Fundamentals of Biology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology introduces students to the core principles governing living systems, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course explores how organisms obtain and use energy, maintain homeostasis, and interact with their environments. Emphasis is placed on scientific methods, experimental design, and the relevance of biological concepts to real-world issues. This foundation equips students with the knowledge and critical thinking skills needed for more advanced studies in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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28 Chapters
3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) These multi-celled consumers include herbivores and carnivores.
A)archaea
B)bacteria
C)eukarya
D)plantae
E)fungi
F)animalia
G)protists
Answer: F
Q2) The variable(s)in the butterfly experiment is(are)the
A) butterfly wings pattern color.
B) butterfly species.
C) butterfly wings pattern color and sounds emitted.
D) rainforest region used.
E) percentage of survivors.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon 14 radioisotopes decay into stable
A) carbon 13 isotopes.
B) nitrogen atoms.
C) carbon atoms.
D) nitrogen 15 isotopes.
E) sodium atoms.
Answer: B
Q2) What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein?
A) peptide
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) amino
E) sulfhydroxyl
Answer: A
Q3) the bond that breaks when salts dissolve in water
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) This organelle is studded with ribosomes.
A)nucleus
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosome
D)Golgi body
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
Q2) A pathogenic Escherichia coli strain would cause which of the following problems except one.Which of the following is the exception?
A) blindness
B) diarrhea
C) paralysis
D) kidney failure
E) heart failure
Answer: E
Q3) flagellum
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most toxic?
A) alcohol dehydrogenase
B) ethanol
C) acetaldehyde
D) acetate
E) carbon dioxide
Q2) The following statements are all true about energy except one.Choose the exception.
A) Energy is captured by heterotrophs.
B) Energy is not recycled.
C) Energy is the ability to do work.
D) Energy has a tendency to disperse.
E) Energy can be transferred from one form to another.
Q3) Osmosis involves
A) the movement of a solvent, like water.
B) differences in solute concentrations.
C) movement from hypotonic to hypertonic solutions.
D) all of these exceptd.
Q4) phosphate-group transfer
Q5) part of the enzyme that is specific for the reaction it will catalyze
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alcohol in beer and wine is from fermentation by A) bacteria.
B) yeast.
C) hops flowers.
D) sugar.
E) protistans.
Q2) Process that is minimized by C4 plants.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT found in fermentation?
A) NADH
B) ATP
C) pyruvate
D) oxygen
E) glucose
Q4) For glycolysis to occur,
A) glucose must enter the mitochondria.
B) there must be an input of energy from ATP.
C) oxygen must be available.
D) ATP syntase must be activated.
E) heat must be supplied.
Q5) first part of aerobic respiration
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of adenine was always equal to the amount of this.
Q2) The primary function of DNA ligase is to
A) cut the two strands of DNA molecule prior to replication.
B) attach free nucleotides to a growing chain.
C) remove bases that might have been inserted incorrectly.
D) seal any tiny gaps in the new DNA.
E) fragment old DNA that is no longer of use to the cell.
Q3) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about eukaryotic chromosomes?
A) The number of chromosomes varies from one species to another.
B) All eukaryotes have the same system of autosomes and sex chromosomes.
C) A chromosome consists of DNA associated with histone proteins.
D) After duplication, all paired chromosomes are attached at the centromere.
E) After duplication, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
Q4) What is the basic problem with cloning adult animals?
A) obtaining enough DNA
B) finding proper surrogates to carry the cloned embryos
C) reprogramming the DNA
D) obtaining DNA without mutations
E) all of these are problems with cloning adult animals
Q5) this mutagen causes the mispairing of bases in DNA replication
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to ricin in the plant in which it is found?
A) it is hydrolyzed and the amino acids that result are used to make new proteins
B) it is complexed with carbohydrates to make a cell wall component
C) it is broken down into monosaccharides that are then used to generate ATP
D) it is hydrolyzed into fatty acids which are further hydrolyzed to make steroids
E) it is hydrolyzed and the nucleotides that result are used to make DNA and RNA
Q2) In this representation of transcription,strand # 2 represents
A) the coding DNA strand.
B) the transcript.
C) the template for the coding DNA strand.
D) the coded RNA strand.
E) both the transcript and the coded RNA strand.
Q3) In prokaryotes,translation takes place in the A) cytoplasm.
B) nucleus.
C) plasma membrane.
D) endoplasmic reticulum.
E) Golgi bodies.
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes replicate during this phase.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q2) Nuclear membranes re-forms during A) prophase.
B) telophase.
C) interphase.
D) anaphase.
E) metaphase.
Q3) Cancer cells
A) have an abnormal chromosome number.
B) are unable to attach to other cells.
C) divide to produce high densities of cells.
D) have malformed cytoskeletons.
E) fit all of these descriptions.
Q4) the beginning of interphase
Q5) when DNA is replicated
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Crossing over tends to reduce the frequency that two linked genes are inherited together.
B) Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes during meiosis increases variation.
C) Crossing over leads to variation.
D) Abnormal number or structure of chromosomes may influence the course of evolution.
E) The closer together genes are found on a chromosome, the greater is a chance that crossing over will occur between them.
Q2) disorder that occurs when an amino acid is not converted to tyrosine
Q3) disorder that is dominant
Q4) Which of the following determines an observable trait?
A) phenotype
B) genotype
C) gene location
D) morphotype
E) phototype
Q5) refers to two alleles that are both fully expressed in heterozygous individuals
Q6) disorder that is an X-linked recessive trait
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) molecule that needs primers,nucleotides,and a DNA molecule as a template in order to fulfill its function
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a type of eugenics?
A) gene therapy to cure a disease
B) gene replacement to improve normal memory
C) xenotransplantation of a healthy organ
D) consumption of genetically enhanced foods
E) more than one of these would be considered a type of eugenics
Q3) DNA fragment that contains the DNA of more than one species
Q4) Plants have been genetically modified for which of the following purposes?
A) herbicide resistance
B) pest resistance
C) nutritional improvement
D) disease resistance
E) all of these
Q5) replacing diseased organs with healthy ones from other species
Q6) making changes in an individual's genome
Q7) molecules that chop up DNA molecules in specific ways
Q9) technique of separating DNA fragments of different sizes Page 12
Q8) method that rapidly generates many copies of a specific DNA fragment
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of yeast genes have homologous genes that can be found in humans?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 30
E) 40
Q2) Which of the following fossils are we most likely to find?
A) fossils beneath the Empire State Building
B) fossils of flowers that produce one seed
C) jellyfish fossils
D) fossilized spores from mushrooms
E) fossils of animals living on steep slopes
Q3) Which layer of sedimentary rock shows the presence of fish?
A) Unkar Group
B) Manakacha Formation
C) Kaibab Limestone receptors
D) Redwall Limestone
E) Chuar Group
Q4) Lamarck
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hawaiian honeycreeper diversity is best described as an example of A) behavioral isolation.
B) morphological convergence.
C) exaptation.
D) adaptive radiation.
E) sympatric speciation.
Q2) A ____ is a structural modification that enables an individual to exploit their habitat more efficiently.
A) key innovation
B) mutation
C) morphological convergence
D) morphological divergence
E) homologous structure
Q3) evolutionary history of a species
Q4) Which of the following is most likely the result of a neutral mutation?
A) fingerprint patterns
B) larger brains
C) standing upright
D) digestion of cellulose
E) fur
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following diseases are there vaccines that provide protection against the disease?
A) measles
B) mumps
C) rubella
D) chicken pox
E) all of these
Q2) Archaea
A) have cell walls composed of cellulose.
B) reproduce primarily sexually.
C) have a single chromosome.
D) are eukaryotes.
E) have ribosomes.
Q3) The pathway on the left is named for what is happening in the figure labeled with letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason angiosperms are more successful than gymnosperms is because gymnosperms lack ___.
A) seeds
B) megaspores
C) fruits
D) true leaves
E) wood
Q2) In what part or parts of the plant life cycle does mitosis NOT take place?
A) from zygote to sporophyte
B) from spore to gametophyte
C) from gametophyte to gamete
D) from sporophyte to spores
E) Mitosis takes place in all of these parts of the life cycle.
Q3) Which of the following plants are capable of secondary growth?
A) ferns
B) horsetails
C) club mosses
D) conifers
E) liverworts
Q4) sporophyte is the dominant part of the life cycle
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Horseshoe crabs have lived in the earth's oceans for ___ years.
A) about 4 thousand
B) close to 400 thousand
C) less than 40 million
D) over 400 million
E) over 4 billion
Q2) Which of the following is NOT among the events that may have led to the explosion of animal diversity 542 - 488 million years ago?
A) increase in oceanic carbon dioxide concentrations
B) decreased gene flow caused by the breakup of the supercontinents
C) evolution of predation
D) mutations in homeotic genes
E) all of these are among the events that led to the explosion of animal diversity 542488 million years ago
Q3) the last population of this species went extinct 28,000 years ago
Q4) had apelike forearms but fingers like modern humans
Q5) characteristic shared by all animals
Q6) Members of this class have flexible skeletons but also possess jaws.
Q7) first opening of the embryo becomes a mouth,and the second becomes an anus.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species does NOT fit in the type III survivorship curve?
A) bees
B) humans
C) salamanders
D) snakes
E) goldfish
Q2) In India,in which age structure category are the least number of individuals?
A) pre-reproductive
B) early reproductive
C) late reproductive
D) early post-reproductive
E) late post-reproductive
Q3) An epidemic facilitated by a high,dense population is an example of a ___ factor.
A) density-dependent
B) density-independent
C) biotic
D) logistic
E) exponential
Q4) Pandemics are examples of this
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five answers listed below are heterotrophic.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) consumers
B) carnivores
C) herbivores
D) parasites
E) producers
Q2) Legumes like beans and peas live in association with bacteria that can fix nitrogen.The nitrogen from the bacteria is shared with the legume and the bacteria receive carbohydrates from the plant.
Q3) An array of organisms together with their physical environment is which of the following?
A) population
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) biosphere
E) landscape
Q4) Lichens and mosses live on the branches of trees and are benefited by being up and out of the shade where they can do more photosynthesis.The tree is unharmed by their presence.
Q5) second-level consumer
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Much of the Pacific Northwest's species rich Old Growth Forests have been clear cut.The only possible way to reclaim those forests that have been clear cut is through A) biological magnification.
B) establishing the clear cut areas as hot spots.
C) ecological restoration.
D) promoting sustainability.
E) reducing our ecological footprint.
Q2) Which way do ocean currents circulate in the Northern Hemisphere?
A) counterclockwise
B) clockwise
C) both clockwise and counterclockwise
D) neither clockwise and counterclockwise
E) none of these
Q3) Which biome is generally found between the polar ice cap and boreal forests?
A) desert
B) taiga
C) grassland
D) estuary
E) tundra
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) tissue that makes up deep skin layers
Q2) the outermost layer of skin
Q3) Which tissue type contains gland cells?
A) connective
B) muscular C) epithelial
D) neural
E) more than one of these
Q4) contains parallel arrays of muscle fibers
Q5) A decrease in body temperature to ___ degrees Celsius or below alters brain function.
A) 39
B) 38
C) 37
D) 36
E) 35
Q6) tissue that connects to bones and allows for body movements
Q7) __________ muscle will cause your pupil to __________ when you enter a brightly lit room.
Q8) tissue that forms a padding between joints
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Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) the protein to which ATP attaches
Q2) Skeletal muscles make up approximately ____% of the body weight of a young man of average fitness.
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
E) 40
Q3) Which of the following is NOT found in compact bone?
A) concentric layers of extracellular matrix
B) blood and nerve canals
C) yellow marrow
D) red marrow
E) all of these are found in compact bone
Q4) What vitamin helps reduce the risk of osteoporosis?
A) A
B) B12
C) C
D) D
E) E
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure labeled "B" is the
A) right ventricle.
B) right atrium.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) superior vena cava.
Q2) In this disease there is a buildup of lipids in arterial walls that forms a plaque that narrows the space inside the artery.This disease is
A) atherosclerosis.
B) hemophilia.
C) hypertension.
D) sickle-cell anemia.
E) more than one of these.
Q3) Pulmonary veins carry
A) oxygen-rich blood.
B) oxygen-poor blood.
C) blood back to the heart.
D) blood from the heart.
E) a combination of two of these.
Q4) structure not found in the human respiratory system
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five choices below are characteristics of adaptive immunity.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) self/non-self recognition
B) specificity
C) diversity
D) fever
E) memory
Q2) PAMPs,complement proteins,and phagocytes are a part of ___ immunity.
A) adaptive
B) innate
C) antibody-mediated
D) cell-mediated
E) all of these kinds of
Q3) If a person is incapable of making effector helper T cells,what will be the result?
A) Memory B cells will not be produced.
B) Effector B cells will not be produced.
C) Memory T cells will not be produced.
D) Complement cascade will not occur.
E) Both a and b will result
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess energy is stored in ___ mainly in ___.
A) chemical bonds---adipose tissue
B) chemical bonds---carbohydrates
C) carbon atoms---adipose tissue
D) carbon atoms---carbohydrates
E) hydrogen bonds---water
Q2) Which of the following is true of bulimia nervosa?
A) it is most common among young women
B) those with this disorder have pitted and brittle teeth
C) those with this disorder are more susceptible to esophageal cancer
D) those with this disorder are more susceptible to heart arrhythmia and convulsions
E) all of these are true of bulimia nervosa
Q3) Referring to the above diagram,F represents which of the following structures?
A) stomach
B) liver
C) pancreas
D) gallbladder
E) small intestine
Q4) the process that occurs first in urine formation
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to the above diagram,the letter "D" is used to label
A) the dendrites.
B) the cell body.
C) the neuroglia.
D) the axon.
E) none of these.
Q2) An action potential begins when
A) sodium channels open.
B) potassium channels open.
C) both sodium and potassium channels open.
D) sodium channels close.
E) both sodium and potassium channels close.
Q3) Alzheimer's disease involves damage to brain neurons that release A) acetylcholine.
B) dopamine.
C) norephinephrine.
D) serotonin.
E) an endorphin.
Q4) damage to brain neurons that release this neurotransmitter causes Alzheimer's disease
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) thymus gland
Q2) In the United States,most thyroid disorders are caused by A) iodine deficiency.
B) iron deficiency.
C) an autoimmune disorder.
D) insecticides.
E) a combination of more than one of these.
Q3) Addison's disease
Q4) Which choice is FALSE about Addison's disease?
A) It could be caused by low cortisol levels.
B) It could be caused by tuberculosis.
C) It could be caused by an autoimmune condition.
D) Blood pressure and blood sugar levels can fall into life-threatening range.
E) The condition is treated with synthetic aldosterone.
Q5) pineal gland
Q6) This gland controls biological rhythms.
Q7) cAMP
Q8) insulin
Q9) produces cortisol
Q10) The organs at letter _____ produce hormones and eggs Page 28
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures becomes part of the placenta?
A) chorion
B) amnion
C) blastocoel
D) yolk sac
E) more than one of these becomes part of the placenta
Q2) Four of the five answers listed below are produced by the same germ layer.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) nervous system
B) muscle system
C) circulatory system
D) reproductive system
E) excretory system
Q3) Sperm mature in the
A) epididymus.
B) seminal vesicles.
C) vas deferens.
D) prostate gland.
E) bulbourethral gland.
Q4) a surge of this hormone triggers ovulation
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The source region in the pressure flow explanation of phloem transport is most often the
A) root.
B) flower.
C) stem.
D) leaf.
E) soil.
Q2) What do the bacteria living in root nodules supply to their host plant?
A) nitrogen
B) phosphorous
C) oxygen
D) sugars
E) more than one of these
Q3) In secondary growth of a plant,a(an)___ gives rise to ___ and a(an)___ gives rise to ___.
A) vascular cambium-wood/ cork cambium-periderm
B) cork cambium-wood/apical meristem-periderm
C) apical meristem-wood/apical meristem-periderm
D) vascular cambium-periderm/cork cambium-wood
E) vascular cambium-wood/apical meristem-periderm
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In plant reproduction,how many eggs form as a result of meiosis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q2) In a flower,the mature male gametophyte is a(an)
A) pollen grain.
B) germinated pollen grain.
C) ovule.
D) microspore.
E) sperm cell.
Q3) Why is colony collapse disorder (CCD)a problem for all of us?
A) the pathogen responsible for CCD can infect multiple hosts
B) the decline in honey production could cause our economy to collapse
C) bees are the main pollinators of about half of our agricultural crops
D) actually, it's not-- there are other pollinators that can take over for the bees
E) more than one of these (a through c) is a problem for all of us
Q4) inhibits seed germination
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