

Fundamentals of Biology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology introduces students to the foundational principles of biological science, encompassing the structure and function of cells, basic genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through integrated lectures and laboratory activities, the course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and real-world applications in understanding living organisms, their interactions, and the processes that sustain life on Earth. This course is designed to provide a broad understanding necessary for advanced study in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Biology Now Core 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) David Blehert and his research team captured 117 healthy bats to study in the laboratory and divided them into 4 groups.Group 1 was housed in an area free from Geomyces destructans.Group 2 was housed in an area that shared the same air as bats infected with WNS,but they did not have direct contact with the infected bats.Group 3 was housed in direct contact with other bats infected with WNS.Group 4 was directly exposed to Geomyces destructans when it was applied to their wings.During the study period the bats were monitored for signs of WNS.What is the specific hypothesis being tested by the inclusion of group 4 in this experiment?
A)Geomyces destructans causes WNS,and it can be transmitted through the air.
B)Geomyces destructans causes WNS,and it is only transmitted by direct contact with other infected bats.
C)Geomyces destructans causes WNS,and it can be transmitted by direct contact with the fungus;no contact with infected bats is needed for transmission of the fungus.
D)Group 4 is the control.
Answer: C
Q2) The first two steps of the scientific process typically include making ________ and forming a ________.
Answer: observations;hypothesis
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) form the major framework of biological membranes
A)lipids
B)carbohydrates
C)nucleic acids
D)proteins
Answer: A
Q2) A carwash attendant offers to treat your windshield with a protective agent.This substance coats the glass,causing beads of water to easily roll off during a rain shower.Which of the following must be correct about the protective agent?
A)It resists temperature changes well.
B)It must be an acid.
C)It is a polar substance.
D)It must be hydrophobic.
Answer: D
Q3) exhibit various levels of structure
A)lipids
B)carbohydrates
C)nucleic acids
D)proteins
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Sample Questions
Q1) ribosomes
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Answer: G
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts?
A)They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell.
B)They capture energy from sunlight.
C)They give an animal cell its shape.
D)They contain an entire copy of a cell's genetic material.
Answer: B
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Page 5

Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Q1) A mutation in a plant cell produces rubisco enzymes,which can only bind O (and not CO ).What would be the outcome of this mutation?
Q2) Some kinds of drain cleaners use enzymes rather than strong,more dangerous chemicals.These enzymes must be able to
A)catalyze a catabolic reaction.
B)raise the energy of the reaction that clears the clog.
C)create energy that can be used to break up the clog.
D)catalyze an anabolic reaction.
Q3) The sequential reaction pathway A B C D is dependent on enzymes for each separate step.The enzyme which has "C" as a substrate becomes nonfunctional.Explain how this affects the metabolic pathway shown.
Q4) A chemical reaction that uses ATP to build cellular components is A)catabolic.
B)anabolic.
C)photosynthetic.
D)respiration.
Q5) A cell is found that is able to use sunlight to produce ATP,but it does not produce NADPH.The portion of the light reaction that is not functioning is ________.
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) S phase
A)Duplicated chromosomes are separated during this phase.
B)Cells prepare to divide and check that the proper steps have occurred for division.
C)Phase in which cells duplicate the genetic material.
D)Resting stage assumed by cells that exit the cell cycle.
E)Two new daughter cells grow in preparation for division.
Q2) Which of the following foods is most likely to contain haploid cells?
A)a sirloin steak
B)an apple
C)a stalk of celery
D)an egg
Q3) Homologous chromosomes
A)are only found in bacterial cells.
B)are only in the cell during S phase.
C)consist of a maternal and paternal copy of each chromosome.
D)consist of six sister chromatids that are held together at the centrosome.
Q4) A cell has completed S phase and is preparing to divide via mitosis.How is the genetic material arranged in G phase?
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) In which of the following situations would it become nearly impossible to predict the phenotype of an individual with a known genotype?
A)The environment affects the phenotype.
B)The genotype of the parents is unknown.
C)The genotype of offspring is unknown.
D)You should always be able to predict the phenotype if you know the genotype.
Q2) Which of the following is the mechanism described by Mendel that results in a new combination of alleles in a pea plant seed?
A)the mutation of multiple alleles during mitosis
B)the mutation of multiple alleles during meiosis
C)the separation of alleles for two different genes during meiosis
D)the separation of alleles for a single gene during meiosis
Q3) Which of the following might explain how two separate genes control a single trait?
A)Both genes have the same alleles.
B)One gene functions better at higher temperatures.
C)There are two genes to control two separate steps in a pathway.
D)Two genes cannot control a single trait.
Q4) The genetic makeup of an organism,such as Gg,is its ________.
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Page 8

Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following genotypes represents a human male?
A)XY
B)YY
C)XX
D)XO
Q2) Would a karyotype for a human male be considered normal if it shows 45 autosomes and a single pair of sex chromosomes? Explain your reasoning.
Q3) A person is genetically XX and develops as a male.How can this be explained?
A)In humans,males are XX.
B)An error in karyotyping this individual must have occurred because XX individuals cannot develop into a male.
C)A piece of a Y chromosome has become attached to one of the X chromosomes.
D)The SRY gene was deleted in this individual.
Q4) If an individual has two alleles at a given locus that are different,the individual is said to be ________ for the gene.
Q5) A man with a translocation in a chromosome that does not affect gene function may not realize he has a translocation until he attempts to have a child.Explain how a translocation that does not affect the individual may become problematic during reproduction.
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Q1) When studying genomes of organisms,scientists often will only list the sequence of a single strand.Explain why the sequence of the second strand would be unnecessary information.
Q2) A mutation is due to the addition of two bases in a strand of DNA.This is called a(n)________.
Q3) Animal genes are not turned on and off as one unit because they are not ________.
Q4) Which of the following is not a base found in DNA?
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)guanine
D)uracil
Q5) A strand of DNA has the sequence GCAATTCG.The sequence of the complementary strand is ________.
Q6) Most eukaryotic DNA is
A)single-stranded.
B)noncoding.
C)regulatory sequences.
D)prokaryotic.
Q7) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Q1) Which of the following is true about gene regulation in cells?
A)Gene expression is nonvariable for cells;it is the same for all cells of the same type.
B)Gene expression is highly variable;it changes for many different reasons throughout the life of a cell.
C)Gene expression is set by internal factors early in the life cycle of a cell and remains the same from that point forward.
D)Gene expression is set by external factors early in the life cycle of a cell and remains the same from that point forward.
Q2) The importance of tRNA is that it
A)carries a specific amino acid to the mRNA.
B)reads the DNA molecule.
C)contains codons that specify amino acids.
D)is important in the construction of ribosomes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the genetic code?
A)Every individual has a different genetic code.
B)Each codon in the genetic code specifies only one amino acid.
C)The genetic code is redundant.
D)The same genetic code can be applied to virtually every organism on Earth.
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The human and chimpanzee insulin genes are 98 percent similar.
A)comparative embryology
B)fossil evidence
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative DNA
E)biogeographic evidence
Q2) Dolphins develop hind limb buds,but these structures disappear before adulthood.
A)comparative embryology
B)fossil evidence
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative DNA
E)biogeographic evidence
Q3) Continental drift is the ________ of Earth's landmasses through geologic time.
Q4) Bats have the same forelimb bones as humans,but the size of these bones is different.
A)comparative embryology
B)fossil evidence
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative DNA
E)biogeographic evidence

Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convergent evolution produces
A)genetic drift.
B)lines of common descent.
C)homologous characteristics.
D)analogous characteristics.
Q2) New alleles arise by
A)nonrandom mating.
B)allele frequency.
C)genetic drift.
D)mutation.
Q3) Convergent evolution occurs when natural selection causes distantly related organisms to
A)evolve into the same species despite the fact that they are members of separate populations.
B)merge into one continuous population because of reversals in continental drift.
C)evolve both analogous and homologous characteristics.
D)evolve similar structures in response to similar environmental challenges.
Q4) A chance evolutionary change occurring in small populations is referred to as
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) A rainforest is a highly complex habitat with organisms living at various levels in the trees,on the ground,and underground.Is it possible to consider two populations of insects living in the same tree to be geographically isolated?
A)No,because if they are in the same tree,they are in the same geographic area.
B)No,because if they are in the same square acre,they cannot be considered geographically isolated.
C)Yes,because insects only undergo allopatric speciation,and there are many species of insects.
D)Yes,because there are so many habitats in one tree that the populations may never interact.
Q2) The red-breasted nuthatch and the white-breasted nuthatch are similar in appearance and,in many regions of the United States,their ranges overlap.The two organisms do not interbreed.Based on this information,red-breasted and white-breasted nuthatches are
A)different species.
B)different populations of the same species.
C)hybrids.
D)polyploids.
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Page 14

Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following events occurred between each branch on an evolutionary tree?
A)the evolution of a new derived feature
B)the loss of a derived feature
C)the evolution of a shared ancestral feature
D)the evolution of a convergent feature
Q2) Which of these kingdoms share a most recent,common ancestor?
A)Plantae and Fungi
B)Plantae and Animalia
C)Animalia and Protista
D)Animal and Fungi
Q3) Branches on the evolutionary tree are sometimes rearranged by scientists because
A)new,related fossils or new information about existing fossils changes the understanding of the relationships.
B)new,unrelated fossils are intentionally put on the tree with existing fossils.
C)scientists are trying to prove a nonexistent relationship between species.
D)scientists have definitely proven a relationship between two or more species.
Q4) Explain two ways that mass extinctions can have a profound impact on evolved biodiversity in the ecosystem.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Q1) Species
A)Homo
B)Primates
C)Chordata
D)Homo sapiens
E)Mammalia
F)Animalia
G)Hominidae
Q2) If evidence indicates that Homo erectus and Homo habilis used stone tools and may have been able to use fire,which of the following is also likely?
A)Homo heidelbergensis and Homo neanderthalensis also used stone tools and probably used fire.
B)Orrorin tugenensis and Ardipithecus kadabba not only used stone tools,they also made fire.
C)Australopithecus anamensis and Australopithecus afarensis definitely used stone tools and could make fire.
D)Sahalenthropus tchadensis and Ardipithecus ramidus used stone tools and could make fire.
Q3) Briefly explain the difference between hominids and hominins.
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Page 16

Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) The term ________ describes the process of water released to the atmosphere from plants.
Q2) Describe how a decrease in plant populations can affect the water cycle.
Q3) Ecologists study
A)only biotic factors.
B)only abiotic factors.
C)both biotic and abiotic factors.
D)neither biotic nor abiotic factors.
Q4) The single most significant human-caused contribution (about 75 percent)to the worldwide increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide is
A)acid rain and the subsequent chemical reactions that release carbon dioxide from the soil.
B)nitrogen supplements that accelerate decompositional activity and recycle carbon before it can become sequestered in the soil.
C)the burning of fossil fuels and the subsequent emission of carbon dioxide.
D)deforestation and the subsequent decline in photosynthesis.
Q5) Scientists predict that current increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations will cause temperatures on Earth to rise,a phenomenon known as ________.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Nene,Hawaiian geese,live on Maui.Their population density is approximately 0.2 per square kilometer and Maui is approximately 1,800 square kilometers in size.Approximately how many nene live on Maui?
A)18
B)130
C)360
D)1,800
Q2) Which of the following has been amplified by China's one-child policy?
A)an unbalanced age ratio with a growing population of younger people and a shrinking elderly population
B)an increase in the number of primary-school students in rural areas of China
C)a larger proportion of males compared to the proportion of females born in China annually
D)an increase in the number of children born annually to couples in which one parent is an only child
Q3) China's one-child policy was designed to reduce the population ________ in China.
Q4) Describe one negative consequence that has been linked to China's one-child policy,and explain how this consequence is impacting China.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Which example best illustrates interference competition?
A)Soil levels of potassium are gradually reduced by the hemlocks and cedars in a climax forest.
B)The growth of starling populations usually coincides with declines in songbirds because both use abandoned cavities for nesting.
C)When larger animals become scarce,wolves often prey on mice,reducing their availability to coyotes.
D)Rough-skinned newts contain enough toxin in their skin glands to kill almost any predator.
Q2) Clown fish have evolved to live safely between the stinging tentacles of certain sea anemones.The fish receive protection from predators,whereas anemone receive some food from the fish.This relationship is an example of A)commensalism.
B)consumer interaction.
C)competitive limitation.
D)mutualism.
Q3) ________ consumers feed on primary consumers as part or all of their diet.
Q4) A(n)________ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q5) Compare and contrast exploitative and interference competition.
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Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) This biome is dominated by trees and shrubs adapted to relatively rich soil,snowy winters,and moist,warm summers.With oak,maple,hickory,beech,and elm,this biome displays good diversity.Squirrels,rabbits,deer,raccoons,beavers,bobcats,mountain lions,bears,and many amphibians and reptiles constitute the consumer community.
A)tropical forest
B)chaparral
C)boreal forest
D)tundra
E)desert
F)temperate deciduous forest
G)grassland
Q2) Describe how chemical nutrients enter and are recycled through an ecosystem.
Q3) If there are 50 kcal of energy in the tertiary consumer trophic level,how many kcal would you expect to find in the primary consumer level?
A)50
B)100
C)500
D)5,000
Q4) Explain why ecosystems do not always have sharply defined physical boundaries.
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Chapter 19: Applying the Science
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Q1) Sue has twin baby boys and is trying to decide whether or not to have them vaccinated against chickenpox or to take them to a "chickenpox party" where they can be naturally exposed to other children who currently have chickenpox.Which of the following would NOT be a relevant question for Sue to research before making her decision?
A)Are there any scientific studies of observable and quantifiable claims regarding the chickenpox vaccine and/or chickenpox parties?
B)Do any relevant studies make testable and falsifiable predictions related to a clearly stated hypothesis?
C)Are the relevant studies well designed and described with large sample sizes,minimization of bias,and have the results been reproducible?
D)Are there lots of parents on the Internet endorsing the chickenpox parties?
Q2) The Proceedings of the 15 Annual Meeting of the Society for Integrative and Comparative Biology,a publication of peer-reviewed presentations at a professional meeting
A)primary
B)secondary
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