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Fundamentals of Biology provides an essential introduction to the basic principles underlying the study of living organisms. This course covers key topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore how biological systems operate at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, gaining an understanding of how living organisms interact with each other and their environment. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimentation, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world issues. This foundational course prepares students for advanced study in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Q1) Error bars on a graph indicate
A) places where the data is likely wrong.
B) places where the researcher is unsure of her results.
C) variation in results that cannot be accounted for.
D) variation in a set of data around the average.
E) poor experimental technique on the part of the researcher.
Answer: D
Q2) A subset of people got Olestra-containing chips.
A)Observation
B)Hypothesis
C)Prediction
D)Experiment
E)Control group
F)Experimental group
G)The variable
H)Assess results
I)Conclusion
Answer: F
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Q1) Which of the following carbohydrates is the most abundant in the biosphere?
A) glucose
B) starch
C) glycogen
D) sucrose
E) galactose
Answer: A
Q2) Denaturation of proteins will result in all EXCEPT one of the following.Which one is it?
A) breakage of hydrogen bonds
B) loss of three dimensional structure
C) removal of R groups from amino acids
D) alteration of enzyme activity
E) endangerment of cell's life
Answer: C
Q3) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
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Q1) ____ are responsible for separating chromosomes during cell division.
A) Microfilaments.
B) Intermediate filaments.
C) Actin filaments
D) Microtubules
E) Microfibers
Answer: D
Q2) One of the generalizations of the cell theory is that
A) all cells have a nucleus.
B) all cells divide by meiosis.
C) all living organisms are made up of cells.
D) cells arise through spontaneous generation.
E) growth is solely the result of cell division.
Answer: C
Q3) cytoplasm

Answer: E
Q4) capsule
Answer: B
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Q1) What is the most likely source of various hangover symptoms?
A) acetate
B) acetaldehyde
C) ethanol
D) alcohol dehydrogenase
E) carbon dioxide
Q2) Once glucose has entered a cell,what prevents it from diffusing back out of the cell?
A) glucose pumps actively pump it back
B) one side of the cell membrane is permeable to glucose, but the other side is not
C) glucose inhibitors attach to glucose once it's in the cell
D) glucose is phosphorylated preventing it from leaving the cell
E) glucose is hydrolyzed into two three-carbon molecules that cannot diffuse in a reverse direction
Q3) Osmosis involves
A) the movement of a solvent, like water.
B) differences in solute concentrations.
C) movement from hypotonic to hypertonic solutions.
D) all of these exceptd.
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Q1) Process that fixes carbon twice.
Q2) During electron transport phosphorylation,which ions accumulate in the outer compartment of the mitochondria?
A) calcium
B) hydrogen
C) oxygen
D) phosphorus
E) sodium
Q3) To break down a glucose molecule completely,how many "turns" of the Krebs cycle are required?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 12
Q4) pathway used by white muscle fibers
Q5) light
Q6) Water is split in this process.
Q7) This process is catalyzed by an enzyme called rubisco.
Q8) light-independent reactions
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Q1) What is the success rate for producing live births of cloned animals?
A) 1-2 %
B) 3-5%
C) 10-15%
D) 40-50%
E) 100%
Q2) Which chromosomes are carried by a normal female butterfly?
A) ZO
B) ZW
C) WW
D) WO
E) ZWW
Q3) Which of the following male organisms contain two identical sex chromosomes?
A) turtles
B) birds
C) chimpanzees
D) dogs
E) lizards
Q4) built the first precise model of DNA that implied its method of replication
Q5) The amount of adenine was always equal to the amount of this.
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Q1) In this representation of transcription,the first genetic word of RNA is
A) ATG.
B) ATA.
C) UAU.
D) GUG.
E) AUG.
Q2) In most species,all mRNA transcripts begin with A) methionine.
B) a ribosome.
C) AUG.
D) the P site.
E) an anticodon.
Q3) What are the non-coding segments of DNA called?
A) introns
B) exons
C) inseqs
D) excisors
E) incisors
Q4) guided and catalyzed by RNA polymerases
Q5) RNA-directed synthesis of polypeptide chains
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Q1) Sister chromatids are separated from each other during ____ of meiosis.
A) telophase II
B) anaphase I
C) prophase II
D) anaphase II
E) metaphase II
Q2) Through meiosis,
A) alternate forms of genes are shuffled.
B) parental DNA is divided and distributed to forming gametes.
C) the diploid chromosome number is reduced to haploid.
D) offspring are provided with new gene combinations.
E) all of these occur.
Q3) part of cell cycle that precedes cytoplasmic division
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
Q4) when DNA is replicated
Q5) period in which metaphase occurs
Q6) period prior to mitosis
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Q1) In the figure above,how many plants would have purple flowers and tall stems?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 9
E) 16
Q2) Which of the following organs have epithelial lined passageways and ducts that are affected in cystic fibrosis:
A) lungs
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) intestines
E) all of these organs are affected
Q3) An allele is ____ if its effect masks that of a ____ allele paired with it.
A) recessive; codominant
B) codominant; recessive
C) recessive; dominant
D) dominant; recessive
E) incompletely recessive; dominant
Q4) the particular alleles carried by an individual
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Q1) In agriculture,the use of GMOs is regulated by
A) the FDA
B) the AHA
C) Greenpeace
D) the USDA
E) the NIH
Q2) replacing diseased organs with healthy ones from other species
Q3) What is the vector used in gene therapy?
A) bacterial plasmids
B) lipids
C) genetically engineered viruses
D) single nucleotides
E) more than one of these
Q4) Plants have been genetically modified for which of the following purposes?
A) herbicide resistance
B) pest resistance
C) nutritional improvement
D) disease resistance
E) all of these
Q5) technique of separating DNA fragments of different sizes
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Q1) Malthus
Q2) During which period did Pangaea break apart?
A) Cambrian
B) Carboniferous
C) Quaternary
D) Jurassic
E) Silurian
Q3) Who,among the following,was the earliest naturalist?
A) Darwin
B) Plato
C) Mendel
D) Galileo
E) Aristotle
Q4) Which type of genes guide the formation of specific body parts?
A) homeotic
B) homologous
C) recessive
D) dominant
E) homozygotic
Q5) modern humans evolve

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Q1) The nodes on a cladogram represent
A) periods of extinction.
B) derived characters.
C) clades.
D) common ancestors.
E) exaptations.
Q2) The old order Amish in Lancaster County is an example of a population that underwent
A) a bottle neck.
B) mutation.
C) a founder effect.
D) gene flow.
E) genetic drift.
Q3) group of ancestors and all of its descendents
Q4) diagram that summarizes how a group of species evolved
Q5) this often sets the stage for adaptive radiation
Q6) an evolutionary novelty that stems from an adaptation of an existing structure
Q7) lineage that rapidly diversifies into several new species
Q8) group of related organisms
Q9) an example of this is the evolutionary history of the coelacanth Page 14
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Q1) Genes that are exchanged between prokaryotes are contained in
A) pili.
B) plasmids.
C) prokaryote RNA.
D) the nucleus.
E) capsules.
Q2) The new version of the H1N1 virus had genes from ___ flu viruses.
A) human
B) bird
C) swine
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q3) Which of the following protists are able to produce bioluminescent molecules?
A) foraminiferans
B) apicomplexans
C) ciliates
D) dinoflagellates
E) euglenoids
Q4) cause of malaria
Q5) thrives in high salt conditions
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Q1) The group of seed plants that has the most species is the A) bryophytes.
B) ferns.
C) gymnosperms.
D) monocots.
E) eudicots.
Q2) Land plants most likely evolved from which of the following organisms?
A) brown algae
B) red algae
C) green algae
D) bryophytes
E) seedless vascular plants
Q3) Of the following,how does the life cycle of a club fungus differ from the life cycle of a flowering plant?
A) in the club fungus life cycle, there are no gametes
B) in the club fungus life cycle, there is no haploid stage
C) in the club fungus life cycle, there is no diploid stage
D) in the club fungus life cycle, there are no zygotes
E) none of these is a difference between the life cycle of a club fungus and a flowering plant
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Q1) Which of the following describe both tunicates and lancelets?
A) invertebrates
B) chordates
C) gill slits
D) notochords in the larvae
E) all of these describe both tunicates and lancelets
Q2) Which of the following animals do NOT have tissues?
A) sponges
B) annelids
C) roundworms
D) cnidarians
E) more than one of these animals does not have tissues
Q3) Four of the five answers listed below are anthropoids.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) gorilla
B) human
C) tarsier
D) lemur
E) monkey
Q4) the last population of this species went extinct 28,000 years ago
Q5) the most apelike of the listed species
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Q1) Type I survivorship curves
A) are characteristics of humans and elephants.
B) typify a population in which all ages have an equal chance of survival.
C) indicate a high mortality rate in the very young.
D) show that very few young are produced, that each is given parental support, and that most individuals live a relatively long life and die of old age.
E) are typical of annual plants.
Q2) The birth rate in a population of 400 feral cats is 100 per year.The death rate in this same population is 40 per year.The per capita growth rate of this population of feral cats is ___ per cat per year.
A) .25
B) .1
C) .15
D) .4
E) 0
Q3) A harsh winter is an example of this.
Q4) Long life spans,few offspring,extended care of young
Q5) distribution of individuals among various age groups
Q6) Given unlimited resources,what organisms will achieve
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Q1) The mycorrhizal relationship you studied in a previous chapter is an example of A) commensalism.
B) mutualism.
C) competition.
D) predation.
E) parasitism.
Q2) Which of the following are threatened by red imported fire ants?
A) native ant populations
B) ant-eating lizards
C) ground-nesting birds
D) native plants
E) all of these
Q3) Most organisms are dependent upon plants because
A) plants produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis.
B) as producers, they form the base of food chains.
C) they function to prevent erosion and reduce desertification.
D) as they remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, they reduce the problems generated by the greenhouse effect.
E) all of these apply.
Q4) primary consumers

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Q1) How many land eco-regions have been identified by the World Wildlife Fund as top priorities for conservation efforts?
A) 123
B) 167
C) 456
D) 579
E) 867
Q2) The conversion of grasslands or woodlands to desert-like conditions is called
A) desertification.
B) bleaching.
C) eutrophication.
D) deforestation.
E) degrassification.
Q3) Due to biological magnification,which of the following have the highest concentration of a chemical herbicide?
A) grass- the dominant primary producer
B) cow- an herbivore
C) grasshoppers - an herbivore
D) mice - predators of butterflies
E) hawk - predators of mice
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Q1) What form of stimulus will cause the blood vessels of the skin to relax and increase in diameter?
A) decrease in temperature
B) increase in temperature
C) electrical stimulus
D) mechanical stimulus
E) more than one of these
Q2) The stomach lies within the ___ cavity.
A) abdominal
B) thoracic
C) pelvic
D) cranial
E) spinal
Q3) What form of stimulus will cause the blood vessels of the skin to decrease in diameter and contract?
A) decrease in temperature
B) increase in temperature
C) electrical stimulus
D) mechanical stimulus
E) more than one of these
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Q1) How many vertebrae do humans have?
A) 21
B) 26
C) 23
D) 46
E) 58
Q2) Which skeleton provides the least amount of protection and support?
A) endoskeleton
B) exoskeleton
C) hydrostatic skeleton
D) all of these provide the same protection and support
E) none of these provide protection or support
Q3) What structure protects the heart and lungs?
A) vertebral column
B) pelvic girdle
C) pectoral girdle
D) ribs and sternum
E) all of these
Q4) connective tissue holds bones of these joints together
Q5) threadlike components of muscles that are made up of sarcomeres
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Q1) An animal with an open circulatory system
A) lacks a continuous network of blood vessels that contain the blood at all times.
B) can have only one heart.
C) has two separate vascular circuits.
D) is able to distribute substances faster than a closed system.
E) can grow larger than one with a closed circulatory system.
Q2) In human lungs,where does gas exchange occur?
A) the pharynx
B) the alveoli
C) the trachea
D) the bronchioles
E) more than one of these
Q3) In this disease there is a buildup of lipids in arterial walls that forms a plaque that narrows the space inside the artery.This disease is
A) atherosclerosis.
B) hemophilia.
C) hypertension.
D) sickle-cell anemia.
E) more than one of these.
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Q1) Mast cells
A) are anchored in tissue.
B) secrete substances contained within their granules.
C) will respond to injury or antigen.
D) may respond to chemical signals from the nervous system.
E) fit all of these characteristics.
Q2) Acne results when
A) bacterial secretions from hair follicles leak into internal tissues.
B) bacteria that cause acne burrow into open skin wounds.
C) bacterial secretions are swallowed and become systemic.
D) bacterial secretions mix with sweat and become more acidic.
E) bacteria are phagocytized by macrophages which then become hyperactive.
Q3) HIV is able to shut down a person's adaptive immunity by attacking which type of cell?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) effector B cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) memory B cells
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Q1) coenzyme action in carbohydrate and amino acid metabolism
Q2) Which of the following animals have broad,flat molars and reduced canines?
A) cows
B) cats
C) wolves
D) humans
E) more than one of these
Q3) Blood enters the kidney through ____ and leaves the kidney through ____.
A) the renal vein; the renal artery
B) the nephron; the renal capillary
C) the renal artery; the renal vein
D) the renal artery; the nephron
E) none of these
Q4) "Solutes move from the blood in capillaries into adjacent tubules." This is a description of
A) filtration.
B) reabsorption.
C) secretion.
D) elimination.
E) excretion.
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Q1) Sounds
A) are waves of compressed air.
B) are detected by mechanoreceptors.
C) may be measured, with respect to their loudness, in decibels.
D) that vary by one decibel can be differentiated by the human ear.
E) include all of these.
Q2) Prozac,an antidepressant,is most closely associated with the neurotransmitter, A) acetlycholine.
B) serontonin.
C) epinephrine.
D) dopamine.
E) an endorphin.
Q3) MDMA,the active ingredient in Ecstacy,
A) interferes with the removal of serotonin by transport proteins.
B) causes an increased release in the neurotransmitter, dopamine.
C) blocks the movement of epinephrine across the synaptic cleft.
D) binds to endorphins making them unavailable.
E) causes the rapid transport of acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft.
Q4) ciliary muscles are weak
Q5) fluid pressure inside the vitreous body increases beyond normal pressures
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Q1) thymus gland
Q2) Exposure to a light source
A) decreases melatonin levels.
B) increase melatonin levels.
C) decrease testosterone levels.
D) is used to treat SAD and jet lag.
E) does more than one of these.
Q3) This hormone induces protein synthesis and cell division in young animals.
Q4) Increased melatonin levels cause a decrease in ___ production.
A) aldosterone
B) ADH
C) testosterone
D) insulin
E) glucagon
Q5) Melatonin is produced in this gland.
Q6) steroid hormone
Q7) Seasonal affective disorder
Q8) The gland at letter "D" is the __________.
Q9) cAMP
Q10) This gland is divided into two lobes. Page 28
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Q1) Inside of the penis there are ____ cylinders of spongy tissue.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) none of these
Q2) Gastrulation in human embryos occurs about ___ after fertilization.
A) 5 days
B) 2 weeks
C) 4 weeks
D) 2 months
E) 5 months
Q3) The organ that produces eggs and hormones is at letter ________.
Q4) During a human pregnancy,implantation occurs at which stage?
A) zygote
B) early cleavage
C) blastocyst
D) gastrula
E) embryo
Q5) This continues to undergo mitosis throughout the reproductive life of the male.
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Q1) Which of these is NOT associated with sclerenchyma?
A) lignin
B) photosynthesis
C) support
D) sclereids
E) fibers
Q2) The movement of materials already in the phloem is described as
A) translocation.
B) declining pressure flow.
C) cohesion-tension.
D) active transport.
E) transpiration.
Q3) Which of the following statements is correctly related to the opening of stomata?
A) potassium is pumped into the guard cells and water follows by osmosis
B) potassium and water are both actively pumped into the guard cells
C) potassium is pumped out of the guard cells and water follows by osmosis
D) potassium and water are both actively pumped out of the guard cells
E) none of these statements is correctly related to the opening of stomata
Q4) movement is always up for this process
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Q1) endosperm
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are haploid.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) gametophyte
B) zygote
C) sperm
D) egg
E) gamete
Q3) The seeds of colorful,fleshy fruits are most likely to be spread by A) animals.
B) water.
C) wind.
D) gravity.
E) a combination of more than one of these.
Q4) Bananas are propagated by A) grafting.
B) adventitious roots.
C) tissue culture.
D) treating banana tissues with colchicine.
E) planting seeds.
Q5) What structures are indicated at the letter "C"?
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