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Fundamentals of Chemistry provides an introduction to the basic principles and concepts of chemistry, serving as a foundation for further study in the field. This course covers the structure of atoms, chemical bonding, the periodic table, states of matter, chemical reactions, stoichiometry, and the properties of solutions. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills, understanding chemical equations, and exploring the practical applications of chemistry in everyday life. Students will gain hands-on experience through laboratory experiments, enhancing their comprehension of theoretical concepts and fostering analytical thinking.
Recommended Textbook
CHEM2 Chemistry in Your World 2nd Edition by Hogg
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Q1) The discovery of TeflonĀ® was A) an example of planned research.
B) accidental
C) eventually damaging to the ozone layer.
D) deemed useless by the discoverer's company.
Answer: B
Q2) A scientist is trying to make a new insecticide that will be more toxic to flies, but less toxic to humans than insecticides now available. The scientist is engaged in A) basic research.
B) applied research.
C) technology.
D) serendipity.
Answer: B
Q3) Chemistry is often defined as the study of A) matter and the changes it can undergo.
B) naturally occurring matter.
C) fundamental particles in research labs.
D) synthetically produced matter.
Answer: A
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Q1) How does the known number of nonmetals compare to that of metals?
A) There are fewer metals.
B) There are an equal number of each.
C) There are fewer nonmetals.
D) This cannot be predicted because not all metals and nonmetals have been discovered.
Answer: C
Q2) The most common unit of volume used in chemistry is the millimeter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) How many phosphorus atoms are in the formula H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?
A) 4
B) 3
C) 7
D) 1
Answer: D
Q4) Mg is the chemical symbol for ____________________.
Answer: magnesium
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Q1) An element with electronic structure of 2-8-3 is in which of the following groups of the periodic table?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C
Q2) Two atoms which have the same atomic number but different mass numbers are called
A) sisters.
B) neutrinos.
C) allotropes.
D) isotopes.
Answer: D
Q3) Which is the ground state of a hydrogen atom?
A) three electrons in the n = 1 level
B) one electron in the n = 2 level
C) one electron in the n = 1 level
D) one electron in the n = 1 level and one electron in the n = 2 level
Answer: C
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Q1) The primary source of global SO<sub>2</sub> in the atmosphere is believed to be
A) forest fires.
B) human activity.
C) volcanoes.
D) forests.
Q2) Which substance would be present in the greatest concentration during the morning rush hour on a smoggy day in Los Angeles?
A) NO
B) O<sub>3</sub>
C) NO<sub>2</sub>
D) SO<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Identify the pair that are allotropes.
A) pencil lead and a diamond
B) oxygen gas and nitrogen gas
C) gold and silver
D) mercury and bromine
Q4) The ozone layer is labeled with the number ______.
Q5) Nitrogen and oxygen are the most abundant gases in the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which atom exists as a diatomic molecule in nature?
A) carbon
B) bromine
C) sulfur
D) phosphorous
Q2) When Na and O combine the bonding will be ionic, while when O combines with S the bonding will be covalent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most substances that have molecules with approximately the same weight as water molecules are gases at room temperature. Water is a liquid at room temperature because of
A) extensive hydrogen bonding between water molecules.
B) ionic bonding between hydrogen ions and oxide ions.
C) covalent bonding between hydrogen atoms and oxygen atoms.
D) the lack of motion of water molecules.
Q4) If X was the element K and Y the element O, which type of bond would form?
Q5) The total number of bonding electron pairs in hexane is____________.
Q6) The total number of single bonds in hexane is__________.
Q7) Which type of bond would be found in hydrochloric acid, HCl?
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Q1) The concentration of N<sub>2</sub>O given in the table is equivalent to ________ppm.
Q2) Which arrow or sets of arrows do not represent only IR radiation?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) The concentration of O<sub>3</sub> given in the table is equivalent to ________ppb.
Q4) How are carbon dioxide concentrations determined from thousands of years ago?
A) analysis of decayed plant material
B) analysis of ice samples
C) analysis of the atmosphere
D) analysis of the Earth's core
Q5) What substance naturally found in the atmosphere seems to be increasing in concentration over the years?
A) oxygen
B) nitrogen
C) carbon dioxide
D) carbon monoxide
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Q1) Which molecule is used as a replacement for CFC?
A) HFC-134a
B) HCFC-123
C) HFC-152a
D) all of the above
Q2) In the past, which of the following was not a source of atmospheric CFCs?
A) air-conditioning
B) aerosol sprays
C) refrigerants
D) blown foams
E) All of the above have been sources of atmospheric CFCs.
Q3) What does one Dobson unit (DU) equal?
A) 1 ppb of ozone
B) 1 ppm of ozone
C) 100 ppb of ozone
D) 100 ppm of ozone
Q4) In order to attain a steady state one reaction must counteract another in a cycle such as that shown. A reaction which could be used to consume ozone is reaction_______.
Q5) The reaction requiring a photon of the longest wavelength is reaction ______.
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Q1) According to the first law of thermodynamics,
A) Energy is neither lost nor gained in an energy transformation.
B) Perpetual motion is possible.
C) Energy is not conserved.
D) Energy is being created as time passes.
Q2) Consider the following two statements.
"Energy can be converted from one form to another but cannot be destroyed nor created."
"The total amount of matter and energy in the universe is constant."
Both of these are included in the first law of thermodynamics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many moles are in 15.5 g of diphosphorous pentoxide?
A) 0.109 mol
B) 0.330 mol
C) 6.56 \(\times\) 10<sup>23 </sup>mol
D) 2.20 \(\times\) 10<sup>3 </sup>mol
Q4) E<sub>act</sub> is represented by the letter_______.
Q5) The reactants are represented by the letter _______.
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Q1) What is the pH of a 0.00125 M NaOH solution?
A) 2.90
B) 11.1
C) 12.5
D) 1.25
Q2) Which one of the following is the acid in vinegar?
A) acetic acid
B) citric acid
C) muriatic acid
D) ascorbic acid
Q3) When H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub> dissolves in water, what are the solute particles in the solution?
A) H, S, O
B) H<sup>+</sup>, S<sup>+</sup> and O<sup>2-</sup>
C) H<sup>+</sup>, HSO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> and SO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
D) H<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup> and SO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
Q4) The formula for the hydroxide ion is OH<sup>+</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A solution with a pH of 5.05 is ___________.
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Q1) The oxidizing agent is found in compartment ______.
Q2) Free radicals are particles that
A) have an unpaired electron.
B) act as oxidizing agents.
C) grab another electron from a neighboring molecule.
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following equations does not fit the definition of oxidation?
A) Ag<sup>+</sup> + e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) Ag
B) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> \(\to\) H<sub>2</sub> + C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
C) C + O<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) Na \(\to\) Na<sup>+</sup> + e<sup>-</sup>
Q4) Which of the batteries listed below is a primary battery?
A) lithium ion battery
B) alkaline battery
C) nickel-cadmium battery
D) lead acid battery
Q5) The electrons flow from electrode _____ to electrode _____.
Q6) The reducing agent in the following reaction is ___________. I<sub>2</sub> + Zn \(\to\) 2I<sup>-</sup> + Zn<sup>2+</sup>
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Q1) Letter ____ shows the position of an aquifer.
Q2) The disinfectant widely used in Europe to kill harmful bacteria in water treatment plants is
A) bromine.
B) oxygen.
C) ozone.
D) sodium hypochlorite.
Q3) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is
A) high for polluted water.
B) low for polluted water.
C) not affected by water pollution.
D) a measure of the amount of oxygen in the body.
Q4) Which of the following pollutants does not contribute to acid rain?
A) SO<sub>2</sub>
B) NO<sub>2</sub>
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) O<sub>3</sub>
Q5) Precipitation with a pH of 8.0 would classify as acid rain.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The number of carbon to hydrogen single bonds that are broken is_______.
Q2) Which hydrocarbon would be isolated at the top of a fractionation column?
A) C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
B) C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>
C) C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
D) C<sub>18</sub>H<sub>36</sub>
Q3) Which substance is grain alcohol?
A) methanol
B) ethanol
C) MTBE
D) benzene
Q4) Which process is used to increase the amount of the gasoline fraction in refining to match commercial demand?
A) reforming
B) oxygenating
C) cracking
D) gasification
Q5) During the combustion of one mole of ethanol, the number of O-H bonds formed is
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Q1) Cobalt-60
A) is used to treat cancerous tumors.
B) decays to both beta particles and gamma rays.
C) is a relatively stable isotope.
D) All of the above characterize cobalt-60.
Q2) Gamma radiation from cobalt-60 or cesium-137 is used in
A) agricultural research.
B) dating charcoal paintings.
C) food irradiation.
D) medical imaging.
Q3) Which of the following characterizes an alpha particle?
A) is more penetrating than a gamma ray
B) is attracted to the negitively charge plate in an electric field
C) carries a negative charge
D) is composed of electrons
E) Two of the above are corrected.
Q4) If a 500. mg sample of element X had been used, _____mg would remain after 60 hours.
Q5) The half-life of element X is _____hours.
Q6) After 20 hours, ______mg of sample X will remain.
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Q1) Ethylene glycol, a dialcohol, is the main ingredient in A) tobacco humectants.
B) antifreeze.
C) denaturated alcohol.
D) gasohol.
Q2) An addition polymer that finds use in fibers for rugs and fabrics is
A) polypropylene.
B) PVC.
C) nylon.
D) polyacrylonitrile.
Q3) What is the role of an organic peroxide in the polymerization of ethylene?
A) The peroxide is a copolymer.
B) The peroxide forms free radicals that initiate attack of double bonds.
C) The peroxide destroys free radicals which would stop the reaction.
D) The peroxide moderates the speed of the reaction, allowing for a more orderly process.
Q4) The type of functional group shown is this structure is called a_______________.
Q5) In the manufacture of vulcanized rubber, sulfur is used to form cross-links.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Natural amino acids are L-amino acids and natural sugars are D-sugars.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The structure of a tripeptide is Ala-Ser-Aly. What are the expected elements present in the tripeptide?
A) C, H, N, O
B) C, H
C) C, H, N
D) C, H, O
Q3) The energy reservoir in animals is
A) starch.
B) dextrin.
C) glucose.
D) glycogen.
Q4) The secondary structure of proteins is
A) the amino acid sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
B) the helical structure.
C) the sheetlike structure.
D) the preferred conformation of a given protein.
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Q1) A flavor enhancer is
A) MSG.
B) BHT.
C) an enzyme.
D) beta-carotene.
Q2) Which of the following vitamins is an antioxidant?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin E
Q3) Which of the following foods produces more energy per gram of food?
A) sugar
B) fat
C) protein
D) starch
Q4) Which is an example of a sequestrant?
A) EDTA
B) DTT
C) vitamin C
D) MSG
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Q1) A new substance is synthesized in the laboratory. Among its properties is similarity to uracil. When tested in living organisms, this new substance gets involved in DNA synthesis. Which area of research would you expect this new chemical to show promise?
A) studying Reye's syndrome
B) studying how analgesics work
C) studying anticancer drugs
D) studying how antacids work
Q2) LD<sub>50</sub> refers to the dosage that is lethal to one-half of the test animal population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In all age groups, the leading cause of death at about 26% is A) cerebrovascular diseases.
B) accidents.
C) heart disease.
D) cancer.
Q4) Analgesics include both OTC and prescription drugs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following does not apply to silicates?
A) clay
B) tetrahedral units
C) contain carbon
D) SiO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) The product of the cell reaction produced at the position indicated by the number 2 is ______________.
Q3) Over the years what element has been used as a reducing agent to reduce iron metal from its ores?
A) sulfur
B) silicon
C) sodium
D) carbon
Q4) Which metal is sufficiently concentrated in the oceans so that it is currently extracted commercially?
A) aluminum
B) copper
C) magnesium
D) iron
Q5) Selenium could be used as the dopant indicated by the letter______.
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Q1) If only very small amounts of a nutrient are required by a plant, it is referred to as a
A) primary nutrient.
B) micronutrient.
C) subnutrient.
D) secondary nutrient.
Q2) A fertilizer is labeled 6-10-12. The "12" represents the percentage of A) nitrogen.
B) potassium.
C) phosphorus.
D) oxygen.
Q3) Which soil type has the smallest soil particles?
A) silts
B) sandy soils
C) loams
D) clays
Q4) The Flavr Savr tomato is an early example of ______crop.
Q5) __________ has decreased energy costs but increased labor costs.
Q6) _____________can produce new breeds of plants ten times faster than natural breeding methods.
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