Fundamentals of Biology Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the essential principles governing living organisms. This course explores fundamental topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will examine the molecular and biochemical processes that underlie biological systems, investigate the flow of energy within cells, and understand how organisms interact with one another and their environments. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method and experimental approaches to studying biology, preparing students for advanced study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Q1) How do we know that Figure A is an eukaryote?
A)It has no defined nucleus.
B)A membrane surrounds it completely.
C)Internal membrane-bound structures are visible.
D)It is larger than B.
E)It is not perfectly smooth.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A)ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems
B)near universality of the genetic code
C)structure of the nucleus
D)structure of cilia
E)structure of chloroplasts
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following do humans and roses have in common?
A)Both are multicellular.
B)Both lack a membrane-bound nucleus inside their cells.
C)Both are prokaryotic.
D)Humans and roses have nothing in common.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) Magnesium has an atomic number of 12.What is the most stable charge for a magnesium ion?
A)a +1 charge
B)a +2 charge
C)a -1 charge
D)a -2 charge
Answer: B
Q2) An atom with atomic number 12 would have what type of chemical behaviour in bonding with other elements?
A)It would form ions with a +1 charge.
B)It would form ions with a +2 charge.
C)It would form ions with a -1 charge.
D)It would form ions with a -2 charge.
E)It would form two covalent bonds with other atoms.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) Hydrogen bonding in water is a result of
A)the electronegativity of hydrogen atoms.
B)the electronegativity of oxygen creating partially positive hydrogen atoms.
C)the single electron in hydrogen, allowing for covalent bonds with other molecules.
D)the linear shape of the water molecule.
E)the ionic charge of water.
Answer: B
Q2) Assume that acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH 4.0.What is the hydroxyl ion concentration of this lake?
A)1 × 10 ¹ mol of hydroxyl ion per litre of lake water
B)1 × 10 mol of hydroxyl ion per litre of lake water
C)10.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion concentration
D)4)0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion concentration
E)1 × 10 mol of hydroxyl ion per litre of lake water and 4.0 M with regard to hydrogen ion concentration
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
A)ketone and methyl
B)carbonyl and amino
C)carboxyl and amino
D)amino and sulfhydryl
E)hydroxyl and carboxyl
Q2) Which of the groups above is a carboxyl functional group?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Which of the structures illustrated above is an impossible covalently bonded molecule?
A)A
B)B C)C
D)D
E)E
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ¹ N,which of these molecules will be labelled?
A)fatty acids only
B)nucleic acids only
C)proteins only
D)amylase only
E)both proteins and nucleic acids
Q2) If two molecules of the general type shown in the above figure were linked together,carbon-1 of one molecule to carbon-4 of the other,the single molecule that would result would be
A)maltose.
B)fructose.
C)glucose.
D)galactose.
E)sucrose.
Q3) Among these biological polymers,which has the least structural variety?
A)polysaccharides
B)proteins
C)DNA
D)RNA
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following makes it necessary for animal cells,although they have no cell walls,to have intercellular junctions?
A)Cell membranes do not distinguish the types of ions and molecules passing through them.
B)Large molecules, such as proteins and RNA molecules, do not readily get through one, much less two, adjacent cell membranes.
C)Cell-to-cell communication requires physical attachment of one cell to another.
D)Maintenance of tissue integrity and barriers to fluid leakage requires cells to adhere tightly to one another.
E)The relative shapelessness of animal cells requires a mechanism for keeping the cells aligned.
Q2) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A)lysosome
B)vacuole
C)mitochondrion
D)Golgi apparatus
E)peroxisome
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following processes requires energy?
A)diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)transport through channels
D)osmosis
E)pinocytosis
Q2) What will happen to a red blood cell (RBC),which has an internal ion concentration of about 0.9 percent,if it is placed into a beaker of pure water?
A)The cell would shrink because the water in the beaker is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the RBC.
B)The cell would shrink because the water in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the cytoplasm of the RBC.
C)The cell would swell because the water in the beaker is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the RBC.
D)The cell will remain the same size because the solution outside the cell is isotonic.
E)The cell will remain the same size because the solution outside the cell is hypotonic.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Biological evolution of life on Earth,from simple prokaryote-like cells to large,multicellular eukaryotic organisms
A)has occurred in accordance with the laws of thermodynamics.
B)has caused an increase in the entropy of the planet.
C)has been made possible by expending Earth's energy resources.
D)has occurred in accordance with the laws of thermodynamics, by expending Earth's energy resources and causing an increase in the entropy of the planet.
E)violates the laws of thermodynamics because Earth is a closed system.
Q2) Which curve(s)on the graphs may represent the temperature and pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly alkaline hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?
A)curves 1 and 5
B)curves 2 and 4
C)curves 2 and 5
D)curves 3 and 4
E)curves 3 and 5
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) When a molecule of NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)
Gains a hydrogen atom (not a proton),the molecule becomes
A)dehydrogenated.
B)oxidized.
C)reduced.
D)redoxed.
E)hydrolyzed.
Q2) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
A)the breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules
B)the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide
C)the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D)substrate-level phosphorylation
E)reduction ADP to ATP
Q3) What happens to the acetyl groups produced during beta-oxidation of fat?
A)They directly enter the electron transport chain.
B)They directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis.
C)They are decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D)They directly enter the citric acid cycle.
E)They are broken down in the cytoplasm.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Three "turns" of the Calvin cycle generate a "surplus" molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P).Which of the following is a consequence of this?
A)Formation of a molecule of glucose would require nine "turns."
B)G3P more readily forms sucrose and other disaccharides than it does monosaccharides.
C)Some plants would not taste sweet to us.
D)The formation of sucrose and starch in plants involves assembling G3P molecules, with or without further rearrangements.
E)Plants accumulate and store G3P.
Q2) According to the endosymbiotic theory,the original chloroplast was a A)chemisynthetic archaea.
B)green algae.
C)purple sulphur bacteria.
D)mitochondria.
E)photosynthetic prokaryote.
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Put the steps of the process of signal transduction in the order they occur:
1)A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme.
2)Protein kinases are activated.
3)A signal molecule binds to a receptor.
4)Target proteins are phosphorylated.
5)Second messenger molecules are released.
A)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B)3, 1, 2, 4, 5
C)3, 1, 5, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 5, 3, 4
E)5, 1, 2, 4, 3
Q2) Which type of receptor in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers,adding phosphate groups,and then activating relay proteins?
A)G protein-coupled receptors
B)ligand-gated ion channels
C)steroid receptors
D)quorum sensing receptors
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) You conclude that these cells are
A)animal cells.
B)plant cells.
C)bacteria.
D)diatoms.
E)tumour cells.
Q2) The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells
A)contain no DNA.
B)contain no RNA.
C)contain only one chromosome that is very short.
D)are actually in the G phase.
E)divide in the G phase.
Q3) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A)kinetochores
B)Golgi-derived vesicles
C)actin and myosin
D)centrioles and centromeres
E)cyclin-dependent kinases
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) The human X and Y chromosomes
A)are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B)are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C)are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D)include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E)include only genes that govern sex determination.
Q2) To view and analyze human chromosomes in a dividing cell,which of the following is/are required?
A)electron microscope
B)radioactive staining
C)fluorescent staining
D)DNA stain and a light microscope
E)a stain particular to human cells
Q3) Which sample of DNA might be from a cell at the end of meiosis I?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)either I or II
E)either I or III
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) When the enzyme structure of a heterozygote carrier is examined,there is an equal number of functioning and non-functioning enzymes produced.This is an example of A)complete dominance.
B)co-dominance.
C)incomplete dominance.
D)pleitropy.
E)epistasis.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
A)pink flowers in snapdragons
B)the ABO blood group in humans
C)Huntington's disease in humans
D)white and purple flower colour in peas
E)skin pigmentation in humans
Q3) What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do,in general,do only female cats have the tortoiseshell phenotype?
A)a male inherits only one allele of the X-linked gene controlling hair color
B)the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration
C)only males can have Barr bodies
D)multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production
E)two tortoiseshell genes located on the X chromosome are required
Q2) Thomas Hunt Morgan's choice of Drosophila melanogaster has been proven to be useful even today.Which of the following has/have continued to make it a most useful species?
I.its four pairs of chromosomes
II.a very large number of visible as well as biochemically mutant phenotypes
III.easy and inexpensive maintenance
IV.short generation time and large number of offspring
A)I and IV only
B)II and III only
C)I, II, and III only
D)II, III, and IV only
E)I, II, III, and IV
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) What is the function of topoisomerase?
A)relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
B)elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain
C)adding methyl groups to bases of DNA
D)unwinding of the double helix
E)stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork
Q2) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A)Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
B)Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C)Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic.
D)Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
E)Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.
Q3) Which of the enzymes synthesizes short segments of RNA?
A)helicase
B)topoisomerase
C)single-stranded binding protein
D)DNA polymerase I
E)primase
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following is directly related to a single amino acid?
A)the base sequence of the tRNA
B)the amino acetyl tRNA synthase
C)the three-base sequence of mRNA
D)the complementarity of DNA and RNA
E)a repeating 3 base sequence in telomeres
Q2) Which component is not directly involved in translation?
A)mRNA
B)DNA
C)tRNA
D)ribosomes
E)GTP
Q3) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the
A)binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B)shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C)bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D)attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E)bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane.He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete.His actions are analogous to which process in development?
A)morphogenesis
B)determination
C)induction
D)differentiation
E)pattern formation
Q2) Transcription of the genes in an inducible operon
A)occurs continuously in the cell.
B)starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
C)starts when the pathway's product is present.
D)stops when the pathway's product is present.
E)does not result in the production of enzymes.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following series best reflects what we know about how the flu virus moves between species?
A)An avian flu virus undergoes several mutations and rearrangements such that it is able to be transmitted to other birds and then to humans.
B)The flu virus in a pig is mutated and replicated in alternate arrangements so that humans who eat the pig products can be infected.
C)A flu virus from a human epidemic or pandemic infects birds; the birds replicate the virus differently and then pass it back to humans.
D)An influenza virus gains new sequences of DNA from another virus, such as a herpesvirus; this enables it to be transmitted to a human host.
E)An animal such as a pig is infected with more than one virus, genetic recombination occurs, the new virus mutates and is passed to a new species such as a bird, the virus mutates and can be transmitted to humans.
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?
A)Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product.
B)Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue.
C)Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate.
D)Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity.
E)mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated.
Q2) One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA)to bone marrow cells of a child with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID),and delivery of these engineered cells back to the bone marrow of the affected child.What is one major reason for the success of this procedure as opposed to many other efforts at gene therapy?
A)The engineered bone marrow cells from this patient can be used for any other SCID patient.
B)The ADA-introduced allele causes all other ADA-negative cells to die.
C)The engineered cells, when reintroduced into the patient, find their way back to the bone marrow.
D)No vector is required to introduce the allele into ADA-negative cells.
E)The immune system fails to recognize cells with the variant gene.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What is most likely if genes from different species are determined to be homologous?
A)The genes descended from a common ancestor.
B)Homology is observed because of convergent evolution.
C)The homology is a result of chance mutations.
D)Homology is found in gene structure but the function of the gene products will be different.
E)The species being compared will also have a similar genome size and structure.
Q2) Why is sequencing of eukaryotic genomes more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea?
A)because of the large size of eukaryotic proteins
B)because of hard-to-find proteins
C)because of the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA
D)because of the large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA
E)because a different technique must be used to sequence eukaryotic DNA
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) During a study session about evolution,one of your fellow students remarks,"The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception?
A)Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.
B)Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.
C)Only favourable adaptations have survival value.
D)Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.
E)If the giraffes did not have to compete with each other, longer necks would not have been passed on to the next generation.
Q2) How many separate species,both extant and extinct,are depicted in this tree?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
E)six
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24
Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) There are those who claim that the theory of evolution cannot be true because the apes,which are supposed to be closely related to humans,do not likewise share the same large brains,capacity for complicated speech,and tool-making capability.They reason that if these features are generally beneficial,then the apes should have evolved them as well.Which of these provides the best argument against this misconception?
A)Advantageous alleles do not arise on demand.
B)A population's evolution is limited by historical constraints.
C)Adaptations are often compromises.
D)Evolution can be influenced by environmental change.
Q2) Which population is most likely to be subject to the bottleneck effect?
A)population A
B)population B
C)population C
D)They are all equally likely.
E)It is impossible to tell from the information given.
Q3) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool?
A)0)25
B)0)50
C)0)75
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation?
A)A population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population.
B)The separated population is small, and genetic drift occurs.
C)The isolated population is exposed to different selection pressures than the ancestral population.
D)Different mutations begin to distinguish the gene pools of the separated populations.
E)Gene flow between the two populations is extensive.
Q2) Which of these five species originated earliest and appeared suddenly in the fossil record?
A)V
B)W
C)X
D)Y
E)Z
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A)V is most closely related to species W.
B)X is most closely related to species W.
C)Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D)It is not possible to say from this tree.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the modern-day distribution of dicynodont fossils?
A)Two previous supercontinents existed at different times long before the Permian period.
B)The dicynodonts were evenly distributed throughout all of Pangaea.
C)The dicynodonts were distributed more abundantly throughout Gondwanaland than throughout any other land mass.
D)The dicynodonts were amphibious and able to swim long distances.
E)The dicynodonts could survive for periods of months aboard "rafts" of vegetation, few of which made their way to the northern hemisphere.
Q2) The synthesis of new DNA requires the prior existence of oligonucleotides to serve as primers.On Earth,these primers are small RNA molecules.This latter observation is evidence in support of the hypothesized existence of A)a snowball Earth.
B)earlier genetic systems than those based on DNA.
C)the abiotic synthesis of organic monomers.
D)the delivery of organic matter to Earth by meteors and comets.
E)the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts.
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Consider the human arm,a dog's foreleg,and a seal's flipper.These three structures are examples of ________ structures.
A)analogous
B)homologous
C)mammalian
D)similar function in
E)related
Q2) What is true of the phylogeny in the above figure?
1)It is rooted.
2)The gibbons and siamangs represent an outgroup of the great apes.
3)Chimps and humans are the closest extant sister taxa depicted here.
4)It is absolute,meaning free of error.
5)The last common ancestor of the great apes lived about 14 million years ago.
A)1, 2, and 3
B)1, 2, and 5
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)1, 2, 3, and 5
E)2, 3, 4, and 5
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The termite gut protist,Mixotricha paradoxa,has at least two kinds of bacteria attached to its outer surface.One kind is a spirochete that propels its host through the termite gut.A second type of bacteria synthesizes ATP,some of which is used by the spirochetes.The locomotion provided by the spirochetes introduces the ATP-producing bacteria to new food sources.Which term(s)is (are)applicable to the relationship between the two kinds of bacteria?
1)mutualism
2)parasitism
3)symbiosis
4)metabolic cooperation
A)1 only
B)1 and 2
C)2 and 3
D)1, 3, and 4
E)2, 3, and 4
Q2) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A)pathogenic, omnipresent, morphologically diverse
B)extremophiles, tiny, abundant
C)tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse
D)morphologically diverse, metabolically diverse, extremophiles
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Apicomplexans
A)are mostly free-living.
B)are photosynthetic.
C)have life cycles with sexual and asexual stages.
D)include Plasmodium, which requires two hosts.
E)C and D
Q2) The best evidence for not classifying the slime moulds as fungi comes from slime moulds'
A)DNA sequences.
B)nutritional modes.
C)choice of habitats.
D)physical appearance.
E)reproductive methods.
Q3) An individual mixotroph loses its plastids,yet continues to survive.Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?
A)It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
B)It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
C)It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption.
D)It has an endospore.
E)It is protected by a case made of silica.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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93 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are hiking in a forest and happen upon a plant featuring a central stemlike structure from which sprout many,tiny,leaflike structures.Which of the following would be the most certain means of distinguishing whether it was a true moss or a club moss?
A)its colour
B)its height
C)if seeds are present
D)if conducting tissues are present
E)the appearance of its spore-producing structures
Q2) This student has probably found a(n)
A)immature pine tree.
B)bryophyte sporophyte.
C)fern sporophyte.
D)horsetail gametophyte.
E)lycophyte sporophyte.
Q3) How could you determine if a plant is heterosporous?
A)Male and female reproductive structures are located on separate plants.
B)It has vascular tissue.
C)It has multiple sporangia.
D)Its diploid sporophyte produces spores via meiosis.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms?
1)They have exposed ovules.
2)They have flagellated sperm.
3)They are pollinated by animals.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)2 and 3
E)1, 2, and 3
Q2) It would be best for these students,and for society in the long run,if their biology professor responds by
A)acknowledging their concern, and promising not to hold them responsible for any material on plants.
B)chiding them for their careerist attitudes, and advising them to whine less and study more.
C)offering extra credit for a research paper on plants that harm humans, as well as plants that heal humans.
D)lowering the stress level by providing them with the relevant test questions from the upcoming test so they can research the answers ahead of time.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Penicillium typically secretes penicillin without disturbing the lichen relationship in which it is engaged,then what must have been true about its partner?
A)It should have lacked peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
B)It was probably a red alga.
C)It was probably a member of the domain Bacteria.
D)It was probably a heterotrophic prokaryote.
E)It was probably infected by bacteriophage.
Q2) What do fungi and arthropods have in common?
A)Both groups are commonly coenocytic.
B)The haploid state is dominant in both groups.
C)Both groups are predominantly heterotrophs that ingest their food.
D)The protective coats of both groups are made of chitin.
E)Both groups have cell walls.
Q3) Which tree depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the fungi,rather than as a fungus?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these features is least useful in assigning the phylum Cycliophora to a clade of animals?
A)having a true coelom as a body cavity
B)having a body symmetry that permits a U-shaped intestine
C)having embryos with spiral cleavage
D)lacking ecdysis (moulting)
Q2) Which two groups have members that undergo ecdysis?
A)I and II
B)II and III
C)III and IV
D)III and V
E)IV and V
Q3) Phylogenetic trees are best described as
A)true and inerrant statements about evolutionary relationships.
B)hypothetical portrayals of evolutionary relationships.
C)the most accurate representations possible of genetic relationships among taxa.
D)theories of evolution.
E)the closest things to absolute certainty that modern systematics can produce.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of adult echinoderms?
A)bilateral symmetry
B)spiral cleavage
C)gastrovascular cavity
D)exoskeleton
E)lophophore
Q2) Insects are a diverse and highly successful animal group.The internal anatomy of insects includes the following characteristics,with the exception of A)segmentation of thorax and abdomen.
B)small lungs.
C)heart that pumps hemolymph.
D)nerve cords.
E)Malpighian tubules.
Q3) Nematode worms and annelid worms share which of the following features?
A)use of fluid in the body cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton
B)ecdysis
C)presence of a circulatory system
D)presence of segmentation
E)absence of species with parasitic lifestyles
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is believed that the coelacanths and lungfish represent a crucial link between other fishes and tetrapods.What is the major feature in these fish in support of this hypothesis?
A)Like amphibians, they are tied to the water for reproduction.
B)Their fins have skeletal and muscular structures similar to amphibian limbs.
C)They have highly evolved nervous and circulatory systems.
D)They have lungs and are able to breathe air when water is scarce.
Q2) Which of the following statements would be least acceptable to most zoologists?
A)The extant lancelets are contemporaries, not ancestors, of vertebrates.
B)The first fossils resembling lancelets appeared in the fossil record around 530 million years ago.
C)Recent work in molecular systematics supports the hypothesis that lancelets are the most recent common ancestor of all vertebrates.
D)The extant lancelets are the immediate ancestors of the fishes.
E)Lancelets display the same method of swimming as do fishes.
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36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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82 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The polarity of a plant is established when
A)the zygote divides.
B)cotyledons form at the shoot end of the embryo.
C)the shoot-root axis is established in the embryo.
D)the primary root breaks through the seed coat.
E)the shoot first breaks through the soil into the light as the seed germinates.
Q2) ________ is to xylem as ________ is to phloem.
A)Sclerenchyma cell; collenchyma cell
B)Apical meristem; vascular cambium
C)Vessel element; sieve-tube member
D)Cortex; pith
E)Vascular cambium; cork cambium
Q3) CO enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the A)cuticle.
B)epidermal trichomes.
C)stoma.
D)phloem.
E)walls of guard cells.
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is responsible for the transport of sucrose to companion cells and sieve tube elements.
A)chemiosmotic mechanism
B)apoplastic pathway
C)symplastic pathway
D)passive transport
E)potassium pump
Q2) Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast?
A)pericycle
B)cortex
C)epidermis
D)endodermis
E)exodermis
Q3) All of the following normally enter the plant through the roots except
A)carbon dioxide.
B)nitrogen.
C)potassium.
D)water.
E)calcium.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iron deficiency is often indicated by yellowing in newly formed leaves.This suggests that iron
A)is a relatively immobile nutrient in plants.
B)is tied up in formed chlorophyll molecules.
C)is concentrated in the xylem of older leaves.
D)is concentrated in the phloem of older leaves.
E)is found in leghemoglobin and reduces the amount available to new plant parts.
Q2) A woodlot was sprayed with a fungicide.What would be the most serious effect of such spraying?
A)a decrease in food for animals that eat mushrooms
B)an increase in rates of wood decay
C)a decrease in tree growth due to the death of mycorrhizae
D)an increase in the number of decomposing bacteria
E)a decrease in food for animals that eat mushrooms, and an increase in rates of wood decay
Q3) Most of the dry mass of a plant is the result of uptake of
A)water and minerals through root hairs.
B)water and minerals through mycorrhizae.
C)carbon dioxide through stoma.
D)carbon dioxide and oxygen through stomata in leaves.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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107 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to the endosperm in angiosperms?
A)Its nutrients may be absorbed by the cotyledons in the seeds of eudicots.
B)It develops from a haploid cell.
C)Its nutrients are digested before embryo development.
D)It develops from the fertilized egg.
E)It is only fully developed in monocot seeds.
Q2) Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and XX for female.After double fertilization,what would be the genotypes of the embryos and endosperm nuclei?
A)embryo X/endosperm XX or embryo Y/endosperm XY
B)embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo XY/endosperm XY
C)embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XYY
D)embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XXY
E)embryo XY/endosperm XXX or embryo XX/endosperm XXY
Q3) Based on the above figure,which cell(s)become(s)the triploid endosperm?
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the probable role of salicylic acid in the defence responses of plants?
A)to destroy pathogens directly
B)to activate systemic acquired resistance of plants
C)to close stomata, thus preventing the entry of pathogens
D)to activate heat-shock proteins
E)to sacrifice infected tissues by hydrolyzing cells
Q2) The initial response of the root cells of a tomato plant watered with sea water would be to
A)rapidly produce organic solutes in the cytoplasm.
B)rapidly expand until the cells burst.
C)begin to plasmolyze as water is lost.
D)actively transport water from the cytoplasm into the vacuole.
E)actively absorb salts from the seawater.
Q3) Plant cells begin synthesizing large quantities of heat-shock proteins
A)after the induction of chaperone proteins.
B)in response to the lack of CO following the closing of stomata by ethylene.
C)when desert plants are quickly removed from high temperatures.
D)when they are subjected to moist heat (steam)followed by electric shock.
E)whenever the external temperature exceeds the threshold where photosynthesis is negatively impacted.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specialized structures of complex animals have evolved because A)the environment imposes identical problems regardless of where the animals are found.
B)the development of the specialized structures in an animal is influenced by the animal's ability to learn.
C)the simplest animals are those with the most recent appearance among the biota.
D)they permit adjustments to a wide range of environmental changes.
E)the most complex animals are the ones with the most ancient evolutionary origin.
Q2) In a typical nerve cell,the nucleus is found in the A)cell body.
B)synaptic terminals.
C)axonal region.
D)dendritic region.
E)synapse.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The adaptations suited to a carnivorous diet include
A)broad, flat molars.
B)a rumen.
C)ingestion of feces.
D)bile salts.
E)amylase.
Q2) Jahasz-Pocsine and co-workers found a correlation between gastric bypass surgery and neurological complications.Surgeons performed gastric bypass surgery on 150 patients at the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences Neurology Clinic.Of the 150 patients,26 experienced neurological complications related to the surgery.What is the most likely cause for the neurological complications?
A)sudden weight loss and caloric deficiency interfering with neurological function
B)nutrient (for example, vitamin and mineral)deficiencies
C)sloppy surgical technique of physicians performing the bypass surgery
D)infections following surgical intervention
E)difficulty adjusting to eating smaller meals
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Circulatory systems in molluscs
A)are open in all species of molluscs.
B)are closed in all species of molluscs.
C)are open in species of large-sized molluscs and are closed in species of small-sized molluscs.
D)are open in species of small-sized molluscs and are closed in species of large-sized molluscs.
E)are open or closed without regard to body size.
Q2) Circulatory systems have the primary benefit of overcoming the shortcomings of
A)temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue.
B)the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.
C)communication systems involving only the nervous system.
D)having to cushion animals from trauma.
E)fetal organisms maintaining an optimal body temperature.
Q3) An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes
A)hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules.
B)an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules.
C)hemoglobin to denature.
D)an increase in the binding of H by hemoglobin.
E)hemoglobin to more readily give up its oxygen molecules.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange these components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen in the correct sequence.
I.Pathogen is destroyed.
II.Lymphocytes secrete antibodies.
III.Antigenic determinants from pathogen bind to antigen receptors on lymphocytes.
IV.Lymphocytes specific to antigenic determinants from pathogen become numerous.
V.Only memory cells remain.
A)I III II IV V
B)III II I V IV
C)II I IV III V
D)IV II III I V
E)III IV II I V
Q2) Clonal selection implies that
A)brothers and sisters have similar immune responses.
B)antigens increase mitosis in specific lymphocytes.
C)only certain cells can produce interferon.
D)a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors.
E)the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is excreted as a paste by land snails,insects,birds,and many reptiles because of its solubility and toxicity properties?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely
A)found in freshwater lakes and streams.
B)marine.
C)amphibious.
D)found in arid terrestrial environments.
E)found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture.
Q3) Osmoregulatory adjustment via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system can be triggered by
A)sleeping for one hour.
B)severe sweating on a hot day.
C)eating a bag of potato chips.
D)eating a pizza with olives and pepperoni.
E)drinking several glasses of water.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine disorder is correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
A)Graves disease and the thyroid
B)giantism and the posterior pituitary gland
C)goiter and the adrenal medulla
D)diabetes mellitus and the parathyroid glands
E)dwarfism and the adrenal cortex
Q2) If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time,he or she may die from dehydration.ADH can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the
A)anterior pituitary.
B)posterior pituitary.
C)adrenal gland.
D)bladder.
E)kidney.
Q3) Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine activity?
A)the pituitary gland
B)parathyroid glands
C)salivary glands
D)the pancreas
E)adrenal glands
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals with reproduction dependent on internal fertilization need not have A)any copulatory organs.
B)a receptacle that receives sperm.
C)behavioural interaction between males and females.
D)internal development of embryos.
E)haploid gametes.
Q2) In correct chronological order,the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are
A)menstrual ovulation luteal.
B)follicular luteal secretory.
C)menstrual proliferative secretory.
D)follicular ovulation luteal.
E)proliferative luteal ovulation.
Q3) In excreted urine,a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is A)progesterone.
B)estrogen.
C)follicle-stimulating hormone.
D)chorionic gonadotropin.
E)hypothalamic-releasing hormones.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sea urchin zygote undergoes its first cell division
A)5 seconds after fertilization.
B)30 minutes after fertilization.
C)90 minutes after fertilization.
D)4 hours after fertilization.
E)24 hours after fertilization.
Q2) In a frog embryo,gastrulation
A)produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere.
B)occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere.
C)is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the ovum.
D)proceeds by involution as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore.
E)occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk.
Q3) The structure of the Drosophila gene called Tinman is similar to a gene in humans that also
A)promotes ear development.
B)specifies the location of the heart.
C)determines structures in the eyes.
D)specifies limb elongation points.
E)filters lymphatic fluid.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) How could you increase the magnitude of the inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)generated at a synapse?
A)increase sodium-potassium pump activity
B)increase K permeability
C)increase the influx of calcium
D)add glutamate
E)add norepinephrine
Q2) The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label
A)A)
B)B)
C)C)
D)D)
E)E)
Q3) The major excitatory neurotransmitter of the human brain is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)glutamate.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a doctor attempts to trigger the patellar tendon reflex and a lack of response occurs,what are potential regions where pathology might exist?
I.the brain
II.the knee
III.the spinal cord
A)only I
B)only II
C)only III
D)only II and III
E)I, II and III
Q2) Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system.
A)sympathetic
B)somatic
C)central
D)visceral
E)parasympathetic
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overlapping actin and myosin filaments are found in which section of the figure?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Myosin filaments without actin overlap are in which section of the figure?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) A rod exposed to light will
A)fire action potentials that will increase its release of glutamate.
B)undergo a graded depolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
C)undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
D)undergo a graded depolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.
E)undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) In guppies,females may copy the mate choice of conspecifics even if it means choosing a male with less extensive orange colouration than would be chosen with no female present.This decision may increase
A)the number of resulting offspring.
B)paternal care of offspring.
C)ornamentation of offspring.
D)the probability of fitness of male offspring.
E)male competition for mates.
Q2) Pair-bonding in a population of prairie voles can be prevented by A)the ensuing confusion caused by introducing meadow voles.
B)administering a drug that inhibits the brain receptor for vasopressin in the central nervous system of males.
C)administering a drug that turns on ADH receptor sites in male voles.
D)dying the coat colour from brown to blond in either male or female prairie voles.
E)allowing the population size to reach critically low levels.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) In mountainous areas of western North America,north-facing slopes would be expected to
A)receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures.
B)be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes.
C)consistently be steeper than southern exposures.
D)support biological communities similar to those found at lower elevations on similar south-facing slopes.
E)support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south-facing slopes.
Q2) Which zone has a condition of constant temperature? A)A
Q3) In the figure above,which number would designate the arctic tundra biome? A)2
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was the most significant limiting factor in human population growth in the 20th century?
A)famine
B)non-HIV disease
C)HIV
D)genocide
E)clean water
Q2) In models of logistic population growth,
A)the population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K.
B)new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth.
C)new individuals are added to the population as N approaches K.
D)only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth.
E)carrying capacity is never reached.
Q3) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to
A)determine a population's carrying capacity.
B)determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
C)determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
D)determine the factors that regulate the size of a population.
E)determine if a population's growth is cyclic.
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Species richness increases
A)as we increase in altitude in equatorial mountains.
B)as we travel southward from the North Pole.
C)on islands as distance from the mainland increases.
D)as depth increases in aquatic communities.
E)as community size decreases.
Q2) What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas? Controlled burnings ________.
A)eliminate the possibility of forest fires
B)clear forested areas for farmland
C)prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush
D)allow new species to form
Q3) The 1988 Yellowstone National Park lodgepole pine forest fires were likely the result of A)overgrazing by elk.
B)infrequent rain episodes.
C)years of fire suppression by humans.
D)unextinguished campfires.
E)geysers.
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56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth,most ecosystems would vanish.Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster?
A)tropical rain forest
B)tundra
C)benthic ocean
D)grassland
E)desert
Q2) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem.Species C is toxic to predators.Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812
Sample Questions
Q1) This is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems.
A)depletion of ozone layer
B)acid precipitation
C)biological magnification
D)greenhouse effect
E)eutrophication
Q2) The biggest challenge that Costa Rica will likely face in its dedication to conservation and restoration in the future is
A)the pressures of its growing population.
B)its small size (as a country), which may not be able to maintain large enough reserves.
C)the potential for disturbance of sensitive species in reserves by ecotourists.
D)spread of disease and parasites via corridors from neighboring countries.
E)the large number of Costa Rican species already in the extinction vortex.
Q3) Which of the following provides the best evidence of a biodiversity crisis?
A)the incursion of a non-native species
B)increasing pollution levels
C)decrease in regional productivity
D)high rate of extinction
E)climate change
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58