Fundamentals of Dental Hygiene Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Dental Hygiene introduces students to the essential principles and practices of dental hygiene, focusing on the development of foundational knowledge and clinical skills necessary for promoting oral health. The course covers topics such as oral anatomy, infection control, patient assessment, preventative care, dental instruments, and proper techniques for removing plaque and calculus. Emphasis is placed on the role of dental hygienists within the dental team, patient communication, ethical responsibilities, and current best practices in dental hygiene care. Through a combination of lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on sessions, students gain the competencies required for safe and effective dental hygiene practice.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles
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26 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of drug name usually begins with a lowercase letter?
A)Brand name
B)Code name
C)Generic name
D)Trade name
Answer: C
Q2) Controlled substances in schedule _____ require a written prescription with the provider's signature and do not permit refills.
A)II,III,and IV
B)II and III
C)III and IV
D)II only
E)III only
Answer: D
Q3) Nutritional or herbal supplements
A)carry the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)approval for disease states.
B)are not drugs.
C)can cause adverse effects.
D)will not interact with other drugs the patient may be taking.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of drug administration produces the most rapid drug response?
A)Intravenous
B)Intramuscular
C)Subcutaneous
D)Intradermal
Answer: A
Q2) A drug is defined as a biologically active substance that can modify
A)the environment.
B)the pH of tissue.
C)cellular function.
D)immune response.
Answer: C
Q3) If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics
A)elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.
B)a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
C)the drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.
D)the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the recommended solution for the adverse effect of nausea following administration of a drug?
A)Cease taking the drug.
B)Go outside and get some fresh air.
C)Take the drug with food or milk.
D)Take the drug at bedtime.
E)Seek medical attention.
Answer: C
Q2) Approximately 10% of male African Americans develop a severe hemolytic anemia when given the antimalarial drug primaquine.Such a response is categorized as a(n)
A)idiosyncratic reaction.
B)drug side effect.
C)genetically determined abnormal reaction.
D)allergic reaction.
E)Both A and C are correct.
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ipratropium is a(n)_____ found in an inhaler used to treat asthma.
A)cholinergic
B)anticholinergic
C)adrenergic
D)antiadrenergic
Q2) Stimulation of which adrenergic receptor allows the bladder to fill?
A)Alpha
B)Beta-1
C)Beta-2
D)Beta-3
Q3) A combination of pralidoxime and atropine is used to treat an overdose of _____ inhibitors.
A)acetylcholine
B)cholinesterase
C)epinephrine
D)norepinephrine
Q4) Glycopyrrolate is an a-adrenergic agonist used to produce a dry field before some dental procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Probenecid and allopurinol both inhibit the synthesis of uric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nonopioid analgesics act primarily at the peripheral nerve endings,although their antipyretic effect is mediated centrally.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second statement is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding aspirin and the clotting mechanism?
A)Aspirin reversibly interferes with the clotting mechanism by reducing platelet adhesiveness.
B)Replacement of all of the affected platelets is required to produce normal clotting.
C)With lower doses of aspirin,1 1/2 days should elapse to obtain normal clotting.
D)Aspirin stimulates production of prothrombin.
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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following are conditions for which opioid analgesics should be used with extreme caution or not at all except which one?
A)Head injury
B)Nausea
C)Respiratory disease
D)Hypertension
E)Near-term pregnancy
Q2) Which opioid analgesic is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A)Pentazocine (in Talwin HX)
B)Hydrocodone (in Vicodin,Lortab,Lorcet)
C)Codeine (in Tylenol #3,Empirin #3)
D)Dihydrocodeine (in Synalgos-DC)
Q3) Which opioid analgesic is most likely to produce dysphoria?
A)Meperidine
B)Codeine
C)Pentazocine
D)Oxycodone
E)Hydrocodone
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the cephalosporins?
A)They are active against gram-positive but not gram-negative organisms.
B)Those available for oral use are susceptible to penicillinase.
C)They are bacteriostatic.
D)Their mechanism of action is inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
Q2) The most common adverse reaction to the sulfonamides is
A)liver damage.
B)suppressed renal function.
C)an allergic skin reaction.
D)blood dyscrasias.
Q3) Which of the following antibiotics would be the best choice to attack the anaerobes in a stage 2 infection?
A)Clindamycin or metronidazole
B)Ampicillin or amoxicillin
C)Amoxicillin or augmentin
D)Ciprofloxacin
Q4) Antiinfectives are not needed in oral cavity infections if drainage of the infected area can be established.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups of drugs used to treat HIV can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells?
A)Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B)Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C)Protease inhibitors
D)Both A and B
E)Both B and C
Q2) Thrush is
A)an allergic reaction.
B)an idiosyncrasy.
C)oropharyngeal candidiasis.
D)a serious systemic fungal infection.
Q3) Which of the following is a synthetic antifungal agent available in the form of a slowly dissolving,sugar-containing lozenge for oral use?
A)Clotrimazole
B)Ketoconazole
C)Fluconazole
D)Nystatin
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10
Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several cases of methemoglobinemia have been reported after the use of A)lidocaine.
B)mepivacaine.
C)prilocaine.
D)articaine.
Q2) The mechanism of local anesthetics involves action on A)myelinated nerve.
B)axons.
C)sodium channels.
D)Both A and C.
E)Both B and C.
Q3) Which of the following dental local anesthetics are available without vasoconstrictor? (Select all that apply. )
A)Mepivacaine
B)Prilocaine
C)Articaine
D)Bupivacaine
Q4) Levonordefrin is more potent than epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent diffusion hypoxia,patients should be given 100% oxygen for 5 minutes after treatment with nitrous oxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the major disadvantage of the use of opioids as an adjunctive drug to general anesthesia in preanesthetic medication?
A)Hypertensive crisis
B)Respiratory depression
C)Hallucinations
D)Salivary stimulation
Q3) The average percentage of nitrous oxide required for patient comfort is A)10%.
B)25%.
C)35%.
D)50%.
Q4) Nitrous oxide has amnestic qualities.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is best for all types of anxiety and muscle strain?
A)Barbiturates
B)Meprobamate
C)Benzodiazepines
D)Placebo
Q2) When benzodiazepines are used in dentistry to produce conscious sedation,the appearance of __________ is used as an initial endpoint for the dose administered.
A)flushed skin
B)miosis
C)ptosis
D)rapid eye movement
Q3) Most patients with generalized anxiety disorder and panic attacks are being treated with
A)benzodiazepines.
B)barbiturates.
C)nonbenzodiazepine-nonbarbiturate sedative-hypnotics.
D)antidepressants.
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13
Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Entresto works primarily by (Select all that apply. )
A)stimulating diuresis.
B)blocking angiotensin receptors.
C)blocking calcium channels.
D)inhibiting neprilysin.
Q2) Long chain omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids can decrease fasting triglyceride concentrations by
A)5% to 10%.
B)10% to 20%.
C)20% to 50%.
D)50% to 70%.
Q3) Which of the following categories of antihypertensive agents end in the suffix -dipine?
A)Diuretics
B)b-Adrenergic blockers
C)Calcium channel blockers
D)Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
Q4) Most dental procedures do not require a change in the dose of warfarin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)carry a greater risk of diarrhea associated with A)Helicobacter pylori.
B)Clostridium difficile.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans.
Q2) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)may be useful in treating ulcers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of laxative is considered best to use?
A)Bulk laxatives
B)Lubricants
C)Stimulants
D)Stool softeners
E)Osmotic laxatives
Q4) The following are actions of metoclopramide except one.Which is the exception?
A)Decreases peristalsis by acting directly on smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract
B)Blocks the action of dopamine
C)Accelerates gastric emptying time
D)Increases the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical intervention to reduce phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement should wait until at least 18 months after cessation of therapy because
A)the drug remains in circulation for at least 2 years.
B)some patients experience additional reduction in the enlargement after the 1-year period.
C)excessive sclerosis will result from earlier intervention.
D)treating the situation earlier than that will lead to excessive hemorrhage.
Q2) Fetal hydantoin syndrome is associated with maternal ingestion of A)carbamazepine.
B)phenobarbital.
C)phenytoin.
D)gabapentin.
Q3) Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for the treatment of _____ seizures.
A)generalized tonic-clonic
B)generalized absence
C)partial simple
D)partial complex
Q4) Lamotrigine is an effective treatment for myoclonic seizures.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients undergoing lithium therapy should be observed for signs of overdose toxicity,including A)hyperpyrexia.
B)constipation.
C)muscle rigidity and fasciculations.
D)loquacious speech.
Q2) Interaction of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)with many drugs such as amphetamines,and with foods such as wines,cheese,and fish,can precipitate A)hair loss.
B)hypertensive crisis.
C)gout.
D)dysgeusia.
Q3) Which antidepressant drug carries a "black box" warning regarding its potential to cause life-threatening liver failure?
A)Imipramine
B)Bupropion
C)Nefazodone
D)Mirtazapine
E)Venlafaxine
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Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most dental patients taking steroids who are having normal dental treatment rendered do not need additional corticosteroids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A deficiency of adrenocorticosteroids is ________,and an excess is __________.
A)Addison disease;Cushing disease
B)Addison disease;Cushing syndrome
C)Addison syndrome;Cushing syndrome
D)Addison syndrome;Cushing disease
Q3) For which type of oral lesion would glucocorticoids be contraindicated?
A)Desquamative gingivitis
B)Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C)Pemphigus
D)Erythema multiforme
E)Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
Q4) Levels of endogenous corticosteroids can increase tenfold in response to an especially stressful stimulus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory
Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug of first choice for emphysema is A)albuterol.
B)zileuton.
C)theophylline.
D)beclomethasone.
E)ipratropium.
Q2) Montelukast (Singulair)has been associated with postmarketing reports of psychiatric symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following classes of antibodies is triggered when an allergen is inhaled in an individual with a sensitized immune system?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q4) Allergic rhinitis is primarily associated with immunoglobulin A.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents is a bile-acid sequestrant used to lower low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol?
A)Pramlintide
B)Colesevelam
C)DPP-4s
D)Glucagon
Q2) Which of the following pancreatic hormones promotes fuel mobilization?
A)Insulin
B)Glucagon
C)Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP;amylin)
D)Pancreatic peptide
Q3) Contributing factors to gangrene in the extremities of diabetic patients include
A)poor eyesight.
B)poor circulation.
C)reduced sensation in the extremities.
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
Q4) Insulin is a pancreatic hormone that promotes insulin storage.
A)True
B)False
20
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is usually the drug of choice for treatment of hyperthyroidism in patients older than 21 years?
A)Propylthiouracil
B)Methimazole
C)Radioactive iodide (131I)
D)Propranolol
Q2) In most homeostatic systems the hormone released has a negative feedback effect on the secretion of the hormone-stimulating substance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones are involved in the female menstrual cycle: (1)thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), (2)adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), (3)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), (4)luteinizing hormone (LH)?
A)1,2,3,4
B)1,2
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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antineoplastic agent is used to manage breast cancer?
A)Plant alkaloid
B)Antibiotic
C)Steroid
D)Estrogen
E)Tamoxifen
Q2) Neurologic adverse effects are prevalent in all of the following antineoplastic agents except which one?
A)Asparaginase (Elspar)
B)Methotrexate (Amethopterin)
C)Vincristine (Oncovin)
D)Procarbazine (Matulane)
Q3) Each of the following neoplastic diseases has high sensitivity to chemotherapy except one.Which is the exception?
A)Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B)Acute myelocytic leukemia
C)Burkitt lymphoma
D)melanoma
E)Hodgkin disease
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tepid baths and aspirin are indicated for A)myocardial infarction.
B)thyroid storm.
C)acute adrenocortical insufficiency.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q2) The patient with hypoglycemia has a _____ pulse and _____ respiration.
A)rapid;increased
B)rapid;decreased
C)slow;increased
D)slow;decreased
Q3) Anaphylactic shock is characterized by a _____ pulse.
A)weak,rapid
B)weak,slow
C)strong,rapid
D)strong,slow
Q4) The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is sublingual or intramuscular injection of epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) All NSAIDs carry a warning to avoid use during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which operating personnel who are exposed to trace amounts of nitrous oxide have significantly higher incidence of spontaneous abortion and birth defects in their children?
A)Both women and men.
B)Women but not men.
C)Men but not women.
D)Pregnant women only.
Q3) Which of the following adverse effects is associated with smoking?
A)Neonatal dependence
B)Intrauterine growth retardation,sudden infant death syndrome
C)Abnormal development patterns,neonatal withdrawal syndrome
D)Increased spontaneous abortion,premature labor,abnormal development,decreased school performance
Q4) Aspirin is generally considered to be the best analgesic to administer during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrous oxide abuse
A)can lead to physical dependence.
B)is primarily seen in food service employees.
C)can cause infertility.
D)can cause myelocytosis.
Q2) According to Substance Abuse and Mental Health Administration,binge drinking is 5 or more drinks on the same occasion at least once in which period of time?
A)One week
B)One month
C)Three months
D)Six months
E)One year
Q3) At which stage of ethyl alcohol withdrawal are hallucinations most prevalent?
A)Stage 1
B)Stage 2
C)Stage 3
D)Ethyl alcohol withdrawal is not associated with hallucinations
Q4) Bupropion is an effective treatment for alcohol use disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Which statements are true about natural or herbal substances in the United States?
A)Herbal products marketed as dietary supplements are not required to comply with safety and efficacy regulations imposed on drug products.
B)Manufacturers cannot claim to cure conditions,but they can claim to improve structure or function.
C)The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)can allow a qualified health claim if scientific evidence exists to support the claim.
D)Because a prescription is not necessary for their use,most patients do not consider natural products or dietary supplements to be medicine.
E)All of the above are true.
F)Only A and C are true.
Q2) Herbal products in the United States are regulated by which governmental agency?
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C)Environmental Protection Agency
D)Dietary Supplement and Education Act (DSHEA)
E)US Pharmacopeia
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Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Q1) Each of the following is a method of treatment for xerostomia except one.Which is the exception?
A)Change the medication or reduce the dose.
B)Prescribe an anticholinergic agent to stimulate an increase in saliva.
C)Prescribe artificial saliva.
D)Use fluoride trays and gels to counteract the formation of caries.
E)Use water or sugarless gum instead of gums,hard candies,and beverages containing sugar.
Q2) Candida albicans is a part of the normal oral flora.A decrease in occlusal vertical dimension (OVD)will often lead to angular cheilitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q3) The majority of cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)are associated with patients taking corticosteroids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dental disorders result in 7 million days of lost work each year.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning guidelines for the proper use of dental floss?
A)The patient should pull out approximately 8 inches of floss from its container.
B)Most of the floss should be wrapped around the middle fingers until approximately 1 inch of floss remains visible.
C)Use a gentle gliding motion and place the floss between two teeth but do not encroach on the gum line.
D)Keep the floss taut and do not let it curve into a C-shaped curve against either tooth that forms the contact.
Q3) Tooth bleaching can increase the risk for sensitivity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins in dairy products raise pH levels and can inhibit bacterial growth.
A)True
B)False
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