rays.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q3) A film badge:
A) Is worn at waist level by the patient.
B) Is worn at waist level by the operator.
C) Is clipped to the shirt pocket of the operator.
D) Is clipped to the shirt pocket of the patient.
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Q1) A ____ eliminates the need for the patient to stabilize the film.
A) PID (position-indicating device)
B) film holder
C) control panel
D) beam alignment device
Q2) The position-indicating device (PID) is an extension of the:
A) Tubehead
B) Extension arm
C) Control panel
D) Exposure button
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the film holder?
A) It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray film.
B) It requires the patient to stabilize the film in the mouth.
C) It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique.
D) It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique.
Q4) Features of the Stabe bite-block include:
A) Disposable.
B) Slot for film retention.
C) Molded plastic that can be sterilized.
D) Both a and b.
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Q1) Screen film:
A) Is sensitive to direct exposure to radiation.
B) Is sensitive to fluorescent light.
C) Requires more exposure time than nonscreen film.
D) Is not recommended for use in dentistry.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding dental x-ray film and formation of the latent image?
A) The film is placed to the buccal of the teeth.
B) The film is placed to the lingual of the teeth.
C) A periapical film is an extraoral film.
D) A bite-wing film is an extraoral film.
Q3) The thin lead foil sheet is positioned:
A) Behind the film.
B) In front of the film.
C) Behind the paper film wrapper.
D) In front of the paper film wrapper.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A radiograph that has ____ is said to have low contrast.
A) A very dark overall appearance
B) A very light overall appearance
C) Many shades of gray
D) Very dark areas and very light areas
Q2) Which of the following changes will result in a radiograph with reduced density?
A) Increasing the exposure time
B) Increasing the subject thickness
C) Increasing the milliamperage
D) Increasing the operating kilovoltage peak
Q3) A stepwedge will reveal that radiographs taken at a lower kVp will have ____ than radiographs taken at a higher kVp.
A) More shades of gray
B) Higher contrast
C) Lower contrast
D) Both a and c
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Q1) Which of the following would be the best choice for cleaning the master and insert tanks?
A) Plain tap water
B) A solution of hydrochloric acid and water
C) A powder-type abrasive cleanser
D) A liquid-type abrasive cleanser
Q2) The purpose of the hardening agent is to harden and shrink the:
A) Exposed silver halide crystals.
B) Unexposed silver halide crystals.
C) Gelatin in the film emulsion.
D) Plastic film base.
Q3) Developer solution should be changed ____ fixer solution.
A) Twice as often as
B) More often than
C) Less often than
D) At the same time as
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Q1) The results of a film-screen contact test should be viewed on a viewbox in a:
A) Dimly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.
B) Brightly lit room at a distance of 1 foot.
C) Dimly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.
D) Brightly lit room at a distance of 6 feet.
Q2) If the film clears in ____ minutes, the chemistry is of adequate strength.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 14
Q3) To create a reference radiograph, which of the following must be fresh? 1. Film
2) Developer
3) Fixer
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1 only
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Page 12

Radiographer
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Q1) The dental radiographer requires which of the following to perform dental radiographic procedures?
A) Sufficient knowledge
B) Technical skills
C) Sufficient knowledge and technical skills
D) Neither sufficient knowledge nor technical skills
Q2) According to the text, "____ is one of the most important uses of dental radiographs."
A) Habitual rote frequency
B) Detection
C) Maintaining a routine
D) Insurance verification
Q3) A ____ may be a dental radiographer. 1. Dental hygienist
2) Dental assistant
3) Dentist
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3 only
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Q1) Inviting a patient to ask questions:
A) Wastes time.
B) Discourages communication.
C) Enhances communication.
D) Intimidates the patient.
Q2) ____ is a nonverbal communication skill associated with interest and warmth.
A) Leaning slightly away from the patient
B) A slumped posture
C) Tapping fingers
D) An attentive posture
Q3) When nonverbal messages are not consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to:
A) Relax.
B) Trust the dental professional.
C) Respond with apprehension.
D) Both a and b.
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Q1) There is ____ interval between x-ray examinations.
A) no set time
B) a set 6-month
C) a set 12-month
D) a set 24-month
Q2) With faster F-speed film, a single intraoral film results in a surface skin exposure of ____ milliroentgens.
A) 1.25
B) 12.5
C) 125
D) 1250
Q3) Patient education is likely to result in decreased:
A) Acceptance of prescribed treatment.
B) Fears of x-ray exposure.
C) Cooperation.
D) Motivation for regular dental visits.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of radiographs and the patient's dental record?
A) Radiographs may be discarded when outdated.
B) It is advised to keep patient radiographs in a file separate from patient charts.
C) The dental record must include documentation of the number and type of radiographs exposed.
D) Dental radiographs are an optional rather than integral part of the dental record.
Q2) The standard of care can be defined as the quality of care that is provided by dental practitioners in ____ locality under ____ conditions.
A) any; similar or very different
B) a similar; the same or similar
C) any; the same or similar
D) a similar; similar or very different
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Q1) Preparation of the dental radiographer should include:
A) Removing film-holding devices before hand washing.
B) Removing film-holding devices after hand washing but before placing gloves.
C) Mandatory use of a surgical mask and protective eyewear.
D) Optional use of a surgical mask and protective eyewear.
Q2) Commercially available barrier envelopes:
A) Minimize contamination before exposure of the film.
B) Minimize contamination after exposure of the film.
C) Are made of a material that blocks the passage of photons.
D) Are made of a material that blocks the passage of electrons.
Q3) In dental radiography, no ____ are used.
1) Critical instruments
2) Semicritical instruments
3) Noncritical instruments
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)3 only
D)1 only
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Q1) A total of ____ to ____ films may be included in the CMRS.
A) 4; 7
B) 7; 14
C) 14; 20
D) 19; 21
Q2) Which of the following is an extraoral technique for radiographic examination?
A) Panoramic
B) Interproximal
C) Periapical
D) Occlusal
Q3) Which of the following methods is/are used for obtaining periapical radiographs?
A) Paralleling
B) Bisecting
C) Interproximal
D) Both a and b
Q4) CMRS stands for:
A) Complete mouth restorative series.
B) Complete mouth radiographic series.
C) Complete mouth restorative service.
D) Complete mouth radiographic service.
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Q1) The paralleling technique ____ on fixed vertical angulations and produces a radiographic image ____ dimensional distortion.
A) Does not rely; without
B) Relies; without
C) Does not rely; with
D) Relies; Without
Q2) Reusable film holders must be ____ after each use.
A) Rinsed with tap water
B) Wiped with disinfectant
C) Placed in an immersion disinfectant
D) Sterilized
Q3) Anterior film placements are less likely to cause the patient to gag. Once the gag reflex is stimulated, the patient may gag on films that could normally be tolerated.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Q1) Which of the following commercially available film holders are recommended for use with either the paralleling or the bisecting technique?
1) Rinn XCP instruments
2) Rinn BAI instruments
3) Precision film holder
4) Stabe bite-block
5) EEZEE-Grip film holder
A)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B)2, 3, 4, 5
C)3, 4, 5
D)2, 4, 5
Q2) The recommended anterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique starts with the:
A) Maxillary right canine
B) Maxillary left canine
C) Mandibular right canine
D) Mandibular left canine
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Q1) In the adult patient, which size film is recommended for bite-wing exposures?
A) Size 0
B) Size 1
C) Size 2
D) Size 3
Q2) According to the text, which size bite-wing film is not recommended?
A) Size 0
B) Size 1
C) Size 2
D) Size 3
Q3) Which of the following exposure sequences is recommended for the patient who requires both periapical and bite-wing radiographs?
1) Bite-wing exposures
2) Anterior periapical films
3) Posterior periapical films
A)1, 2, 3
B)2, 1, 3
C)2, 3, 1
D)3, 1, 2
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Q1) When the distal surfaces of the canines are not visible on a premolar bite-wing film, the solution is to:
A) Change the horizontal angulation of the tubehead.
B) Increase the vertical angulation of the tubehead.
C) Decrease the vertical angulation of the tubehead.
D) Position the anterior edge of the film at the midline of the mandibular canine.
Q2) To prevent underexposure, check and increase ____ as needed.
1) Exposure time
2) Kilovoltage
3) Milliamperage
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)2, 3
D)1, 3
Q3) An unexposed film appears:
A) Clear
B) Black
C) Dark
D) Light
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Q1) A radiograph depicts which of the following dimensions of an object?
1) Length
2) Width
3) Depth
A)1, 2, 3
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)2, 3
Q2) For the maxillary pediatric occlusal projection, position the PID so that the central ray is directed at ____ degrees toward the center of the film.
A) +20
B) +45
C) +60
D) +90
Q3) In adults, size ____ film is used in the occlusal examination.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
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Q1) If the patient's lips are not closed on the bite-block during the exposure of a panoramic film, a ____ shadow results that obscures the anterior teeth.
A) Light radiopaque
B) Dark radiopaque
C) Light radiolucent
D) Dark radiolucent
Q2) The collimator used in the panoramic x-ray machine is a(n) ____ plate.
A) Aluminum
B) Silver
C) Lead
D) Copper
Q3) The closer the rotation center is to the teeth, the wider the focal trough. In most panoramic machines, the focal trough is wide in the anterior region and narrow in the posterior region.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Q1) The patient's head and neck are tipped back as far as possible for the ____ projection.
A) Lateral cephalometric
B) Posteroanterior
C) Waters
D) Submentovertex
Q2) Which of the following projections is used to evaluate fractures of the zygomatic arch?
A) Lateral cephalometric
B) Posteroanterior
C) Waters
D) Submentovertex
Q3) The purpose of the ____ projection is to identify fractures of the condylar neck and ramus areA.
A) Reverse Towne
B) Posteroanterior
C) Waters
D) Submentovertex
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Q1) When intraoral films are impossible to obtain, the radiographer should:
A) Skip radiographs.
B) Use an injection of local anesthetic on the patient's throat and try again.
C) Use extraoral films to obtain diagnostic information.
D) Use an intraoral digital film sensor rather than conventional film.
Q2) If the patient gags, the dental radiographer must:
A) Bring up the subject of gagging.
B) Remove the film as quickly as possible.
C) Wait 30 seconds before removing the film so the patient can acclimate to its presence.
D) Wait until the patient removes the film.
Q3) The gag reflex is elicited by stimulation of the sensitive tissues of the:
A) Larynx
B) Pharynx
C) Soft palate
D) Hard palate
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Q1) A primary advantage to digital imaging is the superior gray-scale resolution that results. Digital imaging uses up to 32 shades of gray.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
Q2) The human eye can appreciate ____ shades of gray.
A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
D) 256
Q3) Sensors that cannot be sterilized:
A) Should be disposed of between patients.
B) Are wiped off with a surface disinfectant (iodophor) between patients.
C) Require complete coverage with disposable plastic sleeves for each patient.
D) Are placed in an immersion disinfectant for an appropriate amount of time between each patient.
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Q1) The reconstruction of raw data into images when imported into viewing software to create three anatomical planes of the body is called:
A) Multiplanar reconstruction.
B) Axial plane.
C) Coronal plane.
D) Sagittal plane.
Q2) The information that the receptor receives is termed the:
A) Computer analysis.
B) Image.
C) Raw data.
D) DICOM data.
Q3) Failure of the dental practitioner to evaluate, interpret, and document observations outside the region of dental interest could result in negative consequences for the patient. It is not the responsibility of the dental practitioner to recognize findings and pathology outside the region of dental interest.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second statement is true.
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Q1) The median palatal suture is located between the two ____ of the maxillA.
A) Inferior nasal conchae
B) Nasal cavities
C) Palatine processes
D) Maxillary sinuses
Q2) Cancellous bone is the soft, ____ bone located between two layers of ____ cortical bone.
A) Spongy; spongy
B) Dense; dense
C) Spongy; dense
D) Dense; spongy
Q3) The ____ is an opening or hole in bone that is located in the midline of the anterior portion of the hard palate directly posterior to the maxillary central incisors.
A) Mental foramen
B) Foramen ovale
C) Greater palatine foramen
D) Incisive foramen
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Q1) In the labial mounting method, radiographs are placed in the film mount with the ____ side of the identification dot facing the viewer. They are then viewed from the ____ aspect.
A) Depressed; labial
B) Depressed; lingual
C) Raised; labial
D) Raised; lingual
Q2) Mounted radiographs increase:
A) Chances of error in determining the patient's right and left sides.
B) Handling of individual films.
C) Chances of damage to the emulsion.
D) Accessibility for interpretation.
Q3) The text recommends viewing radiographs ____ in a room with ____ lighting.
A) as many times as necessary; bright
B) as many times as necessary; dimmed
C) A single time; bright
D) A single time; dimmed
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Q1) On a panoramic radiograph, the coronoid notch appears as a ____ to the coronoid process.
A) Concavity located mesial
B) Concavity located distal
C) Convexity located mesial
D) Convexity located distal
Q2) The ____ is a marked prominence of bone found on the anterior superior ramus of the mandible.
A) Mandibular condyle
B) Coronoid notch
C) Coronoid process
D) Lingula
Q3) On a panoramic radiograph, the incisive foramen appears as a small, ovoid or round area located:
A) Near the apex of the mandibular first premolar.
B) Between the roots of the maxillary central incisors.
C) Inferior to the orbit.
D) Superior to the maxillary sinuses.
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Q1) According to the text, ideally, dental radiographs should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after mounting:
A) Alone in a quiet room in the evening.
B) In the presence of the patient.
C) Even if processing and mounting take place a week after the films were exposed.
D) Only when it is convenient.
Q2) To interpret films, the dental radiographer must be confident in the identification and recognition of the following:
1) Normal anatomy
2) Dental caries
3) Periodontal disease
4) Traumatic injuries and periapical lesions
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)1, 2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a radiopaque structure?
A) Dental pulp
B) Dentin
C) Periodontal ligament space
D) Soft tissue
Q2) The term ____ refers to a radiolucent lesion located around the crown of an impacted tooth.
A) Periapical
B) Inter-radicular
C) Pericoronal
D) Edentulous zone
Q3) A radiograph appears ____ where the tissues are soft or thin.
A) Radiopaque
B) White
C) Light
D) Black or dark
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Q1) According to the text, if questions arise as to what is seen on a radiograph concerning dental restorations, materials, or foreign objects, ____ can be used to obtain additional information.
A) Verbal inquiry of the patient
B) Clinical examination of the patient
C) An Internet search
D) A textbook reference
Q2) A base material appears ____. If compared with amalgam, the base material appears ____ radiodense.
A) Radiolucent; more
B) Radiolucent; less
C) Radiopaque; more
D) Radiopaque; less
Q3) A large, well-adapted radiopaque restoration with smooth borders is probably:
A) Silver amalgam.
B) Gold.
C) Porcelain.
D) Stainless steel.
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Q1) ____ caries are found between two teeth.
A) Occlusal
B) Buccal
C) Lingual
D) Interproximal
Q2) The ____ radiograph is the radiograph of choice for the evaluation of caries.
A) Periapical
B) Bite-wing
C) Panoramic
D) Occlusal
Q3) ____ interproximal caries extend less than halfway through the thickness of enamel.
A) Incipient
B) Moderate
C) Advanced
D) Severe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The severity of bone loss is measured by the:
A) Pocket depth.
B) Recession.
C) Amount of inflammation.
D) Clinical attachment loss.
Q2) Calculus ____ on a dental radiograph.
A) Appears radiolucent
B) Appears radiopaque
C) Does not appear
D) Appears dark or black
Q3) The normal periodontal ligament space appears as a ____ line.
A) Thin radiopaque
B) Thin radiolucent
C) Thick radiopaque
D) Thick radiolucent
Q4) ADA Case Type II is:
A) Gingivitis.
B) Mild or slight periodontitis.
C) Moderate periodontitis.
D) Advanced or severe periodontitis.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Condensing osteitis ____ vary in size and shape and ____ appear to be attached to the tooth root.
A) May; does
B) May; does not
C) May not; does
D) May not; does not
Q2) ____ is a diffuse calcification of the pulp chamber and pulp canals of teeth.
A) Pulpal sclerosis
B) Pulpal obliteration
C) Pulp stones
D) Internal resorption
Q3) The periapical abscess:
A) Refers to a tooth with an infection in the pulp.
B) Is a purulent inflammation within the periodontal tissues.
C) Is treated with deep scaling and debridement.
D) Both b and c.
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