Fundamentals of Biological Science
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Biological Science introduces students to the foundational principles and concepts that underpin the study of living organisms. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biological diversity, this course explores how organisms interact with their environments and each other. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the role of biology in addressing real-world problems. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the mechanisms driving life processes and the interconnectedness of all living systems.
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Discover Biology 6th Edition by Anu Singh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) When compared with natural systems,a college campus-including its facilities-is most similar to a(n)
A) ecosystem.
B) community.
C) biome.
D) population.
Answer: A
Q2) The brain is considered an organ because it is constructed from nerve cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) To survive,living organisms must be able to sense and respond to both their internal and external ________.
Answer: environments
Q4) The discovery that bacteria living in Mono Lake may have replaced the phosphorus in certain biomolecules with ________ has challenged long-held assumptions about the chemical nature of life.
Answer: arsenic
Page 3
Q5) The scientific method begins with ________.
Answer: observations
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a method used to tenderize meat?
A) marinades with high pH
B) lemon juice,vinegar,or wine
C) brining or soaking in a salt water bath for several hours
D) pounding or grinding meat
Answer: A
Q2) The number that represents neutrality on the pH scale is ________.
Answer: 7
Q3) Fevers in young children are a particular concern because oxygen is less effectively transported by hemoglobin at high temperature.How might this be explained?
A) The hemoglobin becomes denatured and cannot transport the oxygen.
B) The oxygen becomes denatured and cannot bind to the hemoglobin.
C) Oxygen has too much thermal energy to be bound by hemoglobin.
D) Oxygen evaporates at high temperature and is not available for binding with hemoglobin.
Answer: A
Q4) The monomers in proteins are ________.
Answer: amino acids
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes are primarily distinguished by the absence or presence of internal,membrane-bound organelles.Are prokaryotic cells at an evolutionary disadvantage because they lack organelles?
A) Yes;without organelles,prokaryotic cells cannot photosynthesize or respire.
B) Yes;without organelles,prokaryotes are unable to bring together the reactants needed for biological reactions.
C) No;although prokaryotic cells are comparatively less efficient than eukaryotic cells,they are still able to carry out the processes necessary for survival and reproduction.
D) No;eukaryotic organelles are expelled each time the cell divides.
Answer: C
Q2) The plasma membrane of a cell and the membrane boundaries of organelles,such as mitochondria and chloroplasts,serve similar functions.What is one of the main functions of the membranes of both cells and organelles?
A) They keep reactants near each other to speed biological reactions.
B) They allow external chemicals to diffuse freely into and out of the cell.
C) They encourage cellular respiration at the membrane boundaries.
D) They keep water out of the cell and organelle interiors.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Elevated HDL (high-density lipoprotein)levels seem to provide positive cardiovascular health effects,even for individuals with abnormally high blood cholesterol.What best describes the beneficial action of HDL?
A) HDL lines the blood vessel walls,preventing the attachment of cholesterol and the consequential inflammation that follows.
B) HDL is an anti-inflammatory agent;it suppresses the inflammatory response in blood vessel walls following the entry of cholesterol.
C) HDL has cardiostimulatory effects;it elevates heart rate and blood pressure in a fashion similar to exercise.
D) HDL collects surplus cholesterol from peripheral tissues and transports it to the liver,reproductive,and adrenal glands where it is converted to bile or hormones.
Q2) A positive correlation has been shown between HDL and dementia;unfortunately,lowering HDL without medication is difficult,and serious side effects have been reported.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) High temperatures generally cause the three-dimensional configuration of most enzymes to be destroyed.Enzymes that have been affected by high temperatures in this way have been ________.
Q2) An insect devouring a leaf is an example of the second law of thermodynamics in action.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a living system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Photosynthesis creates energy;cellular respiration destroys energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Enzymes can catalyze a chemical reaction only if
A) they encounter a molecule of ATP.
B) their active site is sufficiently oxidized.
C) they have both products in their active site at the same time.
D) they encounter a substrate that fits their active site.
Q6) The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called the ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Several plant pigments have significant antioxidant qualities and can protect a cell from the damage inflicted on its biomolecules by free radicals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following substances is NOT a respiratory poison?
A) rotenone
B) carbonic anhydrase
C) cyanide
D) carbon monoxide
Q3) Glycolysis is an anaerobic process,which means that glycolytic reactions
A) require no oxygen.
B) produce molecular oxygen.
C) produce ATP.
D) produce citric acid.
Q4) The mitochondria of plant cells contain thylakoids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The innermost membrane in a chloroplast is the ________ membrane.
Q6) The green pigment that is most commonly associated with photosynthesis is
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) The completion of the physical division of the parent cell cytoplasm that usually occurs during the last stage of mitosis is known as
A) centrosome formation.
B) G<sub>0</sub>.
C) cytokinesis.
D) meiosis.
Q2) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the phase of cell division called A) metaphase.
B) anaphase.
C) telophase.
D) interphase.
Q3) The sequence of events in meiosis II is prophase II,________,anaphase II,and telophase II,which is accompanied by cytokinesis.
Q4) All cells in a human body undergo the process of meiosis. A)True
B)False
Q5) Microtubules attach to plaques of protein on chromosomes;these plaques are called ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) A benign growth is noncancerous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cancers that spread throughout the body with life-threatening consequences are called ________.
Q3) A benign polyp in the colon always progresses to malignant colon cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genes that increase the rate of cell division are ________ growth regulators.
Q5) Scientists develop an antibody that binds to telomerase and prevents it from repairing telomeres.This antibody would be useful in treating cancer cells because it would
A) activate tumor suppressor genes.
B) activate proto-oncogenes.
C) give the cell immortality.
D) decrease the amount of times the cell could divide.o
Q6) Breast cancer that is not inherited is caused by ________ mutations.
Q7) All viruses cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) When gametes are formed,the separation of alleles for one gene is unrelated to the separation of alleles for other genes.This idea is known as Mendel's law of ________.
Q2) A genetic cross in which the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes is an example of ________.
Q3) Which of the following represents all of the possible gametes that can be formed by an individual with the genetic makeup Ff GgHH ?
A) FGH,FgH,fGH,fgH
B) Ff,Gg,HH
C) FG,FH,Fg,fH,fG,fg,GH,gH
D) Ff GhHH,FFGGHH,f fgghh
Q4) Before Gregor Mendel,it was believed that offspring should be intermediate in phenotype to their two parents and that it should be impossible for "lost" traits to reappear in later generations.This idea was known as ________ inheritance.
Q5) The first generation of phenotypes resulting from a genetic cross between two members of the parental generation would be seen in the ________ generation.
Q6) The expressed characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The chance that any two siblings will be genetically identical is astronomically small.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a genetic disorder is caused by a dominant allele,individuals with which of the following genotypes would be affected by the disorder?
A) AA and aa
B) aa and Aa
C) AA and Aa
D) AA,Aa,and aa
Q3) An XX individual develops as a male.Which of the following statements offers the most likely explanation?
A) This is the usual situation for an XX individual.
B) This occurs when the sperm does not contribute any genetic material.
C) A piece of a Y chromosome has become attached to one of the X chromosomes.
D) This occurs when the egg does not contribute any genetic material.
Q4) During meiosis,"new" chromosomes are generated when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material during ________.
Q5) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or ________-linked.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) The significance of specific base pairing in DNA is that
A) it stabilizes the sugar molecule.
B) it provides a method for making exact copies of DNA.
C) it prevents errors in DNA replication.
D) protein copies can be made directly from the DNA.
Q2) What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
A) sugar
B) phosphate
C) base
D) polymerase
Q3) A segment of DNA is present in a gene,is transcribed,but is not used in translation.This segment of DNA is a(an)
A) intron.
B) transposon.
C) spacer DNA.
D) exon.
Q4) The sequence of bases along a single strand of DNA is complementary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) A chemical that causes the formation of covalent bonds between adenines and thymines on opposite DNA strands is added to a cell in such a way that the bonds between the nucleotides cannot be broken.How does this drug affect gene expression in the cell?
A) The chemical increases the efficiency of protein production by making it easier for tRNA to interact with the correct mRNA codons.
B) The chemical prevents transcription from occurring so that proteins cannot be made. C) The chemical prevents protein production because once made,the RNA cannot separate from its DNA template.
D) The chemical has no effect on protein production because mRNA contains uracil rather than thymine.
Q2) Each tRNA molecule can bind with up to three codons,but carries only one specific
Q3) Some tRNAs can recognize more than one codon because the base at the third position of their anticodon can pair with any one of two or three different bases in the codon;this phenomenon is called ________.
Q4) Most molecules of RNA are ________-stranded.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a genetically modified organism?
A) a bacterium that produces the human insulin protein
B) a virus used in gene therapy containing a "good copy" of a human gene
C) human cells isolated from a tumor and grown in a dish
D) a petunia plant that expresses human antibody proteins
Q2) A DNA fingerprint is also called a DNA ________.
Q3) Bt-corn has been genetically engineered to express an insect-killing gene from the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis.How does this genetically engineered corn benefit the environment?
A) It provides a food source for important pollinator insects.
B) It decreases the amount of land necessary to grow the world's corn requirements.
C) It increases the amount of insecticide that needs to be used on the crops.
D) It decreases the amount of insecticide that needs to be used on the crops.
Q4) Which of the following is the best way to make many copies of a vector containing recombinant DNA?
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) DNA hybridization
C) reproductive cloning
D) DNA cloning
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) One of the reasons why scientists have had so much difficulty finding a cure for HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)and AIDS is that the virus is quick to evolve resistance to the drugs that are used to treat it.What is the most likely mechanism for this type of evolution?
A) Certain versions of the virus are slower to die when exposed to a drug than others.Those viruses may survive drug treatment and pass their genes to their offspring.
B) Every time a person takes an HIV drug,it randomly kills off most of the virus particles but not all of them.Those that survive repopulate the body of their host.
C) Although all copies of a particular strain of HIV are identical,some are better at hiding in regions of the body that drugs cannot reach,and those viruses "teach" their offspring where to hide.
D) Some versions of HIV produce chemicals that break down the drugs before they can harm the virus.
Q2) One result of ________ over evolutionary time spans is that the alleles that enable individuals to survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals become more common in the population.
Q3) Plate tectonics causes the ________ of Earth's landmasses over geologic time.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Geographic isolation limits the ________ between populations of a species.
A) genetic differences
B) adaptation
C) directional selection
D) gene flow
Q2) Today's diversity of mammals originated with an adaptive radiation that occurred 65 million years ago.This adaptive radiation occurred because
A) ecological niches were opened up and predators were removed.
B) the evolution of a novel trait that gave the animals an advantage.
C) the ancestral species colonized a new continent.
D) increased competition led to rapid natural selection.
Q3) Vertebrates are a group of related animals with a backbone.All vertebrates have basically the same eye structure.Therefore,the vertebrate eyes are
A) homologous structures.
B) vestigial structures.
C) analogous structures.
D) convergent structures.
Q4) The offspring of two individuals of different species that interbreed are known as ________.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) The lowest level of classification in the Linnaean hierarchy is the __________.
A) species
B) genus
C) domain
D) phylum
Q2) A node on an evolutionary tree represents ___________.
A) the most immediate ancestor that all lineages share
B) the interrelationships of all individuals within a single species
C) the divergence of an ancestral group into two separate lineages
D) the genetic relationship between individuals of all species
Q3) Evolutionary novelties shared by an ancestor and its descendants but not seen in groups that are not direct descendants of that ancestor are known as ___________.
A) common ancestral traits
B) heterologous traits
C) lineally descended characteristics
D) shared derived traits
Q4) A group of orders is called a(n)____________.
Q5) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Q6) The earliest forms of life evolved and lived in ____________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) The influenza virus evolves rapidly because DNA changes are frequently incorporated into the virus as it is being made.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some prokaryotes break down dead organisms and waste products to return the chemical elements back into the environment in a process called ________.
Q3) Dental hygienists carefully remove plaque,an aggregate of prokaryotic cells organized as a ________,from the surface of the teeth of their patients.
Q4) Carbon and energy are among the most basic life resources and organisms that have been classified with respect to how they are obtained.What term describes an organism that obtains these substances from inorganic molecules in rock and air?
A) chemoheterotroph
B) photoautotroph
C) photoheterotroph
D) chemoautotroph
Q5) Some bacteria can cause pathology by releasing a(n)________ that kills adjacent tissues.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Lichen can be useful as pollution indicator species;lacking a cuticle,they tend to readily absorb airborne pollutants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Resolving the relationship between the various kingdoms has been challenging because species often resemble one another;for example,the kingdom ________ contains some organisms that are animal-like and others that are plantlike.
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Archaea
D) Protista
Q3) Mutualistic organisms are more commonly termed parasites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first plant group to evolve a vascular system was the ________.
Q5) The flower is the basic reproductive structure of a plant;thus,all plants produce flowers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) In addition to embryonic similarities,the chordates and echinoderms also each possess a hollow nerve cord located on the ________ side of the body.
Q2) Neighboring plant or fungal cells share a common cell wall,making multicellularity relatively simple;how do animal cells remain connected to one another?
A) Animals cells share a common plasma membrane rather than a common cell wall.
B) Long interconnecting fibers extend from the nucleus of one cell to the nucleus of an adjacent cell.
C) Most animals produce a fiber-rich extracellular matrix to which their cells can attach.
D) Interdigitating pseudopodia form between adjacent cells,forming tight junctions.
Q3) Conservation biologists estimate that 20 percent of the world's bird species that existed 2,000 years ago are now extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tetrapods are so named because they possess four limbs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Tropical regions receive approximately the same amount of solar radiation as the polar regions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The particular type of terrestrial biome that develops is strongly influenced by
A) the animal species living in the area.
B) temperature,rainfall,and altitude.
C) other nearby biomes.
D) the plant species living in the area.
Q3) An easterly wind blows from the east toward the west.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following terms describes all organisms on Earth plus their environments?
A) biosphere
B) ecosystem
C) habitat
D) species
Q5) Despite the absence of photosynthesis,the continuous settling of detritus makes the ________ zone of the coastal ocean a stable habitat.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following choices best explains why some introduced species experience an initial period of exponential growth?
A) They typically have fewer natural predators and/or parasites in their new habitat,so their growth is unhindered until a critical resource becomes limiting.
B) Most introduced species show improved survival in new habitats in comparison to their old ones.
C) Growth patterns are functions of the habitat;introduced species grow exponentially,and their growth is virtually identical to that of the native species.
D) Native species specialize,leaving open habitats that new species can use.
Q2) The term population density describes the
A) body size of different species.
B) number of individuals per unit area.
C) number of populations per unit area.
D) number of species per unit area.
Q3) Exponential growth curves are always linear since the population grows at a constant proportion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Behaviors can evolve because behaviors are influenced by ________.
Q2) Nuptial gifts are
A) forms of communication used to end a sexual relationship.
B) forms of communication used to interest a potential sexual partner.
C) are seldom used because they are not usually effective.
D) are examples of altruistic behaviors.
Q3) Newborn sharks are drawn to blood in the water because they have
A) learned that blood in the water means that food is located nearby.
B) a fixed response to chemicals in blood.
C) imprinted that blood in the water means that food is located nearby.
D) a social response to blood in the water.
Q4) Fixed behaviors are learned.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the waggle dance of the honeybee,the angle of the "waggle" relative to up and down indicates the
A) direction to the food source.
B) richness of the food source.
C) type of food at the source.
D) distance to the food source.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Clownfish have evolved to live safely between the stinging tentacles of certain sea anemones.The fish receives protection from predators,whereas the anemone receives some food from the fish.This relationship is an example of
A) nutritional mutualism.
B) consumer interaction.
C) competitive limitation.
D) behavioral mutualism.
Q2) Human-caused changes in ecological communities can be considered unique because
A) humans have control over the actions that might cause the changes.
B) human-caused changes are always more severe than natural changes.
C) human-caused changes almost always benefit the existing community.
D) human-caused changes almost always modify the regional climate.
Q3) Communities change with respect to several timescales;an example of long-term change would be the
A) annual variability in population size.
B) presence or absence of a migrant species.
C) species composition of the community.
D) decline in prey abundance during a harsh winter.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following is the dominant type of organism in a natural terrestrial ecosystem that has the greatest net primary productivity (NPP)?
A) grass
B) trees
C) food crops
D) fish
Q2) Net primary productivity on land
A) tends to increase from the equator toward the poles.
B) tends to decrease from the equator toward the poles.
C) is greatest in deserts due to intense sunlight.
D) is very low in tropical areas due to excessive rainfall.
Q3) The imbalance of soil nutrients causing the hemlock population decline has been associated with ________ overpopulation.
A) bird
B) tree
C) insect
D) deer
Q4) Biologists use the term ________ to refer to the weight of organisms per unit area.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Plants remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through the process of ________.
Q2) Compared with past estimates,extinction rates are currently high.What is the most plausible explanation for this increase?
A) Natural fluctuations in climate are causing extinctions.
B) Continental drift is causing rapid changes in climate;these changes,in turn,cause extinctions.
C) Previous extinctions make survival of contemporary species more difficult.
D) Humans are affecting many aspects of the global environment.
Q3) If all bacteria were suddenly unable to absorb mercury,biomagnification of methylmercury would most likely
A) stop.
B) continue.
C) continue,but only in the lower trophic levels.
D) continue,but only in the higher trophic levels.
Q4) Scientists predict that current increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations will cause temperatures on Earth to rise,a phenomenon known as
Q5) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) For a vertebrate animal to obtain and use energy,
A) the digestive system is used to break down oxygen to be stored in cells.
B) the circulatory system must provide carbon dioxide to cells.
C) the circulatory,respiratory,digestive,endocrine,and nervous systems are some systems involved.
D) only one organ system,the digestive system,is needed.
Q2) If you have ever breathed air out of your lungs onto a cold glass surface,you have seen the glass fog up from water contained in your breath.Which of the descriptions below describes the journey of that water from a cell in your body to your breath?
A) blood plasma to lungs to capillary to interstitial fluid across the plasma membrane to cell interior
B) cell interior across the plasma membrane to blood plasma to interstitial fluid to capillary to lungs
C) cell interior across the plasma membrane to capillary to interstitial fluid to blood plasma to lungs
D) cell interior across the plasma membrane to interstitial fluid to capillary to blood plasma to lungs
Q3) The lack of water,otherwise known as ________,can lead to heatstroke.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The nutrients in food enter our body by crossing through the epithelial cells lining the ________ intestine.
Q2) Consider the parts of the digestive system,particularly the place where water is removed before feces are excreted.Which organ is most likely responsible for a bout of diarrhea?
A) colon
B) anus
C) stomach
D) esophagus
Q3) Prior to a sporting event,many competitors will ingest proteins for quick energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main function of enzymes in the human digestive tract is to
A) create the chemical bonds that form complex carbohydrates.
B) ensure that fats remain grouped together in large droplets.
C) catalyze chemical reactions that break specific chemical bonds in food molecules.
D) neutralize the acids produced by the stomach.
Q5) Vitamins are either water soluble or ________ soluble.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Although blood plasma carries many electrolytes,nutrients,and other components,the vast majority of plasma is made of ________.
Q2) Lance Armstrong and a significant group of world-class cyclists have been stripped of their medals and banned from international competition for using the synthetic hormone ________ to enhance their performances.
Q3) In comparison to the air in the alveoli,inhaled air has a
A) higher concentration of carbon dioxide and a lower concentration of oxygen.
B) higher concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
C) higher concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide.
D) lower concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
Q4) What action best describes the action occurring when the rib cage lifts upward and the diaphragm moves downward?
A) coughing
B) inhalation
C) expiration
D) sneezing
Q5) The cell fragments circulating in blood that can clump together and block blood flow at sites of injury are called ________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) A single hormone can have different effects on different tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By what mechanism do most hormones travel through the organism that produces them?
A) the circulatory system
B) diffusion
C) convection
D) the nervous system
Q3) Which of the following statements about the functions of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)and luteinizing hormone (LH)is FALSE?
A) FSH and LH control the development of sperm.
B) A sudden and rapid increase in LH triggers ovulation.
C) FSH stimulates the maturation of follicles.
D) A decrease in LH stimulates menstruation.
Q4) The female hormone estrogen prepares the uterine lining to receive a fertilized egg.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the ________ system.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) A myelin sheath
A) stores sodium ions.
B) acts as an electrical conductor.
C) acts as an insulator.
D) contains action potentials.
Q2) In regard to the peripheral nervous system (PNS),signals that occur involuntarily are under autonomic control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Action potentials can only occur at the nodes of Ranvier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At resting potential,the charge outside the neuron's plasma membrane is
A) positive because of the movement of myelin out of a neuron.
B) negative because of the sodium ions being pumped out of a neuron.
C) positive because sodium channels open in the axon but not in the cell body.
D) negative because sodium channels close in the dendrite but not in the axon.
Q5) Neurotransmitters move from dendrites to cell bodies to axons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Skeletons,Muscles,and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be found in an insect?
A) a neuromuscular junction
B) a sarcomere
C) marrow
D) chitin
Q2) Cardiac muscles branch to interconnect with other cardiac cells to create a coordinated heartbeat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The energy source for muscle contraction comes from
A) actin.
B) myosin.
C) ATP.
D) calcium ions.
Q4) Running times in the 100-meter dash have decreased due to A) a decrease in illegal drug use.
B) better corporate sponsors.
C) use of equipment that reduces drag.
D) use of equipment that increases drag.
Q5) The blue whale reduces drag with its streamlined shape and also its ________.
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Chapter 32: The Immune System
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Q1) Cells infected with virus almost never survive,but they may aid neighboring cells by releasing ________,a protein that attaches to the membrane of a healthy cell and inhibits viral entry.
Q2) The term clonal in clonal selection refers to the fact that
A) a lymphocyte can be easily converted into a stem cell line for laboratory research.
B) a single activated B cell produces many identical copies of the antibody,which react to the antigen that activated the B cell.
C) an activated B cell can convert itself quickly into helper and cytotoxic T cells that are specific for the same antigen.
D) once activated,a specific lymphocyte divides mitotically,producing identical copies of itself.
Q3) Despite its suitability as an infection site,the surface of the eye is rarely infected because tears release lysozyme,an antibacterial enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A disease-causing agent is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Human females probably evolved the ability to live beyond their reproductive years because
A) women once preferred to mate with men known to come from families with long life spans.
B) the hormones produced by the female reproductive system slow the aging process.
C) the contribution of grandmothers to child rearing increases the survival rate of children.
D) in early human cultures,women who produced children later in life were more likely to survive to raise their children.
Q2) The genetic material in an egg cell is as old as the female who ovulates the egg cell. A)True
B)False
Q3) Both oogenesis and spermatogenesis
A) produce four gametes from one germ line cell.
B) produce haploid gametes.
C) produce follicle cells.
D) occur continuously throughout the life of the individual.
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Chapter 34: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) What process powers water transport from the root to shoot of a plant?
A) osmosis
B) nitrogen fixation
C) differences in pressure as a result of active transport
D) transpiration
Q2) Most carnivorous plants obtain energy through photosynthesis;they consume insects to obtain ________ and ________.
Q3) Fibrous root systems have one predominant root and many smaller roots near the top of the main root.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What best explains why sugar maple trees are tapped on the sun-warmed south side of the trunk?
A) Sap on the north side of the tree is still frozen in early spring.
B) During the summer most photosynthesis occurs on the south side of the tree.
C) The reaction rate for the enzymes that convert starch to sucrose is temperature dependent.
D) The sap expands as it is warmed and flows upward through the trunk.
Q5) ________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
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Chapter 35: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Pollen grains develop from
A) haploid male spores.
B) the ovum.
C) haploid sperm.
D) embryo sacs.
Q2) Endosperm is the origin of the sperm that fertilizes the embryo.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plants grow in length
A) from lateral meristems located within the stem.
B) due to the elongation of cells throughout the body of the plant.
C) from vascular cambium located just under the bark.
D) only at the tips of the roots and the shoots where apical meristems are located.
Q4) Apical dominance develops when the shoot apex produces ________,a hormone that suppresses the outgrowth of lateral buds.
Q5) Increases in length due to cell divisions at apical meristems are called ________ growth.
Q6) Spores undergo mitosis to form the haploid ________,one of the two stages in the life cycle of plants.
Page 37
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