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Fundamentals of Chemistry is an introductory course designed to provide a comprehensive understanding of the core principles of chemistry. This course covers essential topics such as atomic structure, periodic trends, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, thermochemistry, and the basics of chemical reactions. Students will also gain foundational laboratory skills, engage in experiments that demonstrate theoretical concepts, and develop problem-solving abilities critical for progression in scientific studies. Through lectures, laboratory work, and collaborative activities, students will build a solid base for more advanced studies in chemistry and related scientific fields.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry 12th Edition by Raymond Chang
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Q1) A tentative explanation for a set of observations that can be tested by further experimentation is referred to as
A) a hypothesis.
B) a law.
C) a theory.
D) none of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) A long course triathlon entails a 2.0 mile swim, an 85.5 mile bike ride and a 15.0 mile run. What is the total distance in kilometers for the triathlon
A) 160 km
B) 165 km
C) 103 km
D) 164.9 km
E) 102.5 km
Answer: D
Q3) The number 0.07010 contains four significant figures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give the formula of magnesium nitrate.
A) MnNO<sub>3</sub>
B) Mg(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
C) Mg(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
D) Mn(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
E) MgNO
Answer: B
Q2) What is the empirical formula for C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
A) C<sub>10</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
B) C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>11</sub>O
C) C<sub>20</sub>H<sub>44</sub>O<sub>4</sub>
D) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>11</sub>O
E) C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>11</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Answer: B
Q3) The formula of sulfuric acid is H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What are the two different ions present in the compound FeCl<sub>3</sub>
Answer: \(Fe^{2+}, Cl^-\)

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Sample Questions
Q1) Butane is reacted with oxygen gas to form carbon dioxide and water. Write the balanced reaction (omit state symbols (s), (l), (g), (aq), etc.).
A) 2C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub> + 12O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 8CO<sub>2</sub> + 10H<sub>2</sub>O
B) 2C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub> + 13O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 8CO<sub>2</sub> + 10H<sub>2</sub>O
C) 2C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub> + 13O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 8CO<sub>2</sub> + 8H<sub>2</sub>O
D) 2C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub> + 10O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 8CO<sub>2</sub> + 10H<sub>2</sub>O
E) None of the above are balanced
Answer: B
Q2) How many moles of iron are present in an iron cylinder that weighs 25 g
A) 0.33 mole
B) 0.45 mole
C) 0.67 mole
D) 0.71 mole
E) None of the above
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the major ionic species present in an aqueous solution of FeCl<sub>3</sub>.
A) Fe<sup>+</sup>, Cl<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B) Fe<sup>3+</sup>, Cl<sub>3</sub><sup>3-</sup>
C) Fe<sup>3+</sup>, 3 Cl<sup>-</sup>
D) Fe<sup>2+</sup>, 3 Cl<sup>-</sup>
E) Fe<sup>+</sup>, 3 Cl<sup>-</sup>
Q2) Identify the precipitate(s) formed when solutions of Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq), Mg(ClO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(aq), and (NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq) are mixed.
A) PbSO<sub>4</sub>
B) MgSO<sub>4</sub>
C) NH<sub>4</sub>ClO<sub>4</sub>
D) NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub> and NH<sub>4</sub>ClO<sub>4</sub>
E) PbSO<sub>4</sub> and MgSO<sub>4</sub>
Q3) Hydrogen is oxidized in the following chemical reaction.H<sub>2</sub> + Cl<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2HCl
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Calculate the volume occupied by 35.2 g of methane gas (CH<sub>4</sub>) at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and 1.0 atm. R = 0.08206 L.atm/K.mol.
A) 0.0186 L
B) 4.5 L
C) 11.2 L
D) 49.2 L E) 53.7 L
Q2) A 2.50-L flask contains a mixture of methane (CH<sub>4</sub>) and propane (C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>) at a pressure of 1.45 atm and 20<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. When this gas mixture is then burned in excess oxygen, 8.60 g of carbon dioxide is formed. (The other product is water.) What is the mole fraction of methane in the original gas mixture
A) 0.145
B) 0.341
C) 0.659
D) 0.855
E) 1.00
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Q1) Naphthalene combustion can be used to calibrate the heat capacity of a bomb calorimeter. The heat of combustion of naphthalene is -40.1 kJ/g. When 0.8210 g of naphthalene was burned in a calorimeter containing 1,000. g of water, a temperature rise of 4.21<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C was observed. What is the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter excluding the water
A) 1.76 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 3.64 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C) 7.8 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
D) 15.3 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
E) 32.9 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
Q2) When 0.7521 g of benzoic acid was burned in a calorimeter containing 1,000. g of water, a temperature rise of 3.60<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C was observed. What is the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter, excluding the water The heat of combustion of benzoic acid is -26.42 kJ/g.
A) 1.34 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 4.18 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C) 5.52 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
D) 15.87 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
E) 752.1 kJ/<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
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Q1) An electron loses energy in the transition from a 4f subshell to a 6s subshell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the energy in joules of one photon of x-ray radiation with a wavelength of 0.120 nm
A) 2.50 x 10<sup>9</sup> J
B) 1.66 x 10<sup>-24</sup> J
C) 1.66 x 10<sup>-33</sup> J
D) 2.50 x 10<sup>18</sup>J
E) 1.66 x 10<sup>-15</sup>J
Q3) Each shell (principal energy level) of quantum number n contains n subshells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lanthanide (or rare earth) elements have atoms or ions with partially filled
A) s subshells.
B) p subshells.
C) d subshells.
D) f subshells.
E) g subshells.

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Q1) Which of the following ground-state ions has the largest number of unpaired electrons
A) Cr<sup>2+</sup>
B) Mn<sup>2+</sup>
C) Ni<sup>2+</sup>
D) Cu<sup>+</sup>
E) Co<sup>2+</sup>
Q2) Which of the following elements is found as a monatomic species in its most stable form
A) sulfur
B) oxygen
C) hydrogen
D) argon
E) phosphorus
Q3) Which of the following is the electron configuration for the bromide ion
A) [Ar]
B) [Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>3d<sup>10</sup>4p<sup>7</sup>
C) [Kr]
D) [Kr]5s<sup>2</sup>4d<sup>10</sup>5p<sup>7</sup>
E) [Xe]
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Q1) Which of the following is a useful guideline for the application of formal charges in neutral molecules
A) A Lewis structure in which there are no formal charges is preferred.
B) Lewis structures with large formal charges are preferred.
C) The preferred Lewis structure is one in which positive formal charges are on the most electronegative atoms.
Q2) How many covalent bonds will be drawn to bromine in BrO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup> for the dot structure that expands the octet to minimize formal charge and if necessary places negative formal charges on the most electronegative atom(s)
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q3) Covalent bonding is the only type of bonding present in the ClO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> ion.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Valence Bond Theory alone can be used to determine that O<sub>2</sub> is paramagnetic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The geometry of the ClF<sub>3</sub> molecule is best described as:
A) distorted tetrahedron
B) trigonal planar
C) tetrahedral
D) T-shaped
E) trigonal pyramidal
Q3) According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules is trigonal bipyramidal
A) SF<sub>4</sub>
B) XeF<sub>4</sub>
C) NF<sub>3</sub>
D) SF<sub>6</sub>
E) PF<sub>5</sub>
Q4) There is one \(\pi\)-bond in N<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A phase change from the gas phase directly to the solid phase is called:
A) Sublimation
B) Condensation
C) Freezing
D) Melting
E) Deposition
Q2) The intermolecular forces present in CO include which of the following
I. dipole-dipole
II. ion-dipole
III. dispersion
IV. hydrogen bonding
A) I, II, III, and IV
B) I and III
C) I, III, and IV
D) I and II
E) II and IV
Q3) C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>18</sub> has a higher vapor pressure than C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared from 13.7 g of the electrolyte HCl and enough water to make 0.500 L of solution at 18<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
A) 0.55 atm
B) 1.10 atm
C) 8.95 atm
D) 17.9 atm
E) 35.9 atm
Q2) A 20.0 % by mass solution of phosphoric acid (H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>) in water has a density of 1.114 g/mL at 20<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. What is the molarity of this solution
A) 0.0114 M
B) 0.0568 M
C) 0.114 M
D) 2.27 M
E) 11.4 M
Q3) The vapor pressure of a solution depends on the chemical nature of the non-volatile solute.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The half life for a first order reaction is 45 min. What is the rate constant in units of s<sup>-1</sup>
A) 0.015 s<sup>-1</sup>
B) 65 s<sup>-1</sup>
C) 2.6 x 10<sup>-4</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
D) 3.9 x 10<sup>3</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
E) 1.9 x 10<sup>3</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>
Q2) The isomerization of methyl isocyanide, CH<sub>3</sub>NC \(\rarr\) CH<sub>3</sub>CN, follows first-order kinetics. The half-lives were found to be 161 min at 199<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and 12.5 min at 230<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C. Calculate the activation energy for this reaction.
A) 6.17 * 10<sup>-3</sup> kJ/mol
B) 31.4 kJ/mol
C) 78.2 kJ/mol
D) 124 kJ/mol
E) 163 kJ/mol
Q3) The rate determining step must be the first step of a reaction mechanism in all cases.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Consider the following equilibrium: 4NH<sub>3</sub>(g) + 3O<sub>2</sub>(g) 2N<sub>2</sub>(g) + 6H<sub>2</sub>O(g) + 1531 kJ
The concentrations the reactants would increase after nitrogen gas was removed from the system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hydrogen iodide decomposes according to the equation 2HI(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) H<sub>2</sub>(g) + I<sub>2</sub>(g), for which K<sub>c</sub>
= 0.0156 at 400ºC. 0.550 mol HI was injected into a 2.00 L reaction vessel at 400ºC. Calculate the concentration of HI at equilibrium.
A) 0.138 M
B) 0.220 M
C) 0.550 M
D) 0.275 M
E) 0.0275 M
Q3) For the reaction H<sub>2</sub>(g) + I<sub>2</sub>(g) 2HI(g), K<sub>P</sub> = K<sub>c</sub>.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Calculate the pH of a 0.14 M HNO<sub>2</sub> solution that is 5.7% ionized.
A) 0.85
B) 1.70
C) 2.10
D) 11.90
E) 13.10
Q2) Which one of these salts will form a basic solution upon dissolving in water
A) NaCl
B) NaNO<sub>2</sub>
C) NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub>
D) KBr
E) AlCl<sub>3</sub>
Q3) The oxides CO<sub>2</sub> and SO<sub>3</sub> will form the following acids in water, respectively.
A) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq) and H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
B) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq) and H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq)
C) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>(aq) and H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
D) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>(aq) and H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(aq)
E) HCOO<sup>-</sup>(aq) and H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
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Q1) Acid dissociation constants for phosphoric acid are given below.
\(\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|}
\hline & \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{a} 1} & \mathrm{~K}_{\mathrm{a} 2} & \mathrm{~K}_{\mathrm{a} 3} \\
\hline \mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{PO}_{4} & 7.5 \times 10^{-3} & 6.2 \times 10^{-8} & 4.8 \times 10^{-13} \\ \hline
\end{array}\) A buffer with a pH = 7.4 can best be made by using
A) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and NaH<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>.
B) NaH<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> and Na<sub>2</sub>HPO<sub>4</sub>.
C) Na<sub>2</sub>HPO<sub>4</sub> and Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>.
D) only NaH<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>.
E) only Na<sub>2</sub>HPO<sub>4</sub>.
Q2) Which of the following would decrease the K<sub>sp</sub> for PbI<sub>2</sub>
A) Lowering the pH of the solution
B) Adding a solution of Pb(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
C) Adding a solution of KI
D) None of the above-the K<sub>sp</sub> of a compound is constant at constant temperature.
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Q1) Consider the reaction CO(g) + 2H<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\leftrightharpoons\)
CH<sub>3</sub>OH(l) at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
\(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub> (CO) = -137.3 kJ/mol
\(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub> (CH<sub>3</sub>OH) = -166.3 kJ/mol
\(\Delta\)H<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub> (CO) = -110.5 kJ/mol
\(\Delta\)H<sup>\(\circ\)</sup><sub>f</sub> (CH<sub>3</sub>OH) = -238.7 kJ/mol
S<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>(CO) = 197.9 J/K·mol
S<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>(CH<sub>3</sub>OH) = 126.8 J/K·mol
Calculate \(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> at 25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
A) -29.0 kJ/mol
B) -31.0 kJ/mol
C) -33.0 kJ/mol
D) -35.0 kJ/mol
E) None of the above
Q2) For a given substance the entropy always increases in the following order:
S (gas) < S (liq) < S (solid).
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How many coulombs would be required to electroplate 35.0 grams of chromium by passing an electrical current through a solution containing CrCl<sub>3</sub>
A) 6.50 * 10<sup>4</sup> C
B) 2.16 * 10<sup>4</sup> C
C) 6.40 * 10<sup>4</sup> C
D) 1.95 * 10<sup>5</sup> C
E) 1.01 * 10<sup>7</sup> C
Q2) Under acidic conditions, the correctly balanced equation for the redox reaction Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq) + I<sup>-</sup>(aq) \(\rarr\) Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq) + IO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq) Is:
Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup>(aq) + I<sup>-</sup>(aq) + 8H<sup>+</sup>(aq) \(\rarr\) 2Cr<sup>3+</sup>(aq) + IO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq) + 4H<sub>2</sub>O(l)
A)True
B)False
Q3) H<sub>2</sub>(g) will form when Fe is placed in 1.0 M HCl.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How old is a bottle of wine if the tritium (<sup>3</sup>H) content is 25% that of a new wine? The half-life of tritium is 12.5 years.
A) 0.25 yr
B) 3.1 yr
C) 25 yr
D) 38 yr
E) 50. yr
Q2) The half-life of <sup>14</sup>C is 5,730 yr. Assuming some charcoal from a campfire 29,000 years old was found, what fraction of the original C-14 would remain today
A) 3.0 * 10<sup>-2</sup>
B) 0.197
C) 3.51
D) 33.3
E) None of these.
Q3) Both H<sub>2</sub>O and D<sub>2</sub>O can be used as moderators to slow neutrons in nuclear reactors.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions is an example of nitrogen fixation
A)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub>(g) \(\rarr\)NO<sub>3</sub>(g) + NO<sub>2</sub>(g)
B)N<sub>2</sub>(g) + O<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) 2NO(g)
C)3NO<sub>2</sub>(g) + H<sub>2</sub>O(l) \(\rarr\)2HNO<sub>3</sub>(aq) + NO(g)
D)2NO(g) + O<sub>2</sub>(g) \(\rarr\) 2NO<sub>2</sub>(g)
E)2NH<sub>3</sub>(g) \(\rarr\)3H<sub>2</sub>(aq) + N<sub>2</sub>(g)
Q2) Which statement about ozone and the ozone layer is true
A) Ozone is found in a band of almost pure ozone several kilometers thick encircling the Earth.
B) The ozone in the ozone layer absorbs UV light between 200 and 300 nm.
C) Ozone is a compound with the chemical formula CO<sub>2</sub>.
D) In the Earth's atmosphere, ozone exists only in the ozone layer.
E) Ozone is used as a coolant in refrigerators and air conditioners.
Q3) Determine two effects expected from the depletion of the ozone layer.1) asthma 2) lung cancer 3) skin cancer 4) genetic mutations 5) emphysema
A) 1 and 5
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 4 and 5
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Q1) Write the chemical formula of dolomite that provides a source for both magnesium and calcium.
A)CaCO<sub>3</sub> \(\times\)Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> B)Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> \(\times\)MgCO<sub>3</sub> C)Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub> \(\times\) Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>
D)CaCO<sub>3</sub> \(\times\) MgCO<sub>3</sub>
E) None of the above
Q2) The following reaction is used to produce chromium metal at high temperature.Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s) + 2Al(s) \(\rarr\) 2Cr(l) + Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)
Which element is oxidized and which is reduced
A) Both chromium and aluminum are oxidized
B) Chromium is oxidized and aluminum is reduced
C) Chromium is reduced and aluminum is oxidized
D) Neither chromium or aluminum are oxidized
E) None of the above
Q3) The chemical formula of magnetite can be expressed as either Fe<sub>3</sub>O<sub>4</sub> or FeO \(\times\) Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Hydrogen plays an important role in many industrial processes. The following correctly represents a balanced chemical equation for its production by the water gas reaction.C(s) + H<sub>2</sub>O(g) \(\rarr\) CO(g) + H<sub>2</sub>(g)
A)True
B)False
Q2) Based on the following options, select the compound with hydrogen in the - 1 oxidation state.
A) NaH
B) B<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>S
E) PH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Select basic oxide from the choices given.
A) CaO
B) SiO<sub>2</sub>
C) CO<sub>2</sub>
D) P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
E) H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NHS1U1B13S1U1B0)S1U1B16S1U1B0]ClS1U1B13S1U1B0
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) None of the above
Q2) The correct name for [Fe(CO)<sub>6</sub>]Br<sub>3</sub> is:
A) hexacarbonyliron(II) bromide
B) hexacarbonyliron(III) bromide
C) hexacarbonyltribromoiron(III)
D) hexacarbonyltribromoiron(II)
E) hexacarbonyliron(III) tribromide
Q3) Which of these ligands produces the strongest crystal field
A) Cl<sup>-</sup>
B) CO
C) OH<sup>-</sup>
D) H<sub>2</sub>O
E) NH<sub>3</sub>

Page 25
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Q1) Which type of organic compound contains a hydroxyl functional group
A) ester
B) ether
C) carboxylic acid
D) aldehyde
E) ketone
Q2) The group of atoms that is responsible for the characteristic properties of a family of organic compounds is called a/an
A) reaction center.
B) functional group.
C) binding site.
D) enzyme.
E) polyatomic ion.
Q3) The oxidation product of 1-propanol when using Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>7</sub><sup>2-</sup> as the oxidizing agent is acetone.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which choice lists both the sugar and the nitrogen base that are a part of RNA but are not part of DNA
A) deoxyribose and thymine
B) ribose and deoxyribose
C) ribose and uracil
D) uracil and thymine
E) ribose and thymine
Q2) The backbone of a strand of nucleic acid consists of
A) phosphate units only.
B) phosphate and sugar units.
C) polyester.
D) phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen base units.
E) sugar units only.
Q3) Cysteine and methionine are unique among the twenty essential amino acids in that they
A) are chiral.
B) contain an aromatic ring.
C) do not form dipolar ions.
D) contain sulfur.
E) cannot join with other amino acids to form peptides.
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