Fundamentals of Biology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology is an introductory course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the basic principles governing living systems. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, the course explores the diversity of life and the mechanisms that sustain it. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students will develop scientific inquiry skills and gain an appreciation for the complexity and interconnectedness of biological processes. This course serves as a foundation for advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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39 Chapters
3055 Verified Questions
3055 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Life
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus aureus would have which of the following?
A)Nucleus
B)Cell wall and nucleus
C)Cell wall
D)Cell wall and cell membrane
E)Cell membrane and nucleus
Answer: D
Q2) Decomposers are a special group of producers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within an organism?
A)Atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue
B)Molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell
C)Cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule
D)Organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell
E)Atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary building block (monomer)of proteins is:
A)A glucose molecule
B)A fatty acid
C)A nucleotide
D)An amino acid
E)Four interconnected rings
Answer: D
Q2) Which is not a lipid?
A)A triglyceride
B)A phospholipid
C)A wax
D)A sterol
E)A starch molecule
Answer: E
Q3) A base:
A)Has a value of 7 on the pH scale
B)Is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution
C)Is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution
D)Has a value below 7 on the pH scale
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike most organelles,chloroplasts and mitochondria contain:
A)Membranes
B)Ribosomes and DNA
C)Ribosomes
D)DNA
E)Membranes and ribosomes
Answer: B
Q2) Scientific evidence is beginning to suggest that some elements of the cytoskeleton may have originated in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The Golgi apparatus is not:
A)An organelle
B)A processing center
C)Studded with ribosomes
D)Is not a stack of membrane enclosed sacs
E)Involved with secretion of cellular substances
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hypothesis were the scientists testing?
A)Do defects in CFTR cause cholera
B)Does defective CFTR make people more sensitive to cholera
C)Does defective CFTR give people natural resistance to cholera
D)Does cholera causes cystic fibrosis
E)Does cholera increase the risk of transmission of cystic fibrosis
Q2) Reduction is the gain of electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius is a:
A)Calorie
B)Joule
C)Kilocalorie
D)Measure of density
E)None of these are correct
Q4) An enzyme is a lipid that catalyzes chemical reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy source for the process of photosynthesis is:
A)oxygen.
B)sunlight.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)chlorophyll.
E)glucose.
Q2) The light reactions use ATP as their energy source.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plants require a lot of water for transpiration,metabolism,and photosynthesis.How is water used in photosynthesis?
A)As a substrate for ATP synthase
B)As an electron acceptor
C)To combine with ADP forming ATP
D)To combine with NADP<sup>+</sup> to form NADPH
E)As an electron donor
Q4) When chlorophyll a absorbs light,electrons are "excited" and ejected from the chlorophyll a molecule.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis of a glucose molecule:
A)Produces a net gain of two molecules of ATP
B)Occurs only in animal cells
C)Transfers electrons from glucose to FAD
D)Occurs only in microorganisms
E)Occurs in mitochondria
Q2) Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cellular respiration includes only the Kreb's cycle and electron transport.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glycolysis and the Kreb's cycle do not capture all of the energy in a glucose molecule because:
A)ATP easily vaporizes
B)Energy cannot be created or destroyed
C)Some glucose is not broken down
D)Some energy is always lost as heat during chemical reactions
E)Some energy remains in the atoms
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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In creating a transgenic organism,the ____ from one species is inserted into another species.
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)protein
D)DNA or protein
E)RNA or protein
Q2) In the bacterium
E. coli, in the absence of lactose, a repressor protein binds to the operator region of the DNA, preventing the transcription of the genes of the lactose operon.BLOOM'S LEVEL: 1. Remember
LEARNING OUTCOME: 07.06.01 Explain how the transcription of a gene is regulated.SECTION: 07.06
TOPIC: Gene Regulation
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of RNA that delivers amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis is tRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hypothesis were the researchers testing by treating tumors with endostatin and cyclophosphamide?
A)Because endostatin works on endothelial cells, natural selection for resistance will not occur in tumor cells
B)Because endostatin works on tumor cells, natural selection for resistance will not occur in endothelial cells
C)Because cyclophosphamide works on endothelial cells, natural selection for resistance will not occur in tumor cells
D)Because cyclophosphamide works on tumor cells, natural selection for resistance will not occur in endothelial cells
Q2) Apoptosis is also called:
A)Replication
B)Mitosis
C)Programmed cell death
D)The cell cycle
E)Programmed cellular reproduction
Q3) Variants or alternate forms of a gene are called alleles:
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In plants,haploid gametophytes produce gametes by:
A)Meiosis
B)Mitosis
C)Fertilization
D)Sporulation
E)Non-disjunction
Q2) The human chromosomes that do not determine whether an individual is male or female are:
A)Not found in pairs
B)The "X" and "Y" chromosomes
C)Autosomes
D)Called sex chromosomes
E)None of these are correct
Q3) Based on Figure 9.19,T.mirus would normally produce gametes with __ chromosomes.
A)24
B)12
C)6
D)2
E)1
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A testcross is a mating of an individual with an unknown genotype and an individual that:
A)Is heterozygous
B)Is homozygous dominant
C)Is homozygous recessive
D)Has any known genotype
E)Wild type
Q2) Diagrams of gene order and spacing on chromosomes are:
A)Karyotypes
B)Phenotypes
C)Linkage maps
D)Genotypes
E)Metabolic maps
Q3) Hemophilia A is caused by:
A)An X-linked recessive disorder causing a defective blood clotting protein
B)An X-linked recessive disorder
C)A defective blood clotting protein
D)An X-linked dominant disorder causing a defective blood clotting protein
E)An X-linked dominant disorder
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically fishermen kept larger fish and left smaller juvenile fish.Over time the average size of the fish would:
A)Increase by natural selection
B)Decrease by genetic drift
C)Decrease by natural selection
D)Increase by genetic drift
E)Remain unchanged
Q2) What hypothesis were the researchers testing?
A)That harvesting larger fish would increase the size of fish in future generations
B)That harvesting fish randomly would decrease the size of fish in future generations
C)That harvesting larger fish would decrease the size of fish in future generations
D)That harvesting fish randomly would increase the size of fish in future generations
E)That slot limits would decrease the size of fish in future generations
Q3) Evolution occurs in individuals,not populations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothesis that birds are closely related to small dinosaurs called theropods began with the discovery of the fossilized skeleton of Archaeopteryx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Within the country of Indonesia,the island of Sumatra has tigers and rhinos,while to the East,the island of Sulawesi has cockatoos and tree kangaroos.What is the best explanation for this observation?
A)The climates on the two islands are very different, allowing some species to survive, and others not.
B)Some species can migrate between islands and others cannot.
C)Animals in Sumatra evolved independently, while those in Sulawesi came from Australia.
D)Animals in Sumatra came from Asia, while those in Sulawesi came from Australia
E)Animals in Sumatra and Sulawesi both came from Asia, but those in Sulawesi migrated farther.
Q3) Dinosaurs lived essentially during the Paleozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of reproductive isolation in which the two populations are separated due to their habitat is:
A)Mechanical isolation
B)Ecological isolation
C)Hybrid inviability
D)Behavioral isolation
E)Temporal isolation
Q2) Mules are considered to be a distinct species because they produce fertile offspring when mated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time,new species have originated and existing species have disappeared.This is an example of:
A)Speciation
B)Extinction
C)Macroevolution
D)Alternation of generations
E)Hybridization
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Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "Cambrian explosion" refers to:
A)The mass extinction of dinosaurs
B)The appearance of fossils for all major phyla of animals
C)The development of the first true cell
D)The origination of life
E)All are correct
Q2) Humans and chimps are both:
A)Primates and hominids
B)Primates
C)Hominids
D)Homo sapiens
E)Primates and Homo sapiens
Q3) Evidence supporting the idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts in present-day cells originated as independent organisms includes:
A)Similarities in DNA sequences between mitochondrial and bacterial genomes
B)Similarities in size and shape between mitochondria and some prokaryotes
C)Similarity between photosynthetic pigments in chloroplasts and cyanobacteria
D)Similarity in the way mitochondria, chloroplasts, and prokaryotes reproduce
E)All of these are correct
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) SIV causes symptomless infections in monkeys and apes,yet causes AIDS-like disease in chimpanzees.HIV is closely related to SIV and causes AIDS in humans.Which of the following is the best explanation for these observations?
A)Monkeys, apes, and chimpanzees are all genetically very similar
B)The effects of viruses on different species is random
C)Chimpanzees and humans have a more recent common ancestor
D)SIV is most likely lytic in apes and monkeys
E)SIV is most likely latent in chimpanzees
Q2) Rhinovirus is an RNA virus that causes the common cold and sinus infections.The virus does not contain an envelope.What would you predict to be the primary route of transmission of rhinovirus?
A)Sexual contact
B)Blood
C)Aerosol
D)Insects
E)Parasites
Q3) Many viruses are inhibited by antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many prokaryotes play vital roles in global nutrient cycles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A type of horizontal gene transfer in prokaryotes in which a cell receives bacterial DNA from a bacteriophage is:
A)Conjugation
B)Transformation
C)Transduction
D)Replication
E)Fixation
Q3) Because Archaea were first found in environments that lacked oxygen or were very hot,acidic,or salty,they were nicknamed "Extremeophiles."
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organism to which oxygen is toxic is an obligate anaerobe.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trichonympha is a unicellular flagellated protist that lives within termites and allows the termite to be able to "digest" wood.Trichonympha is which of the following?
A)An apicomplexan
B)An algae
C)A slime mold
D)A diatom
E)A protozoa
Q2) Protists:
A)Are prokaryotes
B)Do not have a nucleus
C)Do not have membrane-bounded organelles
D)Are eukaryotes
E)Have a cell wall
Q3) The largest algae are:
A)Kelp
B)Diatoms
C)Red algae
D)Golden algae
E)Green algae
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the plant that is a waxy coating that minimizes water loss from leaves is the:
A)Stomata
B)Root
C)Xylem
D)Phloem
E)Cuticle
Q2) In figure 18.18,the decrease of herbs (grasses)and increase in mosses would suggest that the climate in Siberia has become __________ in the past 10,000 years.
A)Dryer
B)Hotter
C)Colder
D)Wetter
Q3) The term gymnosperm literally means:
A)Clothed ovule
B)Naked seed
C)Naked ovule
D)Clothed seed
E)Clothed sperm
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the ecosystems of the world fungi act primarily as:
A)Decomposers
B)Producers
C)Primary consumers
D)Secondary consumers
E)Detritovores
Q2) Chytridiomycetes produce enzymes that digest cellulose,chitin,and similar molecules.Because of this they are found in the digestive tract of _____.
A)People
B)Frogs
C)Ruminants
D)Plants
E)Lichens
Q3) Unlike the plant cells,fungal cells lack which of the following?
A)Mitochondria
B)Chloroplasts
C)Cell walls
D)Nuclei
E)Cytoplasm
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mollusks that have two-part hinged shells are called bivalves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the phylum Chordata?
A)They do not have true tissues
B)They have a gastrula with only two germ layers
C)They have radial symmetry
D)They have a notochord
E)They have a pseudocoelom
Q3) Which of the following is a cartilaginous fish?
A)Sharks
B)Tuna
C)Salmon
D)Lungfish
E)Catfish
Q4) Chordates have notochords and postanal tails.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Root hairs greatly increase the absorptive surface area of a root.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A waxy layer secreted by the epidermal cells of a plant is the:
A)Stomata
B)Cuticle
C)Guard cell
D)Xylem
E)Phloem
Q3) The primary organ of photosynthesis in a plant is the:
A)Leaf
B)Stomata
C)Bark
D)Stem
E)Chlorophyll
Q4) In woody plants the vascular cambium produces xylem and the cork cambium produces phloem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists measured the pressure in the xylem of redwood trees at different heights and found that the higher they made their measurements,the lower the pressure.They extrapolated this to a pressure of zero,and concluded that the tallest a tree could grow is 122-130 meters.The tallest known tree on Earth is 112.7 meters.What assumption were the scientists making to conclude that when pressure was zero the plant could grow no further?
A)Any leaves above that point would not receive any sunlight
B)Any leaves above that point would not receive any water
C)Stems above that point could not transport sugars in their xylem
D)Transpiration would be less than uptake of water from the xylem
E)The turgor pressure would be greater than gravity
Q2) The bacterium Rhizobium:
A)Triggers the development of root nodules in legumes
B)Enter plants through the root hairs
C)Live symbiotically within plant cells
D)Break the triple covalent bond in N<sub>2</sub>
E)All are correct
Q3) Mycorrhizal fungi decrease the ability of a plant's roots to absorb water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the late 1870s Charles Darwin and his son Francis discovered that if the tip of the grass was covered,phototropism did not occur,even though the rest of the grass was exposed to light.However,if the rest of the plant was covered and only the tip exposed to light the grass bent a few centimeters below the tip.How could light striking the tip of the grass cause bending a few centimeters from the tip?
A)The light must be striking the cells that bend as well
B)A hormone must be carrying the response from the tip to the site of bending
C)The bending must start at the tip and move down the entire blade of grass
D)Bending is independent of the source of light
E)The light is being transmitted from the tip to cells at the site of bending
Q2) The whorl of a flower that consists of the male reproductive parts is the:
A)Stamen
B)Calyx
C)Stigma
D)Carpel
E)Corolla
Q3) Cytokinins are plant hormones that stimulate the ripening of fruit.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would the drug dealer's urea and potassium levels in the blood be elevated?
A)They could not be absorbed from the urine
B)More potassium and urea were being produced by the kidneys
C)The kidneys could not break down the potassium and urea in the blood
D)The kidneys could not secrete urea or potassium into the blood
E)They could not pass into the urine
Q2) If the concentrations of salts are too high,which of the following would occur?
A)The hypothalamus would signal the kidney to release more salt into the urine
B)The hypothalamus would signal the kidney to absorb more salt from the urine
C)The pituitary would signal the kidney to release more salt into the urine
D)The pituitary would signal the kidney to release absorb more salt from the urine
E)The liver would signal the kidney to release absorb more salt from the urine
Q3) A type of gland that secretes an oily substance that softens and protects hair is a(an):
A)Salivary gland
B)Mammary gland
C)Sweat gland
D)Sebaceous gland
E)Endocrine gland
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) A chemical that travels from a sending neuron to a receiving neuron is called a(an):
A)Synaptic cleft
B)Action potential
C)Hormone
D)Neurotransmitter
E)Neurotoxin
Q2) The state of a neuron when it is not conducting a nerve impulse is:
A)An action potential of -70 millivolts
B)A resting potential of -70 millivolts
C)A resting potential of +35 millivolts
D)An action potential of +35 millivolts
Q3) Nodes of Ranvier are intervals between Schwann cells that _____ the conduction of nerve impulses.
A)Slow
B)Have no effect on
C)Trigger
D)Speed
E)Completely block
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Chapter 26: The Senses Content
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Q1) Volatile chemical substances that elicit specific responses in other members of the same species are referred to as:
A)Hormones
B)Pheromones
C)Transposons
D)Pectines
E)Spicules
Q2) In conductive deafness,the middle ear fails to move sound to the inner ear.By amplifying sounds in the auditory canal,the hearing aid moves the _______ more than normal,helping the person hear more clearly.
A)Cochlea
B)Eardrum
C)Oval window
D)Auditory canal
E)Auditory nerve
Q3) A pheromone is a volatile chemical substance that elicits a specific response in members of a different species.
A)True
B)False
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Page 28
Chapter 27: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type II diabetes is strongly associated with:
A)Obesity
B)Old age
C)Premature infants
D)A suppressed immune system
E)Calcium deficiency
Q2) The endocrine gland that produces primarily testosterone is the:
A)Testes
B)Pancreas
C)Parathyroid gland
D)Adrenal gland
E)Pineal gland
Q3) Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary tumor.Symptoms of prolactinoma in women include infertility and atypical menstruation.Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?
A)Increased prolactin in the blood has a positive feedback on the pituitary
B)Increased prolactin in the blood has a negative feedback on the pituitary
C)Decreased prolactin in the blood has a negative feedback on the pituitary
D)Decreased prolactin in the blood has a positive feedback on the pituitary
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breast muscle of a wild duck is dark,while that of a domesticated chicken is white.What would be true of breast muscle in a wild duck?
A)They are fast twitch muscles with abundant capillaries and mitochondria
B)They are slow twitch muscles with few capillaries or mitochondria
C)They are slow twitch muscles with abundant capillaries and mitochondria
D)They are fast twitch muscles with few capillaries or mitochondria
Q2) Which of the following is not a part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)Pelvic girdle
B)Sternum
C)Pectoral girdle
D)Femur
E)Humerus
Q3) A sprain is a stretched or torn:
A)Ligament
B)Tendon
C)Muscle
D)Neuron
E)Vein
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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The widening of blood vessels is:
A)Vasoconstriction
B)Cardioconstriction
C)Vasodilation
D)Cardiodilation
Q2) Vertebrates with a four-chambered heart include:
A)Fish
B)Reptiles
C)Birds
D)Amphibians
E)Annelids
Q3) In a coronary bypass,which of the following is being bypassed?
A)Coronary veins
B)Inferior vena cava
C)Coronary arteries
D)Superior vena cava
E)Aorta
Q4) The sinoatrial node,also called the pacemaker,sets the tempo of the heart beat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Respiratory System
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Q1) What is the dependent variable in figure 30.15?
A)Partial pressure of oxygen in the tracheae
B)The number of times the spiracles are open
C)The number of moth pupae
D)The external concentration of oxygen
E)The size of each moth pupa
Q2) A frog can absorb oxygen through its skin and lungs.Which of the following is an advantage of absorbing oxygen through the lungs?
A)The heart pumps oxygen from the lungs into the bloodstream
B)Oxygen absorbed in the lungs enters the blood stream
C)Air in the lungs has a higher concentration of oxygen than air in the atmosphere
D)Oxygen diffuses across cells more slowly than across the lining of the lungs
E)Lungs have more surface area than the skin
Q3) Which of the following is not a main function of the respiratory system?
A)Olfaction
B)Gas exchange between the lungs and the atmosphere
C)Production of sounds
D)Transport of oxygen to the cells of the body
E)Maintaining blood pH homeostasis
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acid reflux would occur under which of the following conditions?
A)Stomach contents leak into the duodenum
B)Contents of the esophagus leak into the duodenum
C)Contents of the esophagus leak into the stomach
D)Stomach contents leak into the esophagus
E)Contents of the duodenum leak into the stomach
Q2) Animals that drink their food are termed:
A)Bulk feeders
B)Substrate feeders
C)Suspension feeders
D)Deposit feeders
E)Fluid feeders
Q3) Antacids would be effective in which part of the digestive system?
A)Mouth
B)Esophagus
C)Small intestine
D)Stomach
E)Large intestine
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Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of endothermy over ectothermy?
A)Endotherms require less food and energy
B)Endotherms require less food
C)Endotherms can move quickly even if it is cold
D)Endotherms require less energy
E)Endotherms can move quickly even if it is cold and use less food
Q3) Which of the following is true of endotherms in comparison to ectotherms?
A)They have a higher metabolic rate and oxygen consumption
B)They have a lower metabolic rate and oxygen consumption
C)They have a higher metabolic rate and lower rate of oxygen consumption
D)They have a lower metabolic rate and higher rate of oxygen consumption
Q4) Alcohol reduces ADH secretion which in turn does which of the following?
A)Decreases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume
B)Decreases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume
C)Increases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume
D)Increases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume
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Chapter 33: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would HIV infection lead to immunodeficiency?
A)All of the antibodies in the body bind to HIV and cannot bind other pathogens
B)HIV infects the bone marrow where immune cells are produced
C)HIV infects T helper cells
D)Antibodies cannot bind to HIV
E)The body cannot make antibodies to HIV
Q2) A molecule that stimulates an immune system reaction by B cells and T cells is termed a(an):
A)Antibody
B)Antigen
C)Substrate
D)Phagocyte
E)Complement protein
Q3) Adaptive immune defenses provide a rapid,broad defense against any infectious agent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an autoimmune disease,the immune system attacks the body's "self antigens."
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a spermatogonium divides mitotically,one daughter cell remains in the seminiferous tubule wall and acts as stem cell that gives rise to cells that specialize into sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Human spermatogonia:
A)Are diploid cells that reside within the seminiferous tubules
B)Are germ cells
C)Are germ cells that reside within the seminiferous tubules
D)Reside within the seminiferous tubules
E)Are diploid
Q3) The gland that forms from ruptured follicle cells in the ovary and secretes estrogen and progesterone is the:
A)Bulbo-urethral gland
B)Prostate gland
C)Pubis symphysis
D)Pineal gland
E)Corpeus luteum
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Chapter 35: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imprinting is a type of innate behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What did the scientists conclude from figure 35.26?
A)Increased ADH receptor in the reward area of the brain led to more bonding with a partner
B)Increased ADH receptor in the reward area of the brain led to more bonding with a stranger
C)Increased ADH receptor in the brain had no effect on bonding
D)Increased ADH receptor anywhere in the brain led to more bonding with a partner
E)Increased ADH receptor anywhere in the brain led to more bonding with a stranger
Q3) In the study,______ voles were monogamous and social,while _____ voles were promiscuous and solitary.
A)Prairie, Montane
B)Montane, Prairie
C)Pug-nosed, Prairie
D)Montane, Pug-nosed
E)Prairie, Pug-nosed
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Chapter 36: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The example of what happened to the reindeer population in 1964 that had been previously introduced to St.Matthew Island in the Bering Sea represents what is referred to as a population crash.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Researchers studying guppies in Trinidad found that guppies in streams with high predation reproduced earlier and more frequently.Which of the following is most important in driving the guppies to change their life history in face of predation?
A)K-selection
B)r-selection
C)Density-independent factors
D)Density-dependent factors
E)Sexual selection
Q3) In regards to a species life history,r-selected species:
A)Are long lived
B)Provide extensive care for their offspring
C)Are limited primarily by carrying capacity
D)Reproduce later in life
E)Produce many offspring
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eutrophication can be caused by excess accumulation of which of the following in a body of water?
A)Nitrogen
B)Phosphorous
C)Carbon
D)Nitrogen or phosphorous
E)Nitrogen or carbon
Q2) Mycorrhizal fungi obtain food from plants in exchange for water and nutrients.This is an example of:
A)Commensalism
B)Parasitism
C)Mutualism
D)Predation
E)Herbivory
Q3) The _____________________ cycle begins with the weathering of rock.
A)Phosphorous cycle
B)Nitrogen cycle
C)Water cycle
D)Energy cycle
E)Carbon cycle
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Chapter 38: The Biosphere
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Q1) It is amazing that life can exist around deep sea hydrothermal vents because the pressure is ___________ times greater than on the surface of the Earth.
A)Three hundred
B)Two hundred
C)One hundred
D)Fifty
E)Ten
Q2) The deepest region of lake water where light does not penetrate is the:
A)Littoral zone
B)Limnetic zone
C)Profundal zone
D)Pelagic zone
E)Benthic zone
Q3) The sediment at the lake bottom is the:
A)Littoral zone
B)Limnetic zone
C)Profundal zone
D)Benthic zone
E)Pelagic zone
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity
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Q1) A type of air pollution that forms a visible haze in the lower atmosphere is:
A)Fog
B)Paticulation
C)Smog
D)Acid rain
E)Smoke
Q2) At which elevations were most frog extinctions occurring according to figure 39.21a?
A)0-199 m
B)200-1000 m
C)2,400-4,000 m
D)1,001-2,399 m
E)They were equally distributed at all elevations.
Q3) Cattails are most likely being impacted by purple loosestrife by:
A)Predation
B)Parasitism
C)Mutualism
D)Competitive exclusion
E)Commensalism
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