Fundamentals of Biology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology introduces students to the essential concepts and principles that form the basis of biological sciences. The course covers key topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on understanding biological processes at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, as well as the interdependence of living organisms and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, students develop critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills necessary for further study in biological and health sciences.
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Biology Now 2nd Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) The claim has been made that women may be able to achieve significant improvements in memory by taking <i>Gingko biloba</i> supplements.To determine if the claim is fraudulent and prior to accepting this claim,what type of evidence would you like to see? Provide brief details of an investigative design. Answer: The hypothesis to be examined is,"Taking <i>Gingko biloba</i> supplements significantly improves the memory of women." The prediction is that if women take <i>Gingko biloba</i> supplements their memory function will improve.This can be tested by setting up an experiment that includes a control group of randomly selected women who receive a placebo and an experimental group of women who will actually receive <i>Gingko biloba</i> supplements.Consuming the Gingko biloba supplement would be the independent variable.The experiment should attempt to control for other possible factors such as age,amount of daily exercise,and other dietary considerations when selecting participants.Both groups of women would be tested before the study begins to determine their average memory capabilities (dependent variable)prior to the experiment.Both groups of women would be retested at the end of the experiment.Statistical analyses should be conducted to determine if any differences in memory function between the two groups are significant and if the data supports the hypothesis.
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Chapter 2: Evaluating Scientific Claims
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Q1) The<i> Journal of the American Medical Association</i> publishes an article showing a link between certain strains of the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)and cancers of the urogenital tracts in both females and males.
A) real science
B) pseudoscience
Answer: A
Q2) <i>Journal of the American Medical Association</i>,a peer-reviewed scientific journal
A)primary
B)secondary
Answer: A
Q3) If we examine 100,000 children who have never had the MMR vaccine and 100,000 children who have received the vaccine and find that both groups of children have the same rate of autism,our data would NOT support the idea that the MMR vaccine ________ autism.
Answer: causes
Q4) <i>Science</i>,a peer-reviewed scientific journal
A)primary
B)secondary
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total number of carbon atoms? A)0 B)1 C)2
D)4
E)8
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is likely to participate in ionic bonding?
A) Li
B) H O
C) He
D) C H O
Answer: A
Q3) An acid is a polar substance that dissolves in water and A) becomes nonpolar.
B) leaves behind an OH ion.
C) accepts hydrogen ions from the solution.
D) donates hydrogen ions to the solution.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) A white blood cell (WBC)encounters bacteria in a scrape on the knee of a child who has fallen off of his bicycle.The WBC's job is to take the bacteria inside of itself and destroy the bacteria.If the bacteria cannot be moved across the WBC membrane,how will the WBC most likely take it in?
A) exocytosis
B) pinocytosis
C) facilitated diffusion
D) phagocytosis
Q2) The flexible poles providing structure to a soft-sided tent most closely resemble the A) endoplasmic reticulum in a bacterial cell.
B) Golgi apparatus in a plant cell.
C) cytoskeleton in an animal cell or other cell without a cell wall.
D) nucleus in a eukaryotic cell.
Q3) A cell surrounded by only a plasma membrane but containing a nucleus,mitochondria,Golgi apparatus,both smooth and rough ER,ribosomes,cytoskeleton,and lysosomes would be an example of a typical ________ cell.
Q4) All cells living today came from a preexisting ________.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: How Cells Work
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Q1) Explain how an increase in body temperature may affect the activity of enzymes with human cells.
Q2) Which step of cellular respiration occurs outside the mitochondria?
A) glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Calvin cycle
D) electron transport chain
Q3) Which of the following is a similarity between photosynthesis and respiration?
A) Neither is a metabolic process.
B) They are both metabolic processes.
C) Neither is an anabolic process.
D) They are both mainly anabolic processes.
Q4) Each time a person takes a breath,he or she is bringing in the oxygen he or she needs to stay alive.The ultimate source of the oxygen used by all aerobic organisms comes from a reaction that breaks down
A) carbon dioxide.
B) ATP.
C) water.
D) NADPH.
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Chapter 6: Cell Division
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Q1) Describe the G phase of the cell cycle.Provide an example of what type of cell would enter the G stage and propose why this cell would enter the G phase.
Q2) A scientist wishing to generate cancerous cells in vitro could subject the cells to which of the following procedures?
A) immerse the cells in water for extended periods of time
B) starve the cells of nutrients
C) expose cells to chemicals that disrupt mitosis
D) overfeed the cells by frequently feeding them
Q3) When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo,a researcher notices a cell that seems to contain two nuclei.The middle of the cell is pinched inward.This cell must be in ________ of mitosis.
A) prophase
B) telophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
Q4) A cell has completed S phase and is preparing to divide via mitosis.How is the genetic material arranged in G phase?
Q5) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ stage of the cell cycle.
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Chapter 7: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Suppose D were dominant and d were recessive,and you could label the D allele in the P generation with a radioactive substance that could be inherited over several generations.You create hybrids by mating your radioactive DD individuals to dd individuals.Finally,you cross two F1 individuals (with the Dd genotype).In 1,000 offspring,how many would you predict would be radioactive?
A) 250
B) 500
C) 750
D) 1,000
Q2) Based on Mendelian inheritance,would it be necessary to have both the genotype and phenotype for an organism when attempting to predict the inheritance pattern for a trait,such as hair color,in offspring?
A) Yes; individuals with different genotypes often have the same phenotype.
B) Yes; individuals with different phenotypes often have the same genotype.
C) No; knowing the phenotype will indicate the genotype.
D) No; knowing the genotype will indicate the phenotype.
Q3) The separation of two alleles into different cells during meiosis is Mendel's law of
Q4) A Punnett square shows the possible ways that alleles combine to form________.
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Chapter 8: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Most inherited human genetic disorders are inherited as ________ alleles.
A) dominant
B) recessive
C) homologous
D) sex-linked
Q2) Which of the following statements would indicate a pedigree that shows the inheritance pattern of a recessive X-linked disease?
A) Most affected individuals are females.
B) Most affected individuals are males.
C) Males and females are affected equally.
D) The disease is seen in every generation.
Q3) The gene for a certain sex-linked trait is found only on the Y chromosome.If the male parent has this gene,the trait will be expressed in
A) 100 percent of the female offspring.
B) 50 percent of the female offspring.
C) 100 percent of the male offspring.
D) 50 percent of the male offspring.
Q4) An individual who has the genotype X X for night blindness is considered a ________ for night blindness.
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Chapter 9: What Genes Are
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Q1) A new copy of a double helix that is composed of a template strand and a newly replicated strand of DNA is created using ________ replication.
Q2) The first human trial using CRISPR and approved by NIH used the system to edit
A) a mutated gene in human embryos and cure a genetic blood disorder.
B) targeted genes in both human and mouse cells.
C) bacterial genomes.
D) a cancer patient's own immune system cells.
Q3) A strand of DNA has the sequence GCAATTCG.The sequence of the complementary strand is ________.
Q4) Once attached to the proper DNA sequence,Cas9 proteins found in the CRISPR-Cas9 system ________ both strands of DNA.
A) polymerize
B) cleave
C) wind
D) unwind
Q5) Cooling cycles during PCR amplification of DNA enable enzymes to build two new strands of ________ through ________ base-pairing.
Q6) The CRISPR-Cas9 system is a combination of guide ________ and ________ proteins.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: How Genes Work
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Q1) In bacteria,the antibiotic chloramphenicol prevents amino acids from bonding.The MOST likely reason that bacteria die from treatment with chloramphenicol is because the antibiotic
A) inhibits transcription.
B) inhibits translation.
C) causes the wrong bases to be added to the growing mRNA strand.
D) causes the wrong amino acids to be bound to the tRNA strands.
Q2) During translation,
A) many mRNA molecules work with one tRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
B) one tRNA molecule works with paired mRNA molecules and many rRNA molecules to produce a protein.
C) strings of bonded tRNA molecules work with one mRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
D) one mRNA molecule works with several rRNA molecules and many tRNA molecules to produce a protein.
Q3) A researcher finds a molecule that is made of nucleotides and has a single amino acid bound to one end.This molecule is most likely a ________ molecule.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Tails are found
A) in all embryos.
B) only in adults and begin forming late in development.
C) only in embryos of organisms that will have a tail as adults.
D) in embryos of a wide variety of organisms, some of which have a tail as adults and others do not.
Q2) The evolution of new organs usually builds on preexisting structures that are modified in form and sometimes function.The embryos of fish,amphibians,reptiles,birds,and mammals all have pharyngeal pouches or gill slits.These pouches develop into gills in adult fish and they are used to absorb oxygen from their watery environment.These same pouches become parts of the ________ in humans.
A) lungs and heart
B) eyes and nose
C) ear and throat
D) eyes and lungs
Q3) The human appendix is an example of a(n)________ structure.
Q4) The geographic locations where an organism (or its fossils)can be found are described as the species' ________.
Q5) The preserved remains of formerly living organisms are called ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a step in the evolutionary process?
A) Mutation results in the formation of new alleles, and sexual reproduction results in new combinations of alleles.
B) New genes are introduced into a population when members of that population mate with members of other species and produce offspring.
C) Genetic variation is inherited by the next generation of a population.
D) Genetic drift, gene flow, and natural selection cause allele frequencies to change over time.
Q2) Both insects and humans evolved jointed legs to allow locomotion on land.These structures are considered analogous because insects and humans
A) stopped evolving at different times in Earth's history.
B) evolved from different ancestors.
C) cannot breed.
D) faced different environmental challenges during evolutionary time.
Q3) The result of convergent evolution is ________ traits.
Q4) If the size of a population drops for at least one generation and causes a loss of genetic variation,a ________ occurs.
Q5) Compare and contrast bottleneck and founder effect.
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Chapter 13: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Based on the ________ species concept,organisms that interbreed and produce fertile offspring are most likely classified as species.
Q2) The rough-skinned newt produces one of the most potent toxins on the planet.Scientists in Oregon have found that as newts evolve to produce a more deadly toxin,their primary predator,the garter snake,evolves ways to resist the toxin.This is an example of
A) ecological trade-offs in the evolution of the newt.
B) an adaptation of the newt to living in aquatic environments.
C) reproductive isolation in a population of garter snakes.
D) coevolution of predator and prey.
Q3) evolution in one species that leads to reciprocal adaptation in another species
A)coevolution
B)biological species concept
C)morphological species concept
D)speciation
E)morphology
F)adaptation
Q4) ecological isolation
A)prezygotic
B)postzygotic
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The History of Life
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Q1) At the base of the evolutionary tree of all life is the ________ ancestor.
A) universal
B) convergent
C) derived
D) descended
Q2) Resolving the relationship between the various kingdoms has been challenging because species often resemble one another.For example,the kingdom ________ contains some organisms that are animal-like and others that are plant-like.
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Archaea
D) Protista
Q3) When did photosynthesis evolve and how did it influence the evolution of life on Earth?
Q4) Explain two ways that mass extinctions can have a profound impact on evolved biodiversity in the ecosystem.
Q5) List the three domains of life.Then,identify which two domains are most closely related to one another.Finally,indicate which domains are classified as prokaryotes and which are classified as eukaryotes.
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Chapter 15: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) In what way do prokaryotes directly help plants?
Q2) membrane-enclosed organelles
A)prokaryotes only
B)eukaryotes only
C)both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q3) ribosomes
A)prokaryotes only
B)eukaryotes only
C)both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q4) Archaeans are often referred to as "extremophiles" because they are
A) capable of living in extreme environments where other organisms cannot function.
B) the only living organisms to reproduce using binary fission, an extreme form of asexual reproduction.
C) examples of the earliest life-forms on Earth and have existed for an extremely long time.
D) single-celled organisms that have extreme mechanisms for causing diseases in humans.
Q5) Bacteria and archaea are together referred to as ________.
Q6) List three characteristics shared between bacteria and archaea.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and Protists
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an evolutionary advantage of seed-bearing plants? The plant embryo
A) has a supply of stored food to use until it is ready to begin photosynthesis.
B) and food supply are encased in a protective covering.
C) is protected from drying out and predation.
D) will be able to immediately start photosynthesis.
Q2) Basil will produce tiny flowers if it is not kept trimmed back.After these tiny flowers are pollinated,they produce tiny seeds encased in a papery covering.Basil is an example of a
A) bryophyte.
B) fungus.
C) angiosperm.
D) gymnosperm.
Q3) Based upon the evolutionary traits visible in blooming rose bushes in a garden,a reasonable deduction would be that the
A) lack of an extensive vascular system means they are bryophytes.
B) presence of seeds means they are gymnosperms.
C) lack of visible fruit means they are ferns.
D) presence of flowers means they are angiosperms.
Q4) The key evolutionary innovation in ________ is the flower.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Animals and Human Evolution
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Q1) What evidence would support the hypothesis that a male Homo sapiens mated with a female Homo neanderthalensis and produced offspring?
Q2) How might being bilaterally symmetrical be an evolutionary advantage for a fish?
Q3) When researchers determined that the jawbone of an Italian Neanderthal dating to around 43,000-45,000 years ago showed the presence of an intermediate chin and mitochondrial Neanderthal DNA,they hypothesized that the jawbone belonged to an individual who was the product of a mating between a modern human and a Neanderthal.This hypothesis would be further supported if the fossil had
A) Neanderthal and Homo sapiens genomic DNA.
B) only Neanderthal mitochondrial and genomic DNA.
C) only Neanderthal genomic DNA.
D) both Neanderthal and Homo habilis genomic DNA.
Q4) Fossil evidence indicates that the first members of the genus Homo arose in Africa approximately ________ years ago.
A) 2 to 3 million
B) 200,000
C) 500,000
D) 1 million
Q5) Egg-laying mammals that lack a placenta are ________.
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Chapter 18: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) How do trees in the Amazon act as both a carbon sink and a carbon source?
Q2) Nonliving factors in the biosphere are called ________ factors.
Q3) The single most significant human-caused contribution (about 75 percent)to the worldwide increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide is
A) acid rain and the subsequent chemical reactions that release carbon dioxide from the soil.
B) nitrogen supplements that accelerate decompositional activity and recycle carbon before it can become sequestered in the soil.
C) the burning of fossil fuels and the subsequent emission of carbon dioxide.
D) deforestation and the subsequent decline in photosynthesis.
Q4) The term ________ describes the process of water released to the atmosphere from plants.
Q5) Which term encompasses all the others?
A) climate change
B) global warming
C) greenhouse effect
D) weather patterns
Q6) Describe an analogy between greenhouse gases and an inanimate object such as a winter jacket.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Growth of Populations
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Q1) For most populations,irregular fluctuations in size or density
A) are less commonly experienced than the smooth J-shaped growth curve.
B) occur commonly before carrying capacity is reached.
C) are more common than the smooth J-shaped growth curve.
D) occur only when density-independent factors dominate.
Q2) the maximum sustainable population size in a given environment
A)population size
B)population density
C)carrying capacity
D)logistic growth
E)exponential growth
Q3) There were 5.2 people per acre in 2012.A census in 2017 found there were 1.2 people per acre.This change represents a(n)________ in population ________.
A) decrease; size
B) decrease; density
C) increase; size
D) increase; density
Q4) You are told that the population size of mosquitoes is 50.What information would you need to allow you to determine the population density?
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Chapter 20: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Why would a food web rather than a food chain be the preferred way to represent the movement of food through the community?
A) Food chains are oversimplified and suggest that a consumer eats only a single food item.
B) Food webs place producers at the bottom, whereas food chains place them at the top.
C) Food webs are based on a foundation of producers.
D) Ecologists prefer to use food chains to describe food movements.
Q2) In which of the following situations would succession be expected to take the longest?
A) A volcanic island forms far from any mainland.
B) A forest fire burns 1,200 acres in Texas.
C) Sand dunes form a new island within a half mile of a mainland.
D) Humans log an area and then burn the remaining undergrowth.
Q3) bears and wolves both consuming carcasses within the same area
A)mutualism
B)commensalism
C)exploitation
D)competition
Q4) ________ consumers feed on primary consumers as part or all of their diet.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Ecosystems
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Q1) Areas of the ocean that are very cloudy due to large amounts of stirred sediment or eroded soil are likely to experience ________ productivity levels.
A) decreased primary
B) increased primary
C) no change in primary
D) an increase in primary productivity levels with a decrease in secondary
Q2) Which of the following are likely biotic components of a desert ecosystem?
A) sand, sun, and occasional rain
B) cacti, sage brush, scorpions, and snakes
C) oak trees, rhododendrons, squirrels, and moss
D) moss, large pine trees, frogs, and otters
Q3) Should the scientific community accept,without questions,Boyce,Worm,and Lewis's hypothesis that Earth's oceans are losing 500 million tons of phytoplankton per year? Support your answer.
Q4) Other than the polar tundra,the LEAST productive terrestrial biomes tend to be A) deserts.
B) temperate forests.
C) tropical forests.
D) estuaries.
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