Fundamentals of Computer Repair Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Computer Repair provides students with a comprehensive introduction to the essential concepts and practical skills necessary for diagnosing, troubleshooting, and repairing computer hardware and software issues. The course covers topics such as the identification and installation of hardware components, operating system configuration, preventive maintenance procedures, and best practices for ensuring system stability and security. Students engage in hands-on activities to gain experience with tools, disassembly and reassembly of computers, peripheral integration, and basic networking setup, preparing them for real-world technical support roles and certification exams in the information technology field.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 4th Edition by Michael Meyers
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2
Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which exam includes focus on mobile devices,such as Apple iOS and Google Android devices?
A) 220-801
B) 220-701
C) 220-802
D) 220-702
Answer: C
Q2) Effective which date are the A+,Network+,and Security+ certifications no longer considered "lifetime certifications"?
A) January 1,2011
B) January 1,2012
C) December 31,2010
D) December 31,2011
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following operating systems will be tested on the exam?
A) Linux
B) Mac OS X
C) Windows 8
D) Windows Vista
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Completing the __________ protects from worry and litigation. Answer: paperwork
Q2) What should you do if a coworker calls you for assistance while you are working with a customer?
Answer: If you get a work-related call,politely excuse yourself,walk away for privacy,and keep the call brief.
Q3) Which one of the following is not an assertive fact-seeking question?
A) When did it last work?
B) Has software or hardware changed recently?
C) What did you do to cause the problem?
D) What applications were running when it locked up?
Answer: C
Q4) Who should you contact if you notice dangerous cables or other hazardous materials at a customer site?
A) Your boss
B) Hasmat
C) MSDS
D) Building Services
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Visible PC
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do SATA drives connect to the motherboard?
Answer: They connect with a narrow cable that is different from the ribbon cables used with PATA drives.
Q2) Output devices include which peripherals?
Answer: Monitors,speakers,and printers
Q3) The ____________________ provides the necessary electrical power for the PC to operate.
Answer: power supply
Q4) Which of the following is not a type of USB connector?
A) IEEE 1394
B) mini-B
C) A
D) B
Answer: A
Q5) DB connectors are technically called ____________________ connectors. Answer: D-sub (D-subminiature
Q6) In newer systems,one S/PDIF connection replaces all of the ____________________ connections.
Answer: mini-audio
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Visible Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) The section to the right of the taskbar is called the notifications area,also known as the ____________________.
Q2) In Windows 2000 or Windows XP,the Display and Add/Remove Programs applets are found in the ____________________.
Q3) Which Control Panel applet is used to configure the overall appearance of the desktop in Windows Vista and 7?
A) Accessibility
B) Personalize
C) System
D) Multimedia
Q4) Which of the following are not the proper video requirements for running the Aero desktop?
A) DirectX 8 or better
B) 128 megabytes of video RAM
C) WDDM driver
D) Pixel Shader version 2.0
Q5) To paste text,press the ____________________ hot-key combination.
Q6) What would you use in Windows 7 to measure performance and reliability?
Q7) Which version of Windows does Windows 7 "fix"?
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Chapter 5: Visible Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) A __________ topology connects each computer to every other computer via a dedicated line.
Q2) What is useful for resolving MAC addresses,but eats up bandwidth?
A) Switches
B) Broadcasts
C) Routers
D) Unicasts
Q3) What is needed to allow your computer to send data to anything outside your network ID?
A) MAC address
B) Default gateway
C) DNS server
D) DHCP server
Q4) What is meant by hybrid topology?
Q5) Discuss how NetBIOS/NetBEUI communicates on the network.
Q6) Discuss network protocols.
Q7) How do we represent MAC addresses?
Q8) All homegroup data is __________ between systems.
Q9) What is an advantage of using workgroups?
Q10) How is logging on to a domain different than logging on to a local PC? Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Microprocessors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the binary system,the number ____________________ represents the On state and the number ____________________ represents the Off state.
Q2) A(n)____________________ is the series of steps that the CPU uses to process a command.
Q3) Which technology enables the CPU to simulate the actions of a second processor?
A) Emulation
B) Multithreading
C) Multicore processing
D) Virtualization
Q4) Added __________ might be necessary to keep an overclocked CPU from overheating.
Q5) What technology is designed to help prevent damage to CPUs when they are installed?
A) Socket Lock
B) LGA
C) PGA
D) ZIF
Q6) RAM is measured in __________________.
Q7) What runs at some multiple of the system clock speed?
Q8) What is clock speed?
Q9) What are some factors that can cause CPU overheating? Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 7: RAM
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is DDR RAM faster than regular SDRAM?
Q2) What's the difference between PC2-3200 and DDR2-400?
Q3) Windows Vista 32-bit has a minimum system RAM requirement of __________.
Q4) What is RDRAM also known as?
A) RIMM
B) DIPP
C) SIMM
D) SIPP
Q5) A special type of RAM called _______________ is used for error checking on DRAM.
Q6) What are the minimum system RAM requirements for Windows 7 (64-bit)?
A) 4 GB
B) 2 GB
C) 1 GB
D) 128 MB
Q7) What is the significance of a real parity error?
Q8) What happens if RAM is inserted into an incorrect bank?
Q10) Windows 7 64-bit has a minimum system RAM requirement of __________. Page 11
Q9) If a computer does not boot or you get a blank screen,you probably have not installed the _______________ correctly.
Q11) What is the difference between DDR 400 and PC3200?
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Chapter 8: Bios
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the Southbridge implemented in newer CPUs?
Q2) Define POST cards.
Q3) What is a bootstrap loader?
Q4) What is a boot sector?
Q5) How can the CMOS password be reset?
Q6) POST checks all of the following except:
A) Software
B) Memory
C) CPU
D) Video
Q7) Which chip can be reprogrammed to update its contents?
A) Flash ROM
B) RAM
C) ROM
D) System BIOS
Q8) Windows keeps a list of what drivers should be loaded in a database called the
Q10) How do CMOS settings support overclocking? Page 13
Q9) A(n)____________________ chip stores the information that describes specific device parameters.
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Page 14
Chapter 9: Motherboards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What led to the creation of ATX form factor?
Q2) Describe PCIe.
Q3) What is the primary troubleshooting step when an expansion board does not install or function properly?
Q4) FlexATX systems use a special ____________________ power supply.
Q5) What is the use of a form factor?
Q6) Name some of the popular motherboard manufacturers.
Q7) The ____________________ handles expansion devices and mass storage drives.
Q8) What provides support to USB and FireWire on computers?
A) The case
B) The chipset
C) The motherboard
D) The power supply
Q9) What indicates a disabled device in Device Manager?
Q10) The ____________________ defines the type of the processor and RAM required for the motherboard.
Page 15
Q11) USB and FireWire support is determined by the ____________________.
Q12) What is the ITX form factor?
Q13) What motherboard components are typically added on to supplement the chipset?
Q14) If you plug in LED wires backward,the LED will _________________________.
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Chapter 10: Power Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) L-shaped power connectors are used for ____________________.
Q2) What is the purpose of a continuity test?
Q3) What class of fire extinguisher should be used on an electrical fire?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D
Q4) What is current?
Q5) How do the electrons flow in DC current versus AC current?
Q6) What UL rating should you look for on a surge suppressor?
A) UL497A
B) UL1497A
C) UL1449
D) 1750 joules
Q7) Why are modern power supplies better for computers that have many devices to connect for power?
Q8) What is the purpose of slot covers?
Q9) ____________________ provide extra cooling for key components.
Page 17
Q10) ____________________ current allows electrons to flow in one direction around continuous circuits.
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Page 18
Chapter 11: Hard Drive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the specifications and matching speeds of SATA?
Q2) Which operating system has built-in software for RAID 5?
A) Windows XP Home
B) Windows XP Professional
C) Windows Server 2008
D) Windows Vista Home Premium
Q3) The maximum SATA-device cable length is ____________________.
Q4) PATA drives are designated as ____________________ and ____________________.
Q5) Which disks typically do not need defragmenting?
Q6) What do nonvolatile flash memory devices use to retain data when power is turned off or disconnected?
A) ATAPI-6
B) ATA-7
C) AHCI
D) NAND
Q7) Where a hard drive stores data is determined by the ____________________.
Q8) If a SCSI chain has internal and external drives,where does it need to be terminated?
19
Q9) The general rule pertaining to SCSI is that users should terminate only the ends of the ____________________.
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Page 20
Chapter 12: Implementing Hard Drives
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Windows,each ____ is assigned a drive letter from c: to Z:.
A) cylinder
B) file
C) format
D) partition
Q2) The encryption capability in NTFS is called ____________________.
Q3) List a few possible errors you might see if boot files or data become corrupt.
Q4) A ____ volume is similar to a primary partition,but it is not a primary partition.
A) mirrored
B) simple
C) spanned
D) striped
Q5) One of the benefits of mount points is that they don't require a(n)___________.
Q6) FAT32 does not work on drives larger than __________.
Q7) A user has an extended partition in the hard drive and no primary partition.How will the user boot the system?
Q8) What are some differences between Windows XP,Vista,and 7 in partition naming?
Q9) What is a benefit of extended partitions over primary partitions?
Q10) What is a file allocation table,or FAT?
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Chapter 13: Removable Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard floppy disks are ____________________ inches in size.
Q2) Where can you check for optical drive firmware updates?
Q3) How can you change the default boot order?
Q4) Blu-ray Disc eliminated the ____________________ format.
Q5) What is the best way to wipe a CD?
Q6) What was introduced to stop piracy and represents various geographical locations?
Q7) What is the difference between CD-R and CD-RW?
Q8) Windows __________ has the built-in ability to burn ISOs without the need for third-party tools.
A) 7
B) Vista
C) XP Home
D) XP Professional
Q9) The two sizes of CD-ROMs are ____________________ and ____________________.
Q10) A thumb drive would be plugged into a ____________________ port.
Q12) What does ATAPI-compliant mean? Page 22
Q11) To read data from memory sticks in cameras,PCs typically have
Q13) The "RE" in BD-RE stands for ____________________.
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Page 23
Chapter 14: Installing and Upgrading Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any modern Windows computer,except Windows XP Home Edition,can be a member of a workgroup or a member of a(n)____________________.
Q2) During the text display portion of a Windows XP installation,the hard drive can be
Q3) Microsoft provides a Web site where you can search by model number of hardware or by a software version to see if it is compatible with Windows 7,called the
Q4) What are some common post-installation tasks?
Q5) What should be done after the installation of Windows to ensure the system is up to date?
Q6) Pressing the __________ key during the start of the text mode installation for Windows XP will allow you to use a third party SCSI or RAID driver.
Q7) If installed on Windows 7,__________ requires an additional 1 GB of RAM and an additional 15 GB of available hard disk space.
Q8) During the text display portion of a Windows XP installation,the computer completes inspection of the hardware and then displays the ____________________.
Q9) What is the upgrade path to Windows 7?
Page 24
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Chapter 31: The Right PC for You
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)?
Q2) All of the following is stored in the Registry EXCEPT:
A) My Documents
B) Hardware information
C) Network information
D) Application information
Q3) Describe a process in Windows.
Q4) Processes are usually referred to by their _______________.
A) globally unique identifier (GUID)
B) service name
C) executable name
D) process identifier (PID)
Q5) How is the amount of CPU time a process is using measured in Task Manager?
A) Nanoseconds
B) Seconds
C) Percentage
D) Kilobytes
Q6) What is the Registry?
Q7) A (n)__________ tracks specific information about an object.
Q8) What is a performance object?
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Chapter 16: NTFS, Users, and Groups
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Q1) Describe the Power Users group in Windows XP.
Q2) To create and manage users,you must have __________ privileges.
Q3) What two sets of data does every folder and file on an NTFS partition list?
A) User and group access and level of access
B) Read and Execute
C) NTFS and FAT permissions
D) Encryption and decryption attributes
Q4) If an object is ____________________ from an NTFS partition to a FAT32 partition,the original object retains its permissions and the copy gets no permissions at all.
Q5) If an administrator wants to access a folder or file they do not have permission to access,they can go through a process called __________.
Q6) What do you use in order to create a new user account in Windows XP?
Q7) Name the three target sharing permissions you can assign to a user account in Windows Vista.
Q8) Who has complete control over a folder or file by default?
A) Owner
B) Administrator
C) All users
D) Power users
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Chapter 17: Maintaining and Optimizing Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hardware profiles are not supported by _________________.
Q2) What will the Windows Update Express button download onto your computer?
A) All updates
B) Device driver updates
C) Medium- and high-priority updates
D) High-priority updates
Q3) You can perform Error-checking by using the ____________ command from a command line or right-clicking a drive,selecting Properties then Tools,and clicking
Q4) What is the backup utility called in Windows XP?
Q5) Windows supports the _____________ feature,which looks for a file called autorun.inf when removable media are inserted into a computer.
Q6) In Windows Vista,you should select ____________________ in the System Recovery Options to restore Windows to an earlier point in time.
Q7) All of the following are tabs in Performance Options EXCEPT:
A) Visual Effects
B) Advanced
C) Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
D) Error-checking
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Chapter 18: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) Entering the command ____________________ at a Command Prompt will scan,detect,and restore important Windows system files,folders,and paths.
Q2) A user wants to change the name of a file from Filename1.BAT to Myfilename1.BAT.Which command would accomplish this task?
Q3) What was the first universal file format?
Q4) How does Windows organize the contents in drives?
Q5) If a file is hidden,it will not be displayed when the ____________________ command is executed.
Q6) What command would remove the system,hidden,and read-only attributes from the file ntdetect.com?
Q7) What is the output of the command move c: \ docs \ *.doc c; \ back \ *.sav?
Q8) Which of the following is not a valid Microsoft Office file extension?
A) .docx
B) .pptx
C) .wpdx
D) .doc
Q9) A tool similar to copy,but with extra capabilities that enable it to work with multiple directories,is ____________________.
Page 28
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Chapter 19: Troubleshooting Windows
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would cause the computer to automatically boot into Safe mode?
Q2) Describe an ASR recovery.
Q3) Which of the following settings in Windows 7's Compatibility tab disables all display features such as Aero?
A) Disable advanced features
B) Disable display scaling on high DPI settings
C) Disable desktop composition
D) Disable Aero desktop
Q4) The ____________________ option starts Windows normally and creates a log file of the drivers as they are loaded into memory.
Q5) What must happen for Windows XP to load the main operating system?
Q6) In Windows Vista,you should select ____________________ in the System Recovery Options to restore Windows to an earlier point in time.
Q7) A system won't start due to a corrupted sound driver that is accessed as the system is booted.What can be done to resolve the problem?
Q8) To uninstall or run many programs in Windows Vista with administrative privileges,you can right-click the program and select ____________________.
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Chapter 20: Input Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many computers come with a built-in digital ____________________ specifically designed for SD cards.
Q2) How many pins does a FireWire connector have?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
Q3) How fast is IEEE 1394a?
A) 12 Mbps
B) 400 Mbps
C) 480 Mbps
D) 800 Mbps
Q4) The speed of USB 2.0 is ____________________ Mbps.
Q5) The speed of IEEE 1394a is ____________________ Mbps.
Q6) Which ports,often coded blue to distinguish them from older ports,are fully backward-compatible?
A) USB 3.0
B) USB 2.0
C) Serial
D) USB 1.1
Page 30
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Chapter 21: Video
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the best connections for outputting to television?
A) MIDI
B) DVI to VGA adapter
C) HDMI
D) DVI-TV
Q2) What is identified by calculating the number of horizontal pixels times the number of vertical pixels in a monitor?
A) Brightness
B) Color
C) Size
D) Resolution
Q3) What is the standard that specifies how to reduce monitor power consumption?
Q4) How can excessive heat affect the display?
Q5) Which LCD components are powered by a high-voltage electrical circuit that can give you a nasty shock?
A) CCFL frontlights
B) Convergers
C) Low-voltage bnodes
D) Inverters
Q6) All LCD monitors have a (n)____________________ refresh rate.
Page 31
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Chapter 22: Local Area Networking
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Q1) Which component emits a sound when it receives an electrical signal along the wire at a certain frequency?
A) Tone generator
B) Time-domain reflectometer
C) Multimeter
D) Tone probe
Q2) Machines that connect LANs are called ____________________.
Q3) A local router,also called a(n)____________________ sends data outside of a LAN.
Q4) Describe a router.
Q5) Describe a NAS.
Q6) The ____________________ in Windows Vista can be used to turn file,folder,or printer sharing on or off.
Q7) What should you enter at a command prompt to see all of your TCP/IP settings?
A) IPCONFIG /RENEW
B) IPCONFIG
C) IPCONFIG /ALL
D) IPCONFIG /RELEASE
Q9) Who defines structured cabling standards? Page 32
Q8) The IP address 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334 is an example of a(n)____________________ address.
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Chapter 23: Wireless Networking
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Q1) What WAP settings should be adjusted in an environment with overlapping Wi-Fi signals?
A) Channel and frequency
B) SSID and MAC filtering
C) Default user name and password
D) Encryption protocols
Q2) A service area that is extended by adding WAPs is called a (n)_____________.
Q3) You can install multiple WAPs to permit __________ between one WAP's coverage area and another's.
Q4) What is the theoretical maximum range of the 802.11a wireless networking standard?
A) 150 feet
B) 200 feet
C) 250 feet
D) 300 feet
Q5) At what range is the maximum throughput speed of 802.11 networks typically achieved?
Q6) A valid user name and password may be required while configuring encryption using the ____________________ or ____________________ wireless protocols.
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Chapter 24: The Internet
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Q1) Which TCP/IP service uses port 80?
Q2) What high-speed competitor to cable has DSL providers fielded directly to user's homes using fiber?
A) FTTP
B) FTP
C) SFTP
D) FTTN
Q3) Explain satellite connections to the Internet.
Q4) Almost all ____ modems connect to a PCI or PCI Express expansion bus slot inside the PC.
A) analog
B) digital
C) external
D) internal
Q5) By not allowing internal private IP addresses to be visible on the Internet,____________________ acts as a firewall,protecting your internal network from probing or malicious users from the outside.
Q6) How is anonymous logon done with FTP sites? What username and/or password is required?
Q7) What is a VPN?
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Chapter 25: Multimedia
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Q1) Music can be produced by electronically emulating various instruments.What is this process called?
A) AM synthesis
B) Emulated table synthesis
C) FM synthesis
D) Wave table synthesis
Q2) What kind of software enables you to write out notes on sheet music either by hand or with a MIDI device?
Q3) What measure describes the relative quality of an input port?
A) Noise-to-noise ratio
B) Noise-to-signal ratio
C) Signal-to-noise ratio
D) Signal-to-signal ratio
Q4) Early processors used electronic emulation of various instruments,a technique often called ____________________.
Q5) Most sound cards have at least ____________________ connections.
Q6) List some of the standard video wrappers.
Q7) ASX and RM are compressed audio/video file formats that were specially created to ____________________ over the Internet.
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Chapter 26: Portable Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a step in disassembling a portable device?
A) Document and label pieces
B) Organize parts
C) Refer to manufacturer's documentation
D) Use normal-sized PC tools
Q2) How many pounds do Netbooks weigh?
A) Not more than 3
B) Not more than 6
C) Not more than 9
D) Not more than 12
Q3) What does "hot-swappable" mean,and what is another term manufacturers use?
Q4) Port replicators can be used to connect parallel printers.In this scenario,what is the parallel printer?
A) Docking station
B) Legacy device
C) Port extender
D) Port repeater
Q5) Two technologies NOT used on portables are __________ and organic light-emitting diode (OLED).
Page 37
Q6) Describe how to add or replace RAM in a laptop.
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Chapter 27: Mobile Devices
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Q1) What are some of the expansion connections that Android devices offer?
Q2) __________ touchscreen devices required periodic screen calibration,the resetting of the location of screen items to match where you need to touch.
Q3) How does Android differ from iOS in terms of app development and device support?
Q4) Which mobile operating system is generally considered "closed source"?
A) Apple iOS
B) Google Android
C) Red Hat Linux
D) Microsoft Windows 7
Q5) By default,mobile devices that use cellular networks for Internet connectivity use
Q6) What three components do mobile devices usually have in common with PCs?
Q7) Some devices feature a gyroscope that can detect the position of the tablet or phone in __________.
Q8) The ASUS Transformer uses a (n)___________ processor.
Q9) What are the differences in synchronizing Apple and Android devices?
Q10) Describe the Bluetooth pairing process.
Q11) Describe some of the apps available for mobile devices.
Q12) Bluetooth devices must be __________ with mobile devices. Page 38
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Chapter 28: Printers
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are snapshot printers?
Q2) Printers that create an image on paper by physically striking a (n)____________________ against the paper's surface are known as impact printers.
Q3) Thermal dye transfer printing is sometimes called ____________________ printing.
Q4) When a thermal printhead passes over the film ribbon,what melts onto the paper?
A) Wax
B) Toner
C) Dye
D) Ink
Q5) What should you do if your dot-matrix printer output is covered with dots and small smudges?
Q6) What is print resolution?
Q7) What does "draft quality" mean when referring to printers?
Q8) How do impact printers and laser printers differ with regard to transfer of data to the printer?
Q10) Print speed is measured in ____________________. Page 40
Q9) A printer doesn't work after connecting it with a USB connection.What's a likely reason?
Q11) In Windows,a default printer is identified by a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 29: Securing Computers
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Q1) Sally is a member of the Sales group and the Marketing group.The Marketing group has Full Control permission to a folder named NewProducts,and the Sales group has Read permission to the same folder.Sally's permission to the folder is
Q2) A (n)__________ (also called a biometric)is something that is part of the user,like a fingerprint or retinal pattern.
Q3) What is the correct humidity range for computer equipment?
A) 0-20 percent
B) 10-20 percent
C) 30-40 percent
D) 60-80 percent
Q4) What word describes the process of cleaning up after a virus infection?
A) Remnants
B) Remediation
C) Quarantine
D) Declassification
Q5) __________ reduce the viewing angle,making it impossible for anyone to read the screen except those directly in front of it.
Q6) What is a common LAN authentication protocol used today?
Page 42
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Chapter 30: Virtualization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A (n)_______________ operating system is physically installed on a machine.
Q2) All of the following are virtual machine managers EXCEPT:
A) VMware Workstation
B) KVM
C) Microsoft Virtual PC
D) Snes9X
Q3) Both __________ and ___________ are used to create and manage virtual machines and their interactions with their host environments.
Q4) Discuss how virtualization enables system recovery.
Q5) How does Windows 7 implement Windows XP Mode?
Q6) A virtual machine that is not powered on is stored as a:
A) Hard drive
B) Process in RAM
C) Set of files
D) Snapshot
Q7) What are important considerations during the installation of a virtual machine?
Q8) List four popular VMMs.
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Q9) An advantage of virtualization in a testing environment is the ability to perform __________ before production.
Chapter 31: The Right PC for You
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Q1) What connection type does a home-theater PC use to provide support for large monitors at high resolution?
A) VGA
B) HDMI
C) RCA
D) USB 3.0
Q2) What term refers to a preconfigured device that contains multiple hard drives and attaches to your network?
A) SAN
B) NAS
C) RAID 0
D) RAID 5
Q3) What does CompTIA refer to as a SOHO PC?
A) Thick client
B) Thin client
C) Virtualization workstation
D) Graphics workstation
Q4) Hardware needs on a home server apply primarily to the __________ speed and __________ capacity.
Q5) What would a video workstation usually use two monitors for?
Page 44
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Chapter 32: The Complete PC Tech
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Q1) If a user or a technician becomes injured on the job,what should be done?
A) Don't tell anyone.
B) Escalate the problem.
C) Establish a theory of probable cause.
D) Create an incident report.
Q2) After you test a theory to determine cause,you should establish a (n)____________________ to resolve the problem and implement a solution.
Q3) After verifying full system functionality,you should document ____________________,___________________,and
Q4) What software utilities should you include in your traveling toolkit for troubleshooting purposes?
Q5) Explain escalation.
Q6) What is the best way to verify full system functionality?
Q7) What is a critical preventive measure to consider in almost every case?
Q8) When you encounter a partially functional computer,you should consider making backups.What should you include in the backup?
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Q9) The operating system (OS)provides a (n)____________________ and tools so that the microprocessor and other chips can process your request.