Fundamentals of Biology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology is an introductory course that explores the core principles of biological science, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will gain an understanding of the molecular and cellular basis of life, the mechanisms of inheritance, and the interrelationships between organisms and their environments. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental design, and the application of biological concepts to real-world issues, providing a solid foundation for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the study of biology central to the understanding and solving of the world's great environmental problems?
Answer: When people do not have knowledge of biology,they do not understand the needs of organisms or the interactions that occur within ecosystems.Without an understanding of the basics of biology,people cannot hope to understand and solve the world's environmental problems.
Q2) Why is it impossible for supernatural,religious,and unexplained phenomena to be explained by biology?
Answer: Biology,and all sciences,are based on the scientific process,which cannot be applied to supernatural,religious,and unexplained phenomena.Science examines and tests evidence;these areas have no tangible evidence for testing.
Q3) The most inclusive group in taxonomy is a:
A) population
B) domain
C) kingdom
D) species
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is acid rain and how does it affect forests and lakes?
Answer: Will vary,but should include the emissions of coal-burning power plants and the effect of sulfuric acid on the pH of rain and snow.Also,answers should include acid rain's effect on biodiversity,forests,and lakes.
Q2) Nonpolar compounds are said to be _________________ because they shrink away from contact with water.
Answer: hydrophobic
Q3) Water moving up into a paper towel is attributable to:
A) heat storage
B) high heat of vaporization
C) electronegativity
D) cohesion
E) adhesion
Answer: E
Q4) Discuss the difference between covalent,ionic and hydrogen bonds.
Answer: Covalent bonds involve sharing electrons between atoms.Ionic bonds occur when oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other.Hydrogen bonds occur when polar molecules are attracted by opposite partial charges on different molecules.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) There are no bonds connecting the chains.
Answer: C
Q2) Fatty acids that contain the maximum number of hydrogen atoms possible are said to be:
A) polyunsaturated
B) monounsaturated
C) saturated
D) phospholipids
Answer: C
Q3) Denaturation of proteins is always a reversible process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Many mammals supply energy to their young in the form of __________.
Answer: lactose
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) The passive movement of molecules along a concentration gradient is called
Q2) In the sodium-potassium pump,sugars and amino acids,or other molecules,are brought through the membrane along with sodium ions through:
A) coupled channels
B) chemiosmosis
C) proton pumps
D) receptor proteins
Q3) Which is incorrect about the plasma membrane?
A) It has a hydrophobic interior and hydrophilic region that faces water.
B) Cholesterol affects the fluid nature of the membrane.
C) Proteins embedded in the lipid bilayer do not move.
D) Transmembrane proteins span the membrane.
E) It surrounds all living cells.
Q4) An extracellular matrix is produced by glycoprotein secretion by:
A) fungal cells
B) bacterial cells
C) plant cells
D) animal cells
Q5) A semi-fluid matrix called ____________ fills the inside of a cell.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy flows into the biological world from the:
A) oceans
B) plants
C) sun
D) volcanoes
E) large animals
Q2) A measure of the degree of disorder in a system is called __________.
Q3) Explain the components of an ATP molecule.
Q4) Chemical reactions that release energy are called ______ reactions.
A) exergonic
B) endergonic
C) catalysis
D) catalytic
Q5) Enzymes are catalysts because they operate to:
A) lower activation energy
B) raise activation energy
C) supply activation energy
D) supply the reactants
Q6) Do all cells contain the same enzymes? Support your answer.
Q7) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wavelength of light is the shortest?
A) gamma rays
B) X-rays
C) UV light
D) visible light
E) infrared
Q2) How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration intimately related?
Q3) The most abundant protein on earth is:
A) cellulose
B) rubisco
C) ATPase
D) NADPH
E) chlorophyll
Q4) How many turns of the Calvin cycle are needed to make one glucose molecule?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Q5) Explain the role that water plays in the light-dependent reactions.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) Electrons generated from the Krebs cycle go next to the:
A) fermentation pathway
B) formation of alcohol
C) electron transport chain
D) fluid portion of the mitochondrion
Q2) During fermentation,_______ is recycled by transferring its electrons to a molecule other than oxygen.
Q3) When ATP is made during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle,it is by:
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) substrate-level phosphorylation
C) photophosphorylation
D) chemiosmosis
E) ATPase
Q4) In the process of glycolysis,glucose is cleaved into a pair of three-carbon ________ molecules.
A) lactate
B) acetyl CoA
C) pyruvate
D) oxaloacetate
E) alcohol
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause cancer?
A) UV rays
B) Viruses
C) Chemicals
D) Environmental contaminants
E) All of the choices can cause cancer.
Q2) The proper sequence,beginning to end,for the stages of mitosis is:
A) prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
B) telophase-anaphase-metaphase-prophase
C) anaphase-prophase-metaphase-telophase
D) prophase-anaphase-metaphase-telophase
Q3) What cell cycle regulatory protein is a tumor-suppressor protein?
A) E2F
B) EGF
C) p53
D) HER2
Q4) How are cancer cells different from normal cells?
Q5) Genes known as _________ encode proteins that stimulate cell division.
Q6) A ______________ is a long DNA molecule that contains genes and has proteins to help it retain its shape.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) In humans,_____________ divide by meiosis to produce eggs and sperm.
A) somatic cells
B) gametes
C) zygotes
D) germ-line cells
E) triploid
Q2) In humans,gametes are _______,while somatic cells are ________.
A) diploid,diploid
B) haploid,diploid
C) haploid,haploid
D) haploid,triploid
E) triploid,haploid
Q3) When does separation of homologous chromosomes occur?
A) Prophase I
B) Anaphase I
C) Interphase
D) Anaphase II
Q4) In most respects,the second meiotic division is identical to a normal _________ division.
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of crossing over?
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) Genes for sex-linked traits tend to be carried on what chromosomes?
A) Chromosome 21
B) Any of the autosomes
C) Y chromosomes
D) X chromosomes
E) Chromosome 13
Q2) Which procedure is the least-invasive method of assessing fetal health while development is still occurring?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Chorionic villus sampling
C) Ultrasound
D) Karyotyping
Q3) The ability to taste PTC is a dominant trait.If a heterozygote woman has a child with a man who is not a taster,what is the chance their child will be a taster?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
E) 0%
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) The Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that RNA,not protein,is the hereditary material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Once a mistake is made in DNA it will stay there forever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In DNA,the amount of adenine always equals the amount of thymine,and the amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An unexpected change in a cell's genetic makeup is called a ____________.
Q5) When Frederick Griffith infected mice with S.pneumoniae that lacked a capsule,the mice:
A) remained healthy
B) died of blood poisoning
C) became ill but lived
D) reproduced quicker
Q6) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Q1) How many different codons are possible with the four different nucleotides?
A) 12
B) 24
C) 55
D) 64
E) 128
Q2) Which site on the ribosome does the new tRNA bring an amino acid to?
A) A
B) P
C) E
D) C
Q3) The mRNA has a three-nucleotide sequence called a(n)_________,while the molecule transporting the amino acid has a complementary sequence called a(n)_______________.
A) anticodon,codon
B) triplet code,stop codon
C) base,complementary base
D) codon,anticodon
Q4) The genetic code is a ____________ code.
Q5) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Q1) Groups of related but distinctly different genes that occur together in clusters are called:
A) tandem clusters
B) segmental duplications
C) single-copy genes
D) multigene families
Q2) Adult stem cells offer an alternative to embryonic stem cells,however they:
A) are difficult to identify
B) have insufficient DNA
C) do not live long enough
D) will not join easily with a vector
Q3) In 1977,_____________ was the first researcher to sequence a genome.
Q4) A cell is called __________ if it has the ability to form any body tissue or even an adult animal.
Q5) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA transcripts as there are genes in the human genome?
Q6) A _______ is a tiny circle of bacterial DNA that is capable of replicating outside of the main bacterial chromosome.
Q7) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) What does the fossil record tell us?
Q2) The notion that organisms that are more distantly related should have time to accumulate more biochemical differences than those more closely related can best be illustrated using:
A) radioactive isotope dating
B) gel electrophoresis
C) a geologic time scale
D) a molecular clock
Q3) __________________ isolating mechanisms include improper development of hybrids and failure of hybrids to become established in nature.
Q4) The purpose of the voyage of the HMS Beagle was to:
A) discover new routes to the New World
B) survey the living creatures on islands only
C) map navigational routes around the coasts of South America
D) search for gold
Q5) The bones of vertebrate forelimbs are similar because of descent from a common ancestor.These forelimbs can be called __________________ structures.
Q6) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.
Q7) Bats,pterosaurs,and birds are examples of _________ evolution.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Q1) Which of the following is correct about the evolutionary relationships among the three domains?
A) Archaea and bacteria are more closely related to each other than to eukaryotes.
B) Eukaryotes and bacteria are more closely related to each other than to archaea.
C) Archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than to bacteria.
D) They are equally distant from each other.
Q2) A cladogram grouped birds with reptiles because the bird characteristic of ____________ was not emphasized.
Q3) The most objective way to construct a phylogeny is to focus on characters:
A) that are large in size
B) that confer adaptedness to a particular habitat
C) inherited from a common ancestor
D) acquired during an organism's lifetime
Q4) What is one advantage to using cladistics rather than phylogenetic systematics?
Q5) Biologists currently recognize ______ different kingdoms.
Q6) What does it mean to have a hierarchical system of classification?
Q7) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) Once they evolved,the _____________ forever changed the atmosphere on Earth.
A) bacteria
B) cyanobacteria
C) land plants
D) protists
Q2) Lysogenic conversion is responsible for all the following diseases except:
A) scarlet fever
B) plague
C) botulism
D) cholera
E) diphtheria
Q3) The HIV enzyme,________________ manufactures a DNA copy of the virus once it is inside a human cell.
A) DNA polymerase
B) helicase
C) forward transcriptase
D) reverse transcriptase
Q4) In __________________,atmospheric nitrogen is converted to a more usable form.
Q5) ____________________ is a disease of the respiratory tract caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) A(n)__________ is a transient collection of individuals that come together for a time.
Q2) Which organism is the most photosynthetically productive living organism that forms underwater forests over 100 meters long?
A) Golden algae
B) Brown algae
C) Green algae
D) Red algae
E) Diatoms
Q3) Which group is believed to be ancestral to the plants?
A) Green algae
B) Brown algae
C) Red algae
D) Diatoms
Q4) Unicellular,photosynthetic protists with two flagella of unequal length belong to this group.
A) Foraminifera
B) Dinoflagellates
C) Choanoflagellates
D) Euglenoids
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) There are _______________ species found in the basidiomycetes.
Q2) A mass of fungal hyphae is called a:
A) plant body
B) mycelium
C) gametophyte
D) sporophyte
Q3) The process by which a single cell differentiates into a specialized multicellular organism is:
A) development
B) heredity
C) multicellularity
D) coordination
Q4) Which kind of reproductive structure is NOT found within the fungi?
A) gametangia
B) sporangia
C) conidia
D) anthers
Q5) Puffballs and shelf fungi belong to the ________________.
Q6) What are some of the unique features of the fungi that lead us to believe they are not closely related to any other group of organisms?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) Which is incorrect about deuterostomes?
A) The commitment of embryonic cells to prescribed developmental pathways occurs later than in protostomes.
B) The blastopore becomes the animal's anus.
C) The archenteron outpockets to form coelom.
D) They are derived from the protostomes.
E) Embryonic cells cleave in a spiral pattern.
Q2) Animals in which the anus develops before the mouth in the embryo are:
A) coelomic
B) protostomes
C) deuterostomes
D) coelenterates
Q3) Of the mollusks,octopuses are in the class of:
A) gastropods
B) bivalves
C) cephalopods
D) deuterostomes
Q4) Chordates are characterized by having a ________________,a dorsal,flexible supportive rod.
Q5) A ____________________ is an example of a cnidarian.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) The first reptiles were the sail-toting:
A) pelycosaurs
B) thecodonts
C) therapsids
D) dinosaurs
Q2) Mammals and dinosaurs did not live during the same time periods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All mammals have three middle-ear bones which evolved from:
A) bones in the reptile jaw
B) jaws of fishes
C) wing bones of birds
D) cartilage of shark skeletons
Q4) What were the three major invasions of living creatures on land?
Q5) Bony fishes possess a lateral line system to:
A) regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood
B) cleanse the blood from toxins
C) detect changes in water pressure
D) store urine until excreted
E) regulate their buoyancy
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) What trait is exhibited only in Homo sapiens and not in other primates in existence today?
A) Opposable thumb
B) Symbolic language
C) Bipedalism
D) Tool use
Q2) The living apes consist of the gibbon,the orangutan,and:
A) golden lion tamarin
B) gorilla and chimpanzee
C) gibbons and prosimians
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) The hallmark characteristic of the hominids leading to humans was the development of:
A) a varied diet
B) bipedalism
C) the ability to care for young
D) an opposable thumb
Q4) Homo sapiens are the sole surviving hominid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Columnar epithelium is found lining the:
A) stomach
B) mouth
C) glands
D) capillary walls
Q2) The type of cleavage seen in deuterostomes is called _____________ cleavage.
Q3) The fluid portion of blood is called __________.
Q4) Walking and lifting objects all require this type of muscle.
A) Smooth
B) Cardiac
C) Skeletal
Q5) The _______________ molecule hides the myosin-binding site on the actin when muscles are not contracting.
A) calcium
B) ATP
C) neurotransmitter
D) tropomyosin
Q6) Explain how calcium is needed for muscle contraction.
Q7) Another name for red blood cells is ___________________.
Q8) Describe the nature and function of connective tissues.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
Q2) The function of lacteals is to:
A) carry dead blood cells back to the spleen for destruction
B) absorb fat from the digestive tract
C) ensure that blood does not flow backwards
D) regulate blood pressure
E) regulate the heart beat
Q3) How does the structure of lymphatic capillaries differ from that of capillaries of the circulatory system?
Q4) ________________ is caused by an interference with the blood supply to the brain.
A) Angina pectoris
B) A stroke
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q5) _________________ are the blood cells that carry oxygen throughout the body.
A) Erythrocytes
B) Leukocytes
C) Thrombocytes
D) Platelets
25
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) During inhalation,air flows into the lungs because:
A) air pressure is greater outside the body than in the lungs and naturally flows inside once the chest has expanded
B) the strong chest muscles are sucking in air
C) air moves passively in and out of the lungs through time
D) the surfactant in the lungs "draws" in air because of its adhesive properties
Q2) Crosscurrent flow is more efficient than countercurrent flow of air.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which animal does air flow through the lungs in one direction only?
A) Lizard
B) Elephant
C) Fly
D) Hummingbird
E) Alligator
Q4) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
Q5) Fish possess a single lung.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) All mammals rely on intestinal bacteria to synthesize _________.
A) some amino acids
B) vitamin K
C) vitamin D
D) calcium
E) bile
Q2) Most digestion and the major site of absorption is in the:
A) cecum
B) colon
C) small intestine
D) large intestine
Q3) Microvilli are present to increase the area available for absorption in the:
A) small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D) gallbladder
Q4) It is possible to determine the nature of an animal diet just by looking at the teeth of the animal.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Reptiles,birds,and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of:
A) urea
B) ammonia
C) uric acid
D) urine
Q2) In flatworms,protonephridia branch throughout the body into bulblike
Q3) In mammals,uric acid is produced as a waste product of the degradation of:
A) proteins
B) purine nucleotides
C) polysaccharides
D) lipids
Q4) All vertebrates other than mammals are ectothermic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All of the following animals lack the enzyme uricase except:
A) tigers
B) dalmatian dogs
C) apes
D) humans
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) The virus that causes AIDS is the _______________ virus.
Q2) What immune response is present in vertebrates but absent in invertebrates?
A) Complement
B) Antibody-based humoral defense
C) Lymphocytes
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) The ________________ is the outermost layer of skin,consisting of dying,waterproof cells.
Q4) Which immunoglobulin is the first type to be made during the primary response to an antigen?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgA
E) IgE
Q5) Why does the body often respond to an infection with a fever?
Q6) During an infection,B cells divide to form ___________________ that will be ready for the next time the B cells encounter the same microbe.
Q7) Will there soon be a vaccine for the virus causing AIDS? Explain.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) Which is the only major phylum of animals that lack nerves?
A) Cnidarians
B) Nematodes
C) Platyhelminthes
D) Mollusks
E) Sponges
Q2) Which part of the brain regulates body temperature,blood pressure,respiration and heartbeat?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Hypothalamus
C) Amygdala
D) Occipital lobe
E) Cerebellum
Q3) _________ produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system,while _______ produce myelin in the central nervous system.
A) Dendrites;axons
B) Nodes of Ranvier;dendrites
C) Axons;oligodendrocytes
D) Schwann cells;oligodendrocytes
Q4) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Q1) There are _____ kinds of cone cells that allow us to see colors.
A) 3
B) 10
C) 200
D) 600
Q2) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.
A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye
B) optic nerve
C) fovea
D) parallax
Q3) All of the following animals use echolocation to locate objects except:
A) whales
B) bats
C) cats
D) shrews
E) dolphins
Q4) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the ___________.
Q5) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are anabolic steroid hormones so dangerous?
Q2) An absolute deficiency in beta cells of the pancreas results in:
A) type I diabetes
B) type II diabetes
C) pancreatitis
D) excessive calcium in the blood
Q3) Tumors of the pituitary gland can produce giants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All steroid hormones in the body are manufactured from ______________.
Q5) Excessive alcohol and caffeine consumption stimulate antidiuretic hormone and promote water retention.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the two adrenal medulla hormones that can be thought of as an extension of the sympathetic nervous system is:
A) ACTH
B) epinephrine
C) aldosterone
D) cortisol
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which animal is an induced ovulator?
A) Humans
B) Apes
C) Dogs
D) Rabbits
Q2) The lining of the uterus builds up,ready for the implantation of a zygote,when?
A) During the follicular phase
B) During ovulation
C) During the luteal phase
D) At any time
Q3) Most mammals,most cartilaginous fish,some amphibians,and a few reptiles have young developing within the female and obtaining nutrients from her blood,a relationship known as ________________.
Q4) The layer of cells called the endoderm in the developing embryo eventually gives rise to:
A) epidermis and nervous system
B) connective tissue and muscle
C) the lining of the gut and associated organs
D) hair and nails
Q5) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) The ______________________________ occurs when a gametophyte generation alternates with a sporophyte generation.
Q2) Why is the evolution of secondary growth important for plants?
Q3) All of the following are correct about dicots except:
A) they are likely the first angiosperms
B) they have leaves with netlike (reticulate)veins
C) they have flower parts in fours and fives
D) grasses are an example
E) oak trees are an example
Q4) All of the following are methods plants have evolved to help them conserve water EXCEPT for:
A) a waxy cuticle
B) stomata
C) spores
D) mycorrhizae
Q5) All of the following are parts of the carpel except:
A) ovary
B) style
C) stamen
D) stigma
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The movement of water up through a plant is a passive process that requires no energy expenditure by the plant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In plants with _______________,root hairs are less abundant because these fungal filaments take over their function for the plant.
A) lichens
B) branch roots
C) mycorrhizae
D) two pericycles
Q3) The major purpose for stems appears to be:
A) to serve as a framework for the positioning of leaves
B) to provide shelter for animals in a coevolutionary relationship
C) to provide protection of inner vascular tissue
D) to provide food for animals
Q4) The ___________ is a type of vascular tissue that conducts water.
Q5) How do plants regulate water loss?
Q6) The _______________ cambium gives rise to thick layers of secondary xylem and phloem.
35
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Give an example of a wind-pollinated plant._____________________
Q2) Male gametophytes are also known as _________________ and they develop into microspores.
A) embryo sac
B) megaspore
C) pollen grains
D) anthers
Q3) Within the embryo sac of the angiosperm,______ nuclei are arranged in precise positions.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Q4) All plants have both male and female reproductive structures together in the same individual flower.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The response of plants to touch is called _______________________.
Page 36
Q6) The first leaves that emerge from a seed are the _________________.
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the different kinds of interacting organisms living within a certain area make up a:
A) population
B) ecosystem
C) community
D) species
Q2) ______________ are the fundamental units of ecology.
Q3) A snake that has evolved to look similar to a branch will probably be able to avoid:
A) predation
B) parasitism
C) competition
D) mutualism
E) the sun's rays
Q4) A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is called ___________.
Q5) Choose the best definition of a community.
A) All of the organisms plus the nonliving habitat
B) Living organisms and soil
C) The dominant organisms in an area
D) All of the organisms in an area
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The community plus its habitat make up an ____________________.
Q2) Devise an example of a food chain with four links.
Q3) When the energy flow through an ecosystem is measured at each trophic level,__________ of the available energy passes from one level to the next.
A) 1% to 2%
B) 5% to 20%
C) 25% to 35%
D) 36% to 45%
E) 46% to 55%
Q4) Shallow,highly productive lakes with an abundance of algae are called:
A) oligotrophic lakes
B) thermally stratified
C) eutrophic lakes
D) dimictic lakes
Q5) Deserts that occur on the back sides of mountain ranges are due to an effect called a __________________.
Q6) Several food chains woven together comprise a ______________.
Q7) _______ is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperatures in the eastern Pacific.
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following can influence reproductive success?
A) How long the individual lives
B) How frequently it mates
C) How many offspring it produces per mating
D) The genetic makeup of the mate
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The simplest type of learning is called _____ learning.
A) associative
B) classical
C) nonassociative
D) operant
Q3) ________ is altering behavior as a result of previous experience.
Q4) If a scientist is conducting an observation on animal behavior,for example,how an animal's senses provide a physiological basis for that behavior,she would be asking about the:
A) ultimate causation
B) proximate causation
C) stereotyped causation
D) ethological causation
Q5) Long range two-way movement behavior in animals is termed ___________.
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) The wealthiest 20% of the world's population consumes _________% of its resources.
Q2) All of the following are taken into consideration when calculating ecological footprint except:
A) acreage for recreation
B) acreage for forest products
C) acreage for housing
D) acreage to absorb the carbon dioxide produced by burning fossil fuel
E) acreage for food production
Q3) To be a viable alternative,nuclear power facilities must have:
A) security
B) safe operation
C) proper waste disposal
D) All of these
Q4) Our environmental problems can be solved by:
A) proper assessment of the problem
B) public education
C) follow-through
D) All of these
Q5) Agricultural chemicals include such things as _________________.
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