Fundamentals of Audiology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Audiology introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of the field of audiology. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the auditory and vestibular systems, the physics of sound, and the processes underlying normal and impaired hearing. Students will learn about common hearing disorders, methods of hearing assessment, audiometric testing, and the basics of hearing aid technology. Emphasis is placed on understanding the clinical role of the audiologist in diagnosis, patient management, and rehabilitation. This course provides a comprehensive overview for students interested in pursuing further studies or careers related to hearing health care.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An audiologist and mentee of Raymond Carhart who is particularly well-known for developing clinical diagnostic hearing tests is _____________.
Answer: James Jerger
Q2) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.
Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology
Q3) The first academic program in audiology was established by Raymond Carhart at ___________ University.
Answer: Northwestern
Q4) A professional who has expertise in providing patient services along with research education and experience is termed a __________________.
Answer: Clinical scholar
Q5) _____________ is considered to be the Father of Audiology.
Answer: Raymond Carhart
Q6) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on the physiology of the ear?
Answer: Georg von Bekesy
Q7) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession?
Answer: World war II
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three factors that influence the speed of sound are _________,_________,and _________.
Answer: Temperature, humidity, barometric pressure
Q2) Jane's threshold for a 2000 Hz pure tone is 40 dB SPL.What is the sensation level for a 2000 Hz presented to Jane at 50 dB SPL?
A)50 dB SPL
B)40 dB IL
C)90 dB HL
D)10 dB SL
Answer: D
Q3) An area with a high concentration of air particles is called
A)Condensation
B)Rarefaction
C)Vacuum
D)Anechoic chamber
Answer: A
Q4) The detection of a sound is influenced by its duration.This is referred to as ____________.
Answer: Temporal integration
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) List similarities and differences in the function of outer versus inner hair cells. Answer: Outer hair cells are capable of changing their length and shape motility), and this contributes to the active processes within the cochlea cochlear amplifier). Inner hair cells do not have the property of motility. Both outer and inner hair cells are important for the normal functioning of the cochlea.
Q2) List differences in the structure of outer versus inner hair cells.
Answer: Outer hair cells are about 12000 in number.They are cylinder-shaped.Their cell nucleus is close to the base of the cell body and mitochondria are arranged along the walls.The stereocilia of each outer hair are arranged in several rows in a W shape and the tallest stereocilia of each outer hair cell is embedded in the tectorial membrane.Inner hair cells are around 3500 in number.They are flask-shaped.Their cell nucleus is toward the center of the cell body The stereocilia of the inner hair cells are arranged in a shallow U shape in a single row and do not make contact with the tectorial membrane.
Q3) The volume of the adult external ear canal is about ______ cc.
Answer: 1 cc/ 1ml
Q4) What are the parts of the peripheral auditory system?
Answer: The outer ear,the middle ear, the inner ear, and the auditory nerve
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
Q2) Describe briefly what is meant by the term "patient rights"
Q3) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q4) Hearing testing is not possible for children under the age of 3 years. A)True B)False
Q5) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.
Q6) What is the best setting for hearing testing?
Q7) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q8) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q9) Why is calibration of hearing test equipment important?
Q10) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q11) How can medical errors be prevented in audiology?
Q13) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear? Page 6
Q12) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.
Q14) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.
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Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) An air-bone gap is a typical finding in
A)Normal hearing.
B)Sensorineural hearing loss.
C)Conductive hearing loss.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of insert earphones versus supra-aural earphones?
A)Attenuation of background ambient sound
B)Increased comfort
C)Better infection control
D)All of the above
Q3) The audiogram configuration of noise-induced hearing loss is characterized by a notching decrease in hearing sensitivity in the frequency region of:
A)8000 Hz
B)500 Hz
C)250 to 500 Hz
D)4000 Hz
Q4) What are some important steps that should precede pure tone audiometry?
Q5) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
Q6) What is a hearing threshold?
Page 8
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q2) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q3) What is a spondee word?
Q4) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q5) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q7) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q9) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
9
Q10) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q11) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
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Page 10
Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) While deciding to measure masked AC thresholds,which of the following should be considered?
A)Only the unmasked AC threshold/presentation level in the test ear
B)Only the amount of inter-aural attenuation
C)Only the BC threshold of the non-test ear
D)All of the above
Q2) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.
Q3) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
Q4) Minimum interaural attenuation for supra-aural earphones in air-conduction testing is:
A)0 dB
B)40 dB
C)60 dB
D)80 dB
Q5) Describe the occlusion effect.
Q6) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Only the stapedius muscle is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
B)Only the facial nerve is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
C)Only the ossicles are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
D)Many structures in the middle ear and the central auditory pathway are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
Q3) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.
Q4) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
Q5) OAEs are always normal when pure tone audiometry is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
Q7) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
Q8) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a
Page 12
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wave III of the ABR is believed to originate from the ______ part of the brainstem.
Q2) Provide a possible physiological explanation for abnormal rollover.
Q3) Which tests fall into the category of diagnostic speech audiometry?
A)Filtered word tests
B)Dichotic listening tests
C)Speech-in-noise tests
D)All of the above
Q4) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
Q5) The time difference between stimulus presentation and measurement of each peak in the ABR waveform is called
A)Absolute latency
B)Interpeak latency
C)Amplitude
D)Wave morphology
Q6) Why the ABR is important in pediatric hearing assessment?
Q7) Wave V of the ABR is believed to originate mostly from the ______ part of the brainstem.
Q8) Describe the PI-PB function.
Q9) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) VEMP testing involves measurement of changes in the tension of the _________ muscle.
Q2) Name three advantages of electroacoustic techniques such as otoacoustic emissions)over pure tone screening when performing hearing screening of preschool and school age children.
Q3) In recent years,____ combined with _____ have become accepted alternatives to pure tone screening for preschool and young school-age children.
Q4) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
Q5) The abbreviation VNG stands for ________________ ________________ .
Q6) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A balance test that takes into account vestibular sensation,vision,and somatosensory or proprioceptive information is called ________________.
Q8) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q9) What is the first step in the diagnostic process? Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are signs/symptoms of acute otitis media?
a.Fever
b.Pain
c.Ruptured tympanic membrane
d.All of the above
A)True
B)False
Q2) How are cholesteatomas managed?
Q3) Gentamyin is an example of an _________________________ antibiotic.
Q4) Explain why audiologists should have knowledge about ear diseases and disorders.
Q5) ____________ is the term used to describe an infection in the middle ear space.
Q6) Which of the following is a feature of otosclerosis?
A)Carhart's notch
B)Schwartz sign
C)Paracusis willisii
D)All of the above
Q7) Explain briefly how Eustachian tube dysfunction can lead to hearing loss.
Q8) A vaccine now exists for certain forms of meningitis.
A)True
B)False
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Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Q1) The term APD stands for _________________________.
Q2) Children with APD usually have abnormal pure tone hearing thresholds..
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
Q4) Why is neuroplasticity an important concept in audiology?
Q5) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and ______.
Q6) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q7) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q8) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above True or False
Q9) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults. Page 18
Q10) What are some major features of ANSD?
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Page 19
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A conventional behind-the-ear hearing aid is coupled to the ear with an
Q2) Let's say you are fitting a hearing aid on a young child.How would you instruct the parent about battery safety?
Q3) Which of the following are examples of HATs or ALDs?
A)Pocket talker
B)iPod
C)Wireless TV listening device
D)a and c
Q4) A battery in a hearing aid that is used about 16 hours per day will last approximately
A)16 - 20 hours
B)2 days
C)5 - 7 days
D)7 - 14 days
Q5) When output amplified sound is proportional or directly related to the input sound,it is known as _____________ amplification.
Q6) What are some of the advantages of an open-fit hearing aid design?
Q7) Describe the main differences between personal and classroom FM systems.
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____________ approach to communication places an emphasis on the child's residual hearing through the use of amplification with the goal of developing listening skills through natural communication.
Q2) Hearing aids are the only management option for adults with hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Grandparents and siblings are not affected when a family member has a hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation?
Q5) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:
A)Problem localizing the source of sound
B)Risk for academic problems
C)Risk for language impairment
D)All of the above
Q6) Habilitation of hearing loss in children needs to be family centered.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf. Page 21
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Page 22
Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Sample Questions
Q1) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the role played by otoacoustic emissions in the evaluation and management of patients with hyperacusis.
Q3) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?
A)Hyperacusis
B)Anacusis
C)Pseudohypacusis
D)Phonophobia
Q4) Risk factors for false or exaggerated hearing loss include:
A)The potential for financial compensation or gain
B)Sudden apparent hearing loss with no clear diagnosis
C)A history of physical,sexual,or emotional abuse
D)All of the above are risk factors
Q5) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.
Page 23
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Audiologists can monitor auditory and facial nerve in the operating room during tumor removal surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________.
Q3) The recommended ANSI standards for classrooms require a signal-to-noise ratio of at least ______,with a background noise level not exceeding ______.
Q4) The signal-to-noise ratio in a typical elementary school classroom varies between ________ and ______.
Q5) Habilitation/rehabilitation of infant hearing loss is:
A)Completed at birth
B)Family centered
C)The responsibility of otolaryngologists
D)Deferred until kindergarten
Q6) Audiologists play no role in the management of persons with balance disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
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