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Fundamentals of Cooking Review Questions - 1632 Verified Questions

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Fundamentals of Cooking Review Questions

Course Introduction

Fundamentals of Cooking introduces students to the essential techniques, principles, and concepts that form the backbone of culinary arts. This course covers foundational skills such as knife handling, ingredient identification, safety and sanitation, and various cooking methods including sautéing, roasting, boiling, and baking. Through hands-on practice and theoretical discussions, students learn how to prepare fundamental recipes, understand flavor development, and apply proper food presentation. The course also explores kitchen organization, measurement and conversions, and the importance of time management and teamwork in a culinary environment, equipping students with the confidence and competence needed for more advanced culinary studies.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown

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30 Chapters

1632 Verified Questions

1632 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Food Selection

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The number of different foods now available makes it more difficult today than ever before to plan a nutritious diet.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The perception that a continuously present smell gradually decreases over time is called adaptation.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) The ethnic influences on the American food supply are largely due to our diverse minorities, increased travel, and increasing communication distances.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) Food packaging protects flavor against vaporization of the volatile compounds.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Food Evaluation

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35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nature, concentration, and temperature of a liquid all affect its viscosity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Hedonic testing relates to A) pleasure.

B) selecting the preferred sample.

C) paired preference testing.

D) all of the above answers are correct

Answer: A

Q3) atomic absorption

A)used to measure mineral content

B)measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar

C)measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods

D)measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution

E)measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Chemistry of Food Composition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most important of all the nutrients is water.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The basic nutrients that comprise all foods and are necessary for the nutritional health of people are

A) water, amino acids, fatty acids, sugars, vitamins, and minerals.

B) proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.

C) water, proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.

D) proteins, vitamins, minerals, fatty acids, and amino acids.

E) water, carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, and minerals.

Answer: E

Q3) Which of the following foods has/have been enriched?

A) wheat flour or rice with thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron

B) milk with vitamins A and D

C) orange juice with calcium

D) cereals with folate

E) all of the above answers are correct

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Food Safety

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Sample Questions

Q1) pathogenic

A)foodborne illness that occurs when bacteria enter the intestines, then produce a toxin

B)foodborne illness resulting from the ingestion of food containing large numbers of living microorganisms that grow and multiply in your intestines

C)disease-causing

D)illness resulting from ingestion of food containing a toxin

E)an infectious protein particle that does not contain RNA or DNA

Q2) Which of the following is usually not a high-risk food?

A) tofu

B) beef jerky

C) broth or stock

D) hollandaise sauce

Q3) Sources for _____ outbreaks include undercooked ground beef, unpasteurized dairy products and apple juice, fresh produce, and water.

A) Shigella

B) E. coli O157:H7

C) Yersinia enterocolitica

D) Listeria monocytogenes

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Chapter 5: Food Preparation Basics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about brown sugar is incorrect?

A) Brown sugar has a tendency to pack down.

B) Brown sugar contains two percent moisture.

C) Lumping can be prevented by placing in an airtight container and storing in the freezer.

D) Hardened brown sugar can be softened by placing it in a microwave oven for a few seconds.

E) Brown sugar is best measured by pressing it into a liquid glass measuring cup and leveling it.

Q2) When measuring plastic shortenings for cakes, you may use

A) a liquid measuring cup and melt the shortening.

B) the water displacement method.

C) the markings on the sides of the stick.

D) a rounded spoonful for every ¼ cup.

Q3) Darker and duller finishes on a baking sheet or pan will result in a browner, crisper crust.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Meal Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following types of table service is useful for no more than about six or eight people?

A) French

B) American

C) Russian

D) English

Q2) Pull dates are

A) the last day a store will sell an item.

B) the last day the product will be of optimum quality.

C) the last day a food should be consumed.

D) often used by stores, which need to know when to rotate stock.

Q3) The ratio of edible food to food as purchased is called

A) percentage yield.

B) portion control.

C) as purchased (AP).

D) edible portion (EP).

Q4) When price shopping, convenience foods are almost guaranteed to be less expensive than fresh, unprocessed forms.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Meats

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which form of pork would be the best for larding or barding?

A) Canadian bacon

B) prosciutto

C) ham hocks

D) cutlets

E) bacon

Q2) Meat tenderness is affected by factors such as

A) the muscle from which it came.

B) age and fat content.

C) enzymes, salts, and acids.

D) mechanical and electrical treatments.

E) preparation times and temperatures.

F) all of the above answers are correct

Q3) Beef from cattle is classified according to A) composition.

B) age and sex.

C) inspection and grading.

D) moist-heat or dry-heat preparation.

E) all of the above

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Poultry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Roasters

A)a chicken that is a cross between a Cornish hen and another breed of chicken

B)any chicken over the age of 10 months

C)chickens of either sex slaughtered under 10 weeks of age

D)chickens of either sex, processed between 10 and 12 weeks and weighing at least 6-8 pounds

E)neutered male chickens, usually under 4 months of age and weighing 12-14 pounds

Q2) The "kinds" or species of birds sold for food in the United States include

A) chicken and turkey.

B) duck and goose.

C) guinea hens and pigeons.

D) all of the above are sold as poultry

Q3) All utensils and other objects that come in contact with raw poultry should be washed, rinsed, and sanitized because poultry is an excellent habitat for microbial growth.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Fish and Shellfish

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Sample Questions

Q1) whole fish

A)body that is entirely intact

B)head, tail, fins and scales, and entrails are removed

C)made by slicing the fish lengthwise from front to back

D)whole fish with entrails removed

E)cut from dressed fish from top fin to bottom fin at 90 degree angle

Q2) Cephalopods include

A) lobster and crayfish.

B) octopus and squid.

C) conch and abalone.

D) mussels and scallops.

E) clams and oysters. f. all of the above answers are correct

Q3) When purchasing, cooking, and serving lobsters it is important to know that

A) many gourmet cooks prefer the female because of its finer flavor.

B) the pale green liver, known as tomalley, is found in both male and female lobsters.

C) even though the larger claw has more meat, the meat from the smaller claw is both sweeter and more tender.

D) unless canned or frozen, lobsters must remain alive until cooked.

E) all of the above answers are correct

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Milk

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following milks has to be refrigerated?

A) instant nonfat dried milk

B) nonfat dried milk

C) canned milk

D) unopened UHT milk

E) buttermilk

Q2) Which of the following compounds does not contribute to the color of milk?

A) fat

B) carotene

C) riboflavin

D) niacin

E) calcium complexesf. none of the above answers is correct

Q3) Which of the following milk beverages is made by replacing all or part of the milk fat with a vegetable fat?

A) eggnog

B) imitation milk

C) filled milk

D) sweetened condensed milk

E) instant milk

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Cheese

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a basic step in curd treatment?

A) cutting and heating

B) salting

C) knitting

D) pressing

E) curing

Q2) The curd produced by acid has a soft and spongy texture.This texture is influenced by pH, becoming

A) watery as the acidity increases.

B) mealy and non-cohesive as the pH increases.

C) more solid and compact as the acidity increases.

D) more solid and compact as the acidity decreases.

Q3) Fresh cheese

A)A cheese aged for a very short period, containing 50-75% moisture.

B)A cheese that is not aged, containing greater than 80% moisture.

C)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 30-40% moisture.

D)A cheese aged for varied periods of time, containing 40-50% moisture.

E)A cheese aged for the longest period of time, containing approximately 30% moisture.

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Chapter 12: Eggs

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Sample Questions

Q1) cuticle or bloom

A)the nutrient-dense yellow center of the egg that serves to nourish the developing chick

B)the egg white, which accounts for approximately three-fifths of the egg's weight

C)the waxy outer coating of the egg shell that seals the pores and protects the egg from moisture loss and bacterial contamination

D)the membrane surrounding the egg yolk and attached to the chalazae

E)the ropey, twisted strands of albumen that anchor the yolk to the center of the thick egg white

Q2) When folding egg whites:

A) with heavier mixtures, it is best to pour the whites over the heavier mixture.

B) it is best not to rotate the bowl during folding.

C) once no streaks remain visible in the mixture, complete 5-6 more strokes.

D) avoid stirring, which will force air out of the egg whites.

Q3) The only part of the egg which will produce a stable foam is the white.

A)True

B)False

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Vegetables and Legumes

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Sample Questions

Q1) An acidic cooking medium converts the chlorophyll pigment to a water-soluble form.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Waxy potatoes, also known as red potatoes, have delicate skin and waxy flesh that is ideal for simmering and making potato salad.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Once tofu is opened, water should be drained off prior to and during refrigeration; storing it in a dry container increases its shelf life.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A red-purple pigment is an example of a(n)

A) anthocyanin.

B) anthoxanthin.

C) astaxanthin.

D) betalain.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Fruits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Enzymes in raw pineapple and kiwifruit promote gelling.

A)True

B)False

Q2) _____ are usually less sweet than jellies and do not keep as well as other fruit spreads.

A) Butters

B) Conserves

C) Preserves

D) Marmalades

Q3) Fruits are

A) aggregates of blossoms that form seeds.

B) any part of an edible plant.

C) ripened nuts and seeds of plants.

D) ripened ovaries and adjacent parts of a plant's flowers.

E) edible plants or parts of plants eaten as desserts.

Q4) Phenolic compounds

A) are also known as tannins.

B) are found predominately in ripe fruits.

C) provide the sweet flavor found in ripe fruits.

D) prevent enzymatic browning by an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase.

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Chapter 15: Soups, Salads, and Gelatins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a key component of the quality of a leafy green salad?

A) The greens should be clean and free of dirt and sand.

B) The greens should be crisp and free of wash water.

C) The salad should be made with hand-torn leaves.

D) All of the above are key components of quality.

Q2) One should never allow a stock to boil because it will A) toughen the meat.

B) cause any loose particles to float to the top of the stock, thus creating flavor loss. C) disintegrate the bones.

D) cause any fat from the meat to rise to the top and create a raft.

Q3) Bromelin, papain, actinidan, and ficin prevent or weaken gelatin-based gel formation by hydrolyzing protein in the gel network.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which soup is the most popular creamed soup made from an animal source?

A) seafood bisque

B) cream of chicken

C) New England clam chowder

D) cream of vegetable turkey

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Chapter 16: Cereal Grains and Pastas

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Sample Questions

Q1) Water-soluble vitamins can be applied to cereal by spraying them on before the cereal has been heated.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The endosperm in which of the following corns is enlarged because it was soaked in lye and then dried during processing?

A) dent

B) flint

C) hominy

D) pod

E) cornmeal

Q3) The cooking time of cereal grains is _____ when using a microwave.

A) greatly increased

B) greatly decreased

C) not significantly altered

Q4) The bran is not a good source of fiber and minerals.

A)True

B)False

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Flours and Flour Mixtures

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following flour's main protein is zein, which is incapable of mimicking the elastic properties of gluten?

A) buckwheat

B) chickpea

C) cornmeal

D) rice

E) rye f. soy

Q2) Eggs are added to baked products for their nutritional value alone.

A)True

B)False

Q3) stiff/firm dough

A)¹/2 cup liquid to 1 cup flour

B)¹/3 cup liquid to one cup flour.

C)1 cup liquid to 1 cup flour,

D)¹/4 cup liquid to 1 cup flour..

E)any ratio of liquid to flour mixture

Q4) Double-acting baking powder reacts twice, once when the liquid is added and again during mixing.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Starches and Sauces

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Sample Questions

Q1) Starch from which source is most accurately described as forming a viscous, long-bodied, relatively clear paste when gelatinized, and then a weak gel upon cooling?

A) roots and tubers

B) cereal grains

C) waxy hybrids

D) high-amylase hybrids

Q2) Beurre manié is an uncooked butter and flour mixture which is added in small amounts to a simmering sauce to thicken it.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Glazes are concentrated flavorings and/or seasonings used in sauces.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Starch consists of repeating units of:

A) fructose.

B) galactose.

C) glucose.

D) sucrose.

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Chapter 19: Quick Breads

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Sample Questions

Q1) Biscuits are quick breads that rely on oils for shortening to produce flakes versus crumbs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Reduced-fat tortillas may have

A) better dough-mixing properties than full-fat tortillas.

B) increased shelf life.

C) a tough dough and chewy texture.

D) both a and b

E) both b and c

Q3) _____ are best served immediately after baking.

A) Tea breads

B) Coffee cakes

C) Leavened breads

D) Unleavened breads

Q4) The dry texture of a quick bread can be due to

A) excessive overmixing.

B) undermixing.

C) too many eggs and too much flour.

D) an oven that is either too hot or too cool.

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Yeast Breads

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Sample Questions

Q1) The optimum fermentation temperature range for yeast breads is 68-100° F.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The most commonly used flour for a yeast bread is

A) buckwheat.

B) millet.

C) rye.

D) wheat.

E) corn.

Q3) batter method

A)a method in which all ingredients are placed in a bowl at one time, mixed, and kneaded

B)the method that allows for the fermentation of the yeast, water, and one third of the flour

C)the combining and beating of the ingredients to develop the gluten

D)the method used primarily for bread machines

E)increasing the volume of dough through fermentation

Q4) Over-fermentation causes a coarse grain and an alcoholic flavor to the bread.

A)True

B)False

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Sweeteners

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following sugars is the least sweet?

A) sucrose

B) glucose

C) fructose

D) lactose

E) maltose

Q2) invert sugar

A)an equal mixture of glucose and fructose created by hydrolyzing sucrose

B)an alternative sweetening agent providing zero to minimal kcalories

C)sugary solutions that vary widely in viscosity, carbohydrate concentration, flavor, and price

D)a process in which dry sugar, or sugar solution with most of its water evaporated, is heated until it melts and then turns into a smooth, brown mixture

E)the precipitation of crystals from a solution into a solid, geometric network

Q3) Most "maple syrup" sold today is

A) a blend of maple syrup and invert sugar.

B) a blend of high-fructose corn syrup and maple syrup.

C) a blend of corn syrup and invert sugar with maple flavoring.

D) a blend of maple syrup and corn syrup and/or cane sugar syrup.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Fats and Oils

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Sample Questions

Q1) The purpose of hydrogenation of plant oils is to

A) make them more solid and increase smoke point and shelf life.

B) increase the trans fatty acids in plant oils.

C) decrease the satiety value of the lipid.

D) make the oil less saturated, and thus healthier.

Q2) Winterized oils are

A) vegetable oils which solidify under refrigerator temperatures.

B) oils from which certain fatty acids have been removed to prevent cloudiness.

C) oils in which hydrogen atoms have been added to the fatty acids to prevent cloudiness.

D) animal oils which have been interesterified.

Q3) When common emulsifiers function to mix lipid- and water-based ingredients,

A) the glycerol molecules and hydroxyl groups in their structures are drawn to the lipid phase.

B) the one or two fatty acids in their structures are drawn toward the lipid phase.

C) their molecules are completely hydrophilic.

D) the hydrophobic ends of their molecules attach to water.

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Chapter 23: Cakes and Cookies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are cookies crispier than cakes?

A) Sugar, starch, and flour proteins compete for water.

B) Gluten development is strengthened by the additional eggs found in cookies.

C) Cookies are cooked for a longer period of time.

D) More starch gelatinization occurs in cookies.

Q2) Microwaved

A) cakes contain special ingredients, such as xanthan gum, to increase moisture retention.

B) cakes usually cook in about 20 minutes and exhibit less increase in height than conventional cakes.

C) cake crusts have a tendency to over-brown, yielding a hard, crispy crust that is often masked with frosting.

D) cakes are ideally baked in square or rectangular pans.

Q3) Which of the following is made using the most fluid cookie batter?

A) chocolate chip cookies

B) oatmeal raisin cookies

C) meringue cookies

D) ladyfingers

E) brownies f. peanut butter cookies

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Pastries and Pies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Puff pastry can increase up to _____ times its original size.

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

E) 10

Q2) Which flour is recommended for use in pastry doughs?

A) bleached all-purpose

B) cake

C) pastry

D) whole wheat

E) bread

Q3) Which two elements are important to the successful production of pastry?

A) the number and brand of ingredients

B) the amount of ingredients and the baking time

C) the proportions of ingredients and the preparation technique

D) the preparation technique and the cooling time

Q4) Hydrogenated shortenings and/or lard produce the flakiest crust.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Candy

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Sample Questions

Q1) White chocolate has a minimum of ten percent chocolate liquor content.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Tabliering of chocolate is done over direct heat.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Cocoa is a chocolate product that is relatively low in fat.

A)True

B)False

Q4) crystalline candy

A)candies formed from sugar solutions handled so as to yield many fine, small crystals

B)substance added to the sugar solution to prevent the formation of large crystals

C)a coating resembling chocolate that is not subject to bloom

D)a basic mixture of boiled sugar and water

E)candies formed from sugar solutions that did not crystallize

Q5) The concentration of a sugar solution is reflected in its boiling point.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 26: Frozen Desserts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Uncooked ice cream should never be prepared with raw eggs because this increases the risk of contamination with which of the following?

A) hepatitis A

B) Bacillus cereus

C) Salmonella

D) Staphylococcus

Q2) By law, sherbets must contain

A) less than 5% milk fat.

B) the same milk fat level as imitation ice cream.

C) more than 2% but less than 5% milk fat.

D) less than 2% milk fat.

E) less fat than ice cream but more sugar.

Q3) By law, ice cream must contain at least

A) 30% cream.

B) 10% milk fat by weight.

C) 20% milk fat by weight.

D) 90% milk-based products with added sugar.

E) 85% milk solids-not-fat by weight.

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Chapter 27: Beverages

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Sample Questions

Q1) Green tea has the greatest amount of _____, which is responsible for its metallic taste.

A) polyphenolic compounds and/or their oxidative products

B) methylxanthines

C) theobromines

D) none of the above answers is correct

Q2) Compared to coffee, the caffeine and theobromine content of tea is A) about the same.

B) greater.

C) less.

Q3) The key to a good cup of coffee is

A) to extract the flavor and odor compounds.

B) to extract the bitter compounds.

C) to minimize the caffeine compounds.

D) to extract the flavor compounds and limit the bitter compounds.

E) to extract the flavor compounds and maximize the caffeine.

Q4) Proof represents the quantity of alcohol in spirits.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: Food Preservation

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Sample Questions

Q1) In general, foods can be kept frozen for 12 to 24 months.

A)True

B)False

Q2) All of the following food items are highly perishable except

A) fresh fish.

B) shell eggs.

C) fresh milk.

D) watermelon.

E) apples.

Q3) Which of the following enzymes is/are involved in enzymatic browning?

A) peroxidase

B) lipase and sucrase

C) ascorbic acid oxidase

D) tyrosinase and polyphenolase

Q4) Most of the physical changes that cause food spoilage are due to improper or overly long storage.

A)True

B)False

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Government Food Regulations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pesticides may be used on raw agricultural commodities if A) they are not cancer causing.

B) they are used in accordance with the original Delaney Clause.

C) the finished food products are completely pesticide free.

D) the benefit from their use outweighs the risk they pose.

Q2) Nutrient labeling is not required for food products today.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The FDA issues a _____ recall when a product is discovered to be dangerous or defective enough to cause serious health problems or death.

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class IV

Q4) The Federal Trade Commission approves all advertising copy prior to its use by the food industry.

A)True

B)False

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 30: Careers in Food and Nutrition

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

51 Verified Questions

51 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570

Sample Questions

Q1) A completed dissertation is one of the final requirements before receiving a PhD.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Registered dietitians assist registered dietetic technicians.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Universities typically hire qualified nutrition experts either to teach students or to conduct research funded by grants, not to perform both roles.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following areas employs the smallest number of registered dietitians in clinical practice?

A) home care

B) clinics

C) nursing homes

D) hospitals

E) consultation services

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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