
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biology introduces students to the basic principles that govern living organisms and biological systems. This course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore how living things grow, reproduce, interact, and adapt to their environments. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and interactive activities, learners will develop a foundational understanding of biological processes and scientific inquiry, preparing them for more advanced studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of The Living World 4th Edition by George B Johnson
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Q1) A discrete unit of genetic information is called a ___________.
Answer: gene
Q2) Why is it impossible for supernatural,religious,and unexplained phenomena to be explained by biology?
Answer: No Answer
Q3) Choose the characteristic that is NOT a defining property of living things.
A) Movement
B) Metabolism
C) Cellular organization
D) Homeostasis
Answer: A
Q4) Which of the following is incorrect about scientific experiments?
A) Hypotheses can be rejected.
B) Alternative hypotheses can be proposed and tested after initial experimentation.
C) A scientific theory is mainly an educated "guess."
D) Supernatural phenomena are not scientifically testable.
E) In a control experiment,the variable is not altered.
Answer: C
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Q1) The volume of space around a nucleus where an electron is most likely to be located is called the _______________ of that electron.
A) energy level
B) spin
C) pathway
D) orbital
Answer: D
Q2) Strong,___________________ bonds are needed for the building of complex biological molecules.
A) directional
B) nondirectional
C) stationary
D) ionic
E) covalent
Answer: A
Q3) Due to hydrogen bonding,ice is _______ dense than water.
Answer: less
Q4) When water ionizes,the negatively charged OH fragment is the ____________ ion. Answer: hydroxide
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Q1) Denaturation of proteins is always a reversible process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The carbohydrate that plants use to store energy is called
A) starch.
B) cellulose.
C) fructose.
D) sucrose.
E) chitin.
Answer: A
Q3) Describe the structure of DNA.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Which polymer serves as the information storage molecule for cells?
A) Carbohydrate
B) Nucleic acid
C) Protein
D) Lipids
Answer: B
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Q1) Cells engulfing large particles is called ___________________.
Q2) Why can't many molecules,like sugars and proteins,pass freely across the lipid bilayer of plasma membranes?
Q3) Select the membrane molecule that is made up of a polar region with two nonpolar fatty acid tails.
A) Phospholipids
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Transmembrane proteins
D) Carbohydrate chains
Q4) In addition to a plasma membrane,plant cells have ______________ which protect and support the plant cell.
Q5) ______________ function in the collection,packaging,and distribution of molecules made in the cell.
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosomes
C) Golgi bodies
D) Vesicles
Q6) The big difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that eukaryotes have membrane-bounded ______________________ and prokaryotes do not.
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Q1) Do all cells contain the same active enzymes? Support your answer.
Q2) The First Law of Thermodynamics states
A) that energy can be changed from one form to another,but cannot be created or destroyed.
B) that energy is constantly being created by entropy events.
C) that energy can be used and then destroyed because of entropy's actions on it.
D) that energy can be destroyed while it is producing entropy.
Q3) All of the following are correct about energy except
A) The biological world gets its energy from the sun.
B) Chemical bonds store potential energy.
C) All forms of energy can be converted to heat.
D) Energy is defined as the ability to do work.
E) A boulder perched on a hill has kinetic energy.
Q4) Which are the components of an ATP molecule?
A) Deoxyribose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
B) Ribose,2 phosphates,1 thymine
C) Deoxyribose,ribose,1 cytosine
D) Ribose,3 phosphates,1 adenine
E) Glucose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
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Q1) How many turns of the Calvin cycle are needed to make one glucose molecule?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Q2) A pigment appears red if it absorbs red light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Light energy arrives at earth in tiny packets called A) rays.
B) photons.
C) light waves.
D) wavelengths.
Q4) In the light-dependent reactions in plants,electrons flow from photosystem ___________ to photosystem ___________.
Q5) Thylakoids are stacked on top of one another into columns called _______________.
Q6) ____________ catalyzes the first step in the Calvin cycle and is also the most abundant enzyme on Earth.
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Q1) A proton _______ drives protons out across the mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space.
Q2) The Krebs cycle turns _______ times per glucose.
Q3) What happens to pyruvate,the end product of glycolysis,before it enters the Krebs cycle?
A) It is reduced.
B) It is phosphorylated.
C) It is carboxylated.
D) It is oxidized.
Q4) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.
Q5) Which stage in cellular respiration evolved first?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Electron transport chain
D) Fermentation
Q6) When a high-energy phosphate group is transferred from a substrate to ADP it is called _____________.
Q7) Amino acids from proteins undergo _____ prior to entering into the Krebs cycle.
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Q8) Describe how adding a phosphate to ATP or removing a phosphate group from ATP stores or releases energy.

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Q1) The cell division cycle is regulated by proteins called growth factors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chromosomes are composed of a complex of DNA and protein called A) spindle.
B) centrioles.
C) chromatin.
D) cytochrome.
E) cytokinesis.
Q3) The knoblike structure at the constriction of a chromosome is called the
Q4) The G<sub>1</sub>,S,and G<sub>2</sub> phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) mitosis.
D) meiosis.
E) metaphase.
Q5) During mitosis,chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the cell during the phase called __________________________.
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Q1) Reproduction by mitosis only is asexual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In plants like the fern,haploid cells produced by meiosis divide by __________ to form a multicellular haploid phase.
A) meiosis
B) binary fission
C) mitosis
D) budding
Q3) Which scientist is credited with proposing in 1887 that an egg and a sperm fuse to form a zygote?
A) Watson
B) Crick
C) Fleming
D) Muller
E) van Beneden
Q4) Meiosis involves 4 nuclear divisions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the evolutionary significance of crossing over?
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Q1) Tall is dominant to dwarf in pea plants.If two dwarf pea plants were crossed,their offspring will be
A) all tall plants.
B) all dwarf plants.
C) half tall,half dwarf plants.
D) plants of an intermediate height.
Q2) Humans who have lost one copy of an autosome are called ____________ and generally do not survive development.
A) monosomics
B) trisomics
C) eusomics
D) diploids
Q3) When homologous chromosomes or chromatids fail to separate properly in meiosis,this is called _________________.
Q4) If a white-flowered pea plant (ww)is crossed with a heterozygous purple-flowered plant (Ww),what will their offspring look like?
Q5) Mendel's law that states only one allele specifying an alternative trait can be carried in a particular gamete is called the _________________________________.
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Q1) A base substitution will lead to a frame-shift mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The significance of the Griffith,Avery,and Hershey-Chase experiments was that they demonstrated that
A) genes were located on chromosomes.
B) enzymes transformed bacteria.
C) proteins were what genes were composed of.
D) DNA was the molecule of heredity.
Q3) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence ATTGCAT,its complementary strand will have the sequence
A) ATTGCAT.
B) TAACGTA.
C) GCCATGC.
D) CGGTACG.
Q4) The place where the parent DNA molecule becomes unzipped for replication is called the ___________________.
Q5) Each strand in the double helix is identical to the opposite strand.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What is RNA interference?
A) When small RNAs form double-stranded RNA molecules that can regulate gene expression.
B) When proteins block the transcription of DNA in the nucleus.
C) When an RNA virus blocks the DNA replication of the host cell.
D) When tRNA attaches to the ribosome and blocks its movement along the mRNA.
Q2) In eukaryotes,the RNA copy of DNA that leaves the nucleus and travels to the cytoplasm to make proteins is
A) ribosomal RNA.
B) tRNA.
C) mRNA.
D) RNA polymerase.
Q3) In prokaryotes,the primary function of gene control is to
A) respond quickly to the immediate environment.
B) adjust to available nutrients and oxygen.
C) alter transcription in irreversible and stable ways.
D) The first two are correct.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Genes that are transcribed together as a single unit in prokaryotes are found on DNA segments called ____________________.
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Q1) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q2) Explain how gene reprogramming,or epigenetics,works.
Q3) _________ is an intron free copy of a eukaryotic gene.
Q4) The first genome to be sequenced was A) bacterial.
B) viral. C) human.
D) plant.
Q5) All of these are types of noncoding human DNA except A) structural DNA. B) repeated sequences. C) transposable elements. D) exons.
Q6) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA as there are genes in the human genome?
Q7) The introduction of "healthy" genes into cells that lack them is called
Q8) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
Q9) What is the advantage of using restriction enzymes to cleave DNA? Page 15
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Q1) What is the process of natural selection?
Q2) Sizes of natural populations remain relatively stable over time because ___________ limits population numbers.
A) death
B) birth
C) immigration
D) emigration
Q3) In small populations,gene frequencies can change drastically by chance alone.This phenomenon is called
A) migration.
B) density-independent effects.
C) density-dependent effects.
D) genetic drift.
Q4) Over time,the same bones in different vertebrates were put to different uses.This falls under the category of A) heterologous structures.
B) vestigial organs.
C) analogous structures.
D) homologous structures.
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Q1) A multi-level system of grouping allows scientists to ___________ organisms.
A) discover
B) identify
C) classify
D) dissect
Q2) Which of the following domains each contain only one kingdom?
A) Bacteria and Fungi
B) Archaea and Bacteria
C) Fungi and Protista
D) Protista and Animalia
E) Animalia and Plantae
Q3) The ___________________ concept determines if a group of organisms makes up a separate species based on whether or not it can interbreed with other such groups.
Q4) Do all organisms fit equally well under the biological species concept? Explain.
Q5) The most objective way to construct a phylogeny is to focus on characters
A) that are large in size.
B) that confer adaptedness to a particular habitat.
C) inherited from a common ancestor.
D) acquired during an organism's lifetime.
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Q1) Fungi obtain nutrients by _______________ digestion.
Q2) Prokaryotes reproduce using a method called _________________.
Q3) Protists that have unique,double shells of silica and contain chlorophylls a and c are called
A) green algae.
B) diatoms.
C) red algae.
D) forams.
Q4) The mutualistic associations between plant roots and fungi are called _______.
A) molds
B) lichens
C) mycorrhizae
D) truffles
Q5) Viruses contain ________ as their genetic material.
A) DNA and RNA
B) RNA or DNA
C) protein
D) carbohydrate
Q6) Are viruses living or nonliving? Explain.

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Q7) The slender filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called
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Q1) In double fertilization,the second fertilization after fertilization of the egg occurs with the
A) carpel.
B) pollen.
C) synergids.
D) polar nuclei.
Q2) All of the following are methods plants have evolved to help them conserve water except for
A) a waxy cuticle.
B) stomata.
C) seeds.
D) mycorrhizae.
Q3) When you see a fern,the large plant you are looking at is the A) endosperm.
B) gametophyte.
C) sporophyte.
D) rhizoid.
E) antheridium.
Q4) Of what advantage might it be for a plant to produce a seed rather than to be seedless?
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Q1) Which is incorrect about deuterostomes?
A) The commitment of embryonic cells to prescribed developmental pathways occurs later than in protostomes.
B) The blastopore becomes the animal's anus.
C) The archenteron outpockets to form coelom.
D) Embryonic cells cleave in a spiral pattern.
Q2) The function of the notochord is taken over by the ____________ in vertebrates.
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) vertebral column
D) ribs
Q3) All mammals have three middle-ear bones which evolved from
A) bones in the reptile jaw.
B) pharyngeal cartilage.
C) bones of the skull.
D) the eye sockets.
Q4) The ____________________ made diverse tools,including spearheads and hand axes,lived in huts or caves,and were the closest evolutionary relatives of modern humans.
Q5) Bony fishes evolved a ________________________ to help keep them afloat.
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Q1) ______________ serves to narrow niche breadth.
A) Competition
B) Predation
C) Symbiosis
D) Commensalism
Q2) Choose the best definition of the term "ecology."
A) Ecology is the study of how animals behave and how those behaviors evolved.
B) Ecology is the study of how biological and non-biological components cycle through ecosystems.
C) Ecology is the study of the diversity of life.
D) Ecology is the study of interactions of organisms with each other and with their habitat.
Q3) Which organism is more likely to go extinct-one with a specialized,narrow niche or one with a broad,generalized niche? Explain your answer.
Q4) Choose the best definition of a community.
A) All of the organisms plus the nonliving habitat
B) Living organisms and soil
C) The dominant organisms in an area
D) All of the organisms in an area
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Q1) A ___________ is a type of major land ecosystem determined mostly by the features of the climate in the area.Many are actually named for the dominant plants or lack of.
A) biome
B) community
C) biosphere
D) land formation
Q2) The flow of energy is one way,but nutrients in ecosystems _____________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical habitat in which organisms live?
A) Rocks
B) Water
C) Wind
D) Bacteria
Q4) How have humans intruded into the global water cycle?
Q5) Plants obtain the carbon used in the manufacture of organic compounds from
A) organic compounds in the soil.
B) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
C) fossil fuels.
D) carbon dioxide in the soil.
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Q1) ___________ learning is a change in behavior that involves an association between two stimuli,or between a stimulus and a response.
Q2) Young birds see objects flying overhead and respond by crouching down into the nest and remaining still.Over time some objects become familiar and the young birds do not crouch down.This type of learning is referred to as
A) sensitization.
B) associative learning.
C) operant conditioning.
D) habituation.
Q3) Selection that favors altruism directed towards relatives is referred to as
Q4) Which of the following scientists studied ducklings and their reaction to him after hatching from their eggs?
A) Lorenz
B) Timbergen
C) Wilson
D) Von Frisch
Q5) The field of _____ focuses on the study of animal behavior in natural conditions.
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Q1) Ecosystems that have undergone fragmentation may have their fragmented habitats reconnected by _____________ extending between fragments.
A) preserves
B) home ranges
C) suboptimal habitats
D) corridors
Q2) The chemical shield that protects the Earth's surface from ultraviolet radiation is _____________.
Q3) An increase in the rate of extinction is the heart of the ____________ crisis.
Q4) Los Angeles is a brown air city because of the formation of _________.
Q5) Currently,the human population is growing rapidly due to high birth rate.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which factor is responsible for causing the most animal extinctions?
A) Species overexploitation
B) Habitat loss
C) Introduced species
Q7) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The outer layer of bone,referred to as ________________,is dense and strong.
A) the cortex
B) the medulla
C) compact bone
D) spongy bone
Q2) All of the following make up connective tissue except A) cells of the immune system.
B) cells of the skeletal system.
C) blood.
D) fat cells.
E) nerve cells.
Q3) List the two principal types of cells of the immune system,and describe their functions.
Q4) Walking and lifting objects all require this type of muscle.
A) Smooth
B) Cardiac
C) Skeletal
Q5) All types of muscle contain actin and myosin myofilaments.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The heart valve guarding the entrance to the aorta is the _________ valve.
Q2) When heart valves do not close fully and a turbulence is created within the heart,this can be heard using a stethoscope as
A) a lub dub.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) a heart murmur.
D) a major heart defect.
Q3) Exchange of nutrients and gases between tissue cells and the blood takes place through the walls of
A) veins.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
Q4) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
Q5) The average lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately A) 15 days.
B) 30 days.
C) 60 days.
D) 120 days.
E) 200 days.

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Q1) What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
A) The diaphragm
B) The pleural membrane
C) The trachea
D) The bronchus
Q2) Which mineral in hemoglobin binds oxygen in a reversible way?
A) Nitrogen
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Zinc
E) Sodium
Q3) During inhalation,air flows into the lungs because
A) air pressure is greater outside the body than in the lungs and naturally flows inside once the chest has expanded.
B) the strong chest muscles are sucking in air.
C) air moves passively in and out of the lungs through time.
D) the surfactant in the lungs "draws" in air because of its adhesive properties.
Q4) In mammals,the diaphragm separates the ____________ cavity from the abdominal cavity.
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Q1) A function of the pancreas is to remove toxins,pesticides,and other poisons from the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Essential organic substances that are used in only tiny amounts by the body are called
A) trace elements.
B) hormones.
C) vitamins.
D) minerals.
Q3) The innermost layer of the vertebrate digestive tract is called the ____________ and consists of an epithelium that lines the lumen.
A) serosa
B) muscularis
C) mucosa
D) submucosa
Q4) In the small intestine,each of the cells covering a villus is covered on its outer surface with projections called ________________.
Q5) Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the ________________.
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Q1) In a type of homeostatic control system called a ____________,a response that changes a condition back toward the set point causes the integrating center to stop directing effectors to produce that response.
Q2) The dynamic constancy of the internal environment of animals,in which conditions such as temperature,pH,and nutrient concentrations are kept within narrow limits,is termed
A) negative feedback loop.
B) the set point.
C) osmoregulation.
D) homeostasis.
Q3) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called __________________.
Q4) When human body temperature gets too high,the hypothalamus responds by causing blood vessels to constrict.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All vertebrates other than mammals are ectothermic. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain how the Bowman's capsule works.
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Q1) Describe the role of macrophages in protecting the body against disease.
Q2) A(n)____________________ disease is a disease in which the body mounts an immune attack against its own tissues.
Q3) Which cell dampens the activity of T and B cells after the infection has been checked?
A) Mast cell
B) Cytotoxic T cell
C) Suppressor T cell
D) Memory B cell
E) Natural killer cell
Q4) The self-identifying proteins on self body cells are called
A) perforins.
B) MHC proteins.
C) plasma proteins.
D) interleukin-1.
E) antibodies.
Q5) Considering that HIV mutates more rapidly than the flu virus,do you expect that there will soon be a vaccine to prevent AIDS? Explain.
Q6) The virus that causes AIDS is the called _______________.
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Q1) The ____________ is responsible for deep-seated emotions,including sex,hunger,thirst,pain,anger,and pleasure.
A) brain stem
B) limbic system
C) pituitary gland
D) cerebellum
Q2) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which forms an excitatory synapse in ____ muscle and an inhibitory synapse in _____ muscle.
A) smooth;skeletal
B) skeletal;cardiac
C) cardiac;skeletal
D) skeletal;smooth
Q3) ______________ nerves carry impulses away from the central nervous system.
A) Sensory
B) Motor
C) Afferent
D) Involuntary
Q4) The sensory receptors that sense changes in the body's internal environment are called _______________.
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Q1) Estrogen,testosterone,and progesterone are _____________ hormones,which are manufactured from cholesterol.
Q2) Excessive alcohol and caffeine consumption stimulate antidiuretic hormone and promote water retention.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The posterior pituitary releases ____________ that stimulates uterine contractions.
Q4) _______________ hormone stimulates the adrenal gland to produce several steroid hormones.
A) Adrenocorticotropic
B) Follicle-stimulating
C) Luteinizing
D) Growth
Q5) Receptors for peptide hormones lie
A) in the nucleus of the cell.
B) in the cytoplasm.
C) within the cell membrane.
D) All of these are correct.
Q6) Peptide hormones employ ______________ that amplify the response of the cell.
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Q1) All of the following methods of birth control prevent fertilization of the ovum by sperm except
A) the diaphragm.
B) condoms.
C) birth control pills.
D) intrauterine devices (IUDs).
E) spermicidal foams or jellies.
Q2) During the stage called neurulation,a flexible rod,called a _______________,forms along the midline of the dorsal surface of the embryo.
A) dorsal nerve cord
B) neural groove
C) somite
D) notochord
Q3) Sequential hermaphroditism among coral reef fish in which an individual is first female then male is called _______________.
Q4) At birth,a human female's gametes are fully mature egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how oxytocin and prostaglandins function during labor and childbirth.
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Q1) In plants,primary growth occurs at an active growth zone called a(n)
A) apical meristem.
B) lateral meristem.
C) internode.
D) cork cambium.
Q2) ____________ are outgrowths of the epidermis that occur on the shoot.
A) Root hairs
B) Sieve cells
C) Tracheids
D) Trichomes
Q3) In a mature tree,the point where the bark can be peeled off the wood is where the ________________ lies.
A) secondary xylem
B) periderm
C) cork cambium
D) vascular cambium
Q4) Explain how plants are able to raise water to great heights at the top of the tree.
Q5) Describe the primary growth of a stem and explain how growth of lateral shoots is suppressed.
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Q1) Describe how adventitious plantlets form.
Q2) In order to delay the ripening of tomatoes,the gene for this hormone has been disrupted in genetically engineered tomatoes.
A) Gibberellin
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Abscisic acid
E) Ethylene
Q3) ____________ is the mechanism by which organisms measure seasonal changes in relative day and night length.
Q4) __________ auxins,such as 2,4-D,are routinely used to control weeds and are applied in concentrations higher than would occur in the plant tissues such that weeds literally "grow to death."
A) Synthetic
B) Natural
C) Organic
D) Methylated
Q5) When pollen from a flower's anther pollinates the same flower's stigma,the process is called _____________________.
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