Fundamentals of Biology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology introduces students to the essential concepts and principles that underlie the study of living organisms. This course covers foundational topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore how biological systems are organized and interact, from molecules to ecosystems. Emphasis is placed on scientific methods, critical thinking, and the applications of modern biological research, preparing students for advanced study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology 6th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regulation in biological systems depends on feedback,which is an example of information flow.When diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells,what information flow is disrupted?
A)The body is unable to send signals that indicate the amount of sugar in the blood.
B)Cells in the bladder are no longer able to send signals when the bladder fills.
C)The pancreas is unable to produce enzymes to break down proteins.
D)Appetite signals no longer regulate feeding.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is the hypothesis of this case study?
A)Male collared lizards exhibit color variation.
B)Dull-colored males are less likely to be eaten by predators.
C)A function of male coloration is to attract females.
D)Males prefer brightly colored females.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Q1) All atoms of an element have the same number of ________.
A)protons plus neutrons
B)protons
C)electrons
D)neutrons
Answer: B
Q2) As water freezes,________.
A)its molecules move farther apart
B)it cools the surrounding environment
C)its hydrogen bonds break apart
D)it loses its polarity
Answer: A
Q3) Beryllium's atomic mass is 9,and its atomic number is 4.How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?
A)9
B)13
C)4
D)5
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acids are polymers of ________ monomers.
A)monosaccharide
B)fatty acid
C)DNA
D)nucleotide
Answer: D
Q2) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG,what will be the sequence of the other strand?
A)GACGTCA
B)AGTACTG
C)GTCATGA
D)TCATGAC
Answer: D
Q3) For good health,it is important to include ________ in our diets.
A)fructose
B)monosaccharides
C)disaccharides
D)polysaccharides
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ________.
A)mRNA
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)DNA
D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ________.
A)in a marine environment
B)within the cells of another organism
C)in fresh water
D)in ice
Q3) A hormone that will be secreted from a cell is manufactured by ribosomes
A)attached to the endoplasmic reticulum
B)attached to the Golgi apparatus
C)attached to the plasma membrane
D)inside the nucleus
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) An object at rest has no ________ energy,but it may have ________ energy resulting from its location or structure.
A)kinetic...potential
B)kinetic...conserved
C)potential...kinetic
D)stored...potential
Q2) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ________.
A)result in cell death
B)force the cell to rely on lipids for energy
C)force the cell to rely on ADP for energy
D)have no effect on the cell
Q3) When a person cries,tears are exported from cells through the process of
A)facilitated diffusion
B)active transport
C)endocytosis
D)exocytosis
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy From Food
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Q1) In aerobic respiration,how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose?
A)1
B)38
C)6
D)12
Q2) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells.Physicians find that the muscle cells function.Not surprisingly,they also find that ________.
A)the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise
B)the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise
C)the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function
D)the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid
Q3) Which of the following are produced as a result of cellular respiration?
A)ATP and water
B)carbon dioxide and ATP
C)carbon dioxide,water,and ATP
D)oxygen and glucose
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) Scientists are working to create a better biofuel factory through which of the following processes?
A)increasing the rate at which certain algae reproduce
B)developing strains of algae that can clean up oil spills
C)increasing the genetic diversity of groups of algae
D)restricting hydrocarbon production
Q2) What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules,like chlorophyll b and carotenoids?
A)to reflect more energy
B)to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot C)to give them different colors
D)because plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs
Q3) Of the following,which wavelength is LEAST useful to your plants?
A)650 nm
B)450 nm
C)550 nm
D)400 nm
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells From Cells
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Q1) Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical.This type of cell division is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT ________.
A)growth of a multicellular organism
B)cell replacement
C)production of sperm and eggs
D)asexual reproduction
Q2) What is the chromosome number found in humans cells after meiosis I is completed?
A)46 autosomes
B)43 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
C)22 autosomes and a sex chromosome
D)44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
Q3) Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A)Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
B)The nuclear envelope forms.
C)Sister chromatids separate.
D)The mitotic spindle begins to form.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A couple has two female children.What is the probability that their next child will be male?
A)25%
B)50%
C)33%
D)67%
Q2) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A)locus
B)phenotype
C)genotype
D)allele
Q3) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease?
A)1/2
B)1/4
C)1/8
D)1/16
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11
Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of Dna
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Q1) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A)genome
B)genotype
C)phenotype
D)genetic code
Q2) The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ________ RNA.
A)viral
B)ribosomal
C)transfer
D)messenger
Q3) The backbone of DNA consists of ________.
A)nitrogenous bases
B)a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern
C)a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
D)paired nucleotides
Q4) The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ________.
A)the creation of a virus
B)a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail
C)the production of a longer RNA molecule
D)the production of a shorter RNA molecule
12
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Sample Questions
Q1) More people die of ________ cancer than of any other cancer.
A)lung
B)skin
C)pancreatic
D)breast
Q2) Introns are ________.
A)noncoding DNA sequences
B)DNA sequences to which activators bind
C)expressed DNA sequences
D)the product of RNA splicing
Q3) Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ________.
A)operator
B)proto-oncogene
C)regulatory gene
D)promoter
Q4) Which risk factor is associated with cancer of the colon and rectum?
A)tobacco
B)viruses
C)UV radiation
D)dietary fat
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) You can use this DNA fingerprinting information to make a judgment about maternity because ________.
A)the shade of DNA bands will differ
B)both mother and daughter contain only X chromosomes
C)of the position of the bands in the gel
D)of the size of the bands
Q2) What evidence led to Kirk Odom's freedom after being wrongly imprisoned for 30 years?
A)an analysis of blood types from the crime scene
B)an analysis of fingerprints from the crime scene
C)accounts from witnesses
D)an analysis of DNA from the crime scene
Q3) When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein,the ________.
A)plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium
B)bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered,and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate
C)desired gene is inserted into the plasmid,and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium
D)bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene
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Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) What does evolutionary fitness measure?
A)physical health
B)longevity
C)relative reproductive success
D)population size
Q2) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula,what does 2pq represent?
A)frequency of the dominant allele
B)frequency of heterozygotes
C)frequency of the recessive allele
D)frequency of the homozygous dominants
Q3) Natural selection can be defined as ________.
A)the evolution of a population of organisms
B)a process in which changes in gene frequencies result from evolution
C)the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment
D)a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with other traits
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15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) ________ is the discipline of biology that focuses on classifying organisms and determining their evolutionary relationships.
A)Taxonomy
B)Evo-devo
C)Systematics
D)Biogeography
Q2) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?
A)Animalia
B)Plantae
C)Archaea
D)Eukarya
Q3) A period of mass extinction is often followed by ________.
A)explosive diversification
B)paedomorphosis
C)global warming
D)continental drift
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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) Which of the following is a plausible reason for why it may be difficult to treat infections that arise from tooth decay?
A)Biofilm bacteria that cause tooth decay begin to produce endospores as a means to deter effects of antibiotics.
B)Binary fission in biofilm bacteria that cause tooth decay begins to decrease as the biofilm community becomes more complex,thereby producing fewer bacterial cells for antibiotics to penetrate.
C)As the biofilm that causes tooth decay becomes larger,its structure makes it difficult for antibiotics to break through bacterial cell walls.
D)Bacteria of the biofilm that cause tooth decay form a symbiotic relationship with the antibiotics and therefore diminish antibiotic effectiveness.
Q2) RNAs that can act as enzymes are called ________.
A)ribozymes
B)ATPs
C)lysosomes
D)prokaryotes
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) The ________ help(s)plants retain water.
A)hypha
B)cuticle
C)mycorrhiza
D)lignin
Q2) Mutualistic associations of plant roots and fungi are called ________.
A)mycorrhizae
B)mycelia
C)shoots
D)hyphae
Q3) Why is the symbiotic relationship of truffle mushrooms and tree roots considered to be crucial to the colonization of land?
A)This relationship is found in some of the oldest plant fossils.
B)Truffles have the terrestrial adaptation of seeds.
C)Tree roots can be found only in terrestrial environments.
D)Truffles provide trees with sugars.
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18
Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Nearly all ________ are aquatic.
A)crustaceans
B)arachnids
C)flatworms
D)roundworms
Q2) A(n)________ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell.
A)octopus
B)snail
C)spider
D)oyster
Q3) All chordates have ________.
A)a dorsal,hollow nerve cord and a notochord
B)a postanal tail and a single opening for the mouth and anus
C)a cranium and vertebrae
D)pharyngeal slits and a cranium
Q4) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?
A)Many migrate long distances.
B)Many are brightly colored.
C)There are over 10,000 different species of birds.
D)Birdwatching is a popular hobby.
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)are greenhouse gases that,for a specific amount of mass,trap significantly more heat than CO .How can you classify CFCs?
A)gases with lower GWP values than CO
B)gas with equal GWP values to CO
C)gases with greater GWP values than CO
D)gases that do not have GWP values
Q2) The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures.This increase is due primarily to ________.
A)CO and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth's surface
B)CO and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of UV radiation from Earth
C)the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere
D)CO and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth
Q3) What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?
A)community
B)organism
C)ecosystem
D)population
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an ideal,unlimited environment,what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?
A)S
B)J
C) D)
Q2) Chinese privet is a plant that is native to China.Over 150 years ago,Chinese privet was introduced to the United States as a fast-growing shrub that serves as an excellent privacy hedge.With no natural predators,Chinese privet quickly established itself and spread in natural areas throughout the southeast and eastern seaboard of the United States.Its dominance in these areas has jeopardized the survival of native plant species.Chinese privet provides evidence that ________.
A)introducing non-native organisms can cause environmental damage
B)American gardeners can easily control the spread of Chinese privet
C)integrated pest management strategies will not decrease Chinese privet populations
D)non-native plant species have Type I survivorship curves
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) The single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ________.
A)habitat destruction and fragmentation
B)invasive species
C)overexploitation
D)pollution
Q2) Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ________.
A)biologically magnified
B)endemic environments
C)biodiverse environments
D)biodiversity hot spots
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the visible light that reaches Earth's producers is converted to chemical energy?
A)10%
B)0)1%
C)1%
D)0)01%
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22
Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following statements apply to freshwater fish?
A)They lose water by osmosis.
B)The concentration of solutes in their internal fluids is lower than in the surrounding water.
C)They pump out ions via the gills.
D)They produce dilute urine.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about organs?
A)An organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissues composing it.
B)An organ consists of several tissues.
C)An organ can carry out only the functions of its component tissues.
D)An organ consists of many cells.
Q3) The fact that every organism continuously exchanges chemicals and energy with its surroundings indicates that organisms ________.
A)are open systems
B)are closed systems
C)have tightly controlled thermoregulation
D)osmoregulate
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Bile from the liver is stored in the ________ before entering the intestine.
A)pancreas
B)gallbladder
C)large intestine
D)bile duct
Q2) The main function of salivary amylase is to ________.
A)moisten food
B)break down proteins
C)absorb nutrients
D)break down starch
Q3) A person with a BMI of 27 would be described as ________.
A)overweight
B)normal weight
C)underweight
D)It depends on the person's height.
Q4) Certain amino acids are called essential because they ________.
A)are required for making protein
B)cannot be made by the body from other compounds
C)store energy
D)are required for making nucleic acids
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) In a human,the ________ provide(s)a common passageway for both food and air.
A)bronchioles
B)trachea
C)pharynx
D)alveoli
Q2) If your blood pressure were 120/70,it would mean that ________.
A)your blood pressure during systole is 120 and your blood pressure during diastole is 70
B)you have high blood pressure
C)you have low blood pressure
D)your blood pressure during systole is 120 and your heart rate is 70
Q3) When a person exhales to complete a yawn,what happens?
A)The rib muscles contract.
B)The diaphragm contracts.
C)The rib muscles act in the same way that they do in an inhalation.
D)The diaphragm relaxes.
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Chapter 24: The Bodys Defenses
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Q1) Histamine ________.
A)causes local blood vessels to dilate
B)attracts natural killer cells
C)stimulates the release of defensive proteins
D)repels phagocytic cells
Q2) Suppose that you encounter an antigen for the first time.What types of cells stored in your lymph nodes can be activated in case you encounter the antigen again?
A)memory cells
B)effector cells
C)phagocytic cells
D)helper T cells
Q3) It is best to receive an organ transplant from a donor who ________.
A)looks like you
B)rarely consumes alcohol
C)does not have any allergies
D)best matches your self proteins
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26
Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus,such as frequent urination?
A)a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine
B)a failure of the gastrointestinal epithelium to absorb enough glucose from food
C)an inability of the body's cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood
D)an inability of the body's cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood
Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The anterior pituitary is composed of nervous tissue.
B)The anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary work together to secrete the same hormones.
C)Inhibiting hormones make the anterior pituitary secrete hormones.
D)The pituitary secretes hormones that influence numerous body functions.
Q3) Which of the following is a nonsteroid hormone?
A)glucagon
B)a progestin
C)a glucocorticoid
D)androgen
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Meiosis in oogenesis produces four mature eggs from one primary oocyte.
B)Oogenesis begins during puberty.
C)Spermatogenesis in an individual begins before that individual is born.
D)Oogenesis in humans is completed after stimulation by sperm.
Q2) At about what point in gestation does the fetal heartbeat become audible by stethoscope and the fetus's movements easily felt by the mother?
A)15 weeks
B)20 weeks
C)25 weeks
D)30 weeks
Q3) Where does the embryo normally implant?
A)in the oviduct
B)in the corpus luteum
C)in the follicle of the ovary
D)in the endometrium of the uterus
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Chapter 27: Nervous,Sensory,and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) Some adults with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)have abnormally low activity of the neurotransmitter involved in pleasure,attention,memory,sleep,movement,and learning,which increases their risk of drug abuse.Which drug are they most likely to abuse?
A)cocaine
B)morphine
C)codeine
D)alcohol
Q2) Eyes can become bloodshot when irritants in the eye trigger an increased blood flow to the connective tissue covering the eye.These swollen blood vessels are located on the ________.
A)cornea
B)sclera
C)iris
D)lens
Q3) In contrast to action potentials,receptor potentials ________.
A)are all-or-none phenomena
B)vary in intensity
C)do not require a stimulus
D)do not rely on changes in the membrane potential
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) What typically has to happen before a fruit develops? I)flowering
II)pollination
III)double fertilization
A)I only
B)I and II
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q2) Which of the following is an example of flowering plant/animal interdependence?
I)Most angiosperms depend on insects,birds,or mammals for pollination.
II)Most angiosperms depend on insects,birds,or mammals for seed dispersal.
III)Most land animals depend on angiosperms for food.
A)I only
B)I and II
C)III only
D)I,II,and III
Q3) Which of the following form tubes and are alive when mature?
A)parenchyma cells
B)collenchyma cells
C)water-conducting cells
D)food-conducting cells
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Some farmers practice crop rotation,alternating between planting nonlegumes such as corn or wheat one year and legumes the next year.What is the advantage of crop rotation?
A)The legumes in the rotation will transfer nitrogen,phosphorus,and potassium to the other crop plants.
B)Planting legumes enriches the soil for the next year when root nodule bacteria fix so much nitrogen that excess ammonia is secreted into the soil.
C)The nitrogen-fixing bacteria in legumes can migrate to nonlegume crop plants and provide them with nitrogen.
D)Any nitrogen fertilizer that is applied to the soil will be converted into ammonium ions by the nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonium?
A)nitrifying bacteria
B)nitrogen-fixing bacteria
C)mycorrhizae
D)ammonifying bacteria
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