Freshman Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Freshman Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of biological science, covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. The course emphasizes the scientific method, experimental design, and data analysis, fostering a basic understanding of how life processes operate at molecular, cellular, and ecosystem levels. Through laboratory investigations and interactive learning, students develop critical thinking skills and an appreciation for the role of biology in society and the natural world.
Recommended Textbook LIFE 1st Edition by John H. Postlethwait
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Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Q1) Many studies of potentially useful new drugs involve the use of two groups of people: One group takes the drug and another group takes a placebo (like a sugar pill). Members of both groups do not know whether they are taking the drug or the placebo. What is the reason for designing these experiments this way?
Answer: The placebo group serves as a control group to account for any factor that might affect the condition of the patient other than the drug.
Q2) The binomial nomenclature for humans is Homo sapiens. The term "Homo" refers to the
A)genus name.
B)species name.
C)scientific name.
D)trivial name.
E)ordinal name.
Answer: A
Q3) Describe natural selection. Who first coined this phrase?
Answer: Darwin first used this term to describe the mechanism of evolution. This describes the changes in genetics of a population over time allowing them to adapt to their environment.
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Chapter 2: Cells and the Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Viruses are made of the same four types of biological molecules as living cells. These include all of the following except A)lipids.
B)capsids.
C)carbohydrates.
D)proteins.
E)nucleic acids.
Answer: B
Q2) Given the half-life of radioactive carbon of 5730 years, if a sample from an archaeological site is analyzed, and it is determined to have 1/4 of the amount of <sup>14</sup>C that a living organism would have, describe how you would go about aging this fossil.
Answer: If the fossil had 50% of the amount that a living organism would have, it would be 5730 years old. Since this fossil has 25% of the amount that a living organism would have, it would be 11,460 years old (5730 x 2).
Q3) What differentiates various atoms?
Answer: Different atoms have differing numbers of subatomic particles. An oxygen atom, for example has 8 electrons and 8 protons, while a sodium atom has 11 electrons and 11 protons.
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Chapter 3: How Cells Take in and Use Energy
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Q1) For the following chemical equation, label the reactants by placing an R beside them. carbon dioxide__ + water__ + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen__
Answer: carbon dioxide(R) + water(R) + light energy \(\rarr\) glucose__ + oxygen_
Q2) Using your knowledge of the Laws of Energy Conversions, explain why recent energy crises are really a problem of energy in the correct form to do work (electrical, chemical, etc.)as opposed to an actual energy shortage.
Answer: The best responses will include a discussion of both the Law of Energy Conservation and the Law of Inefficient Energy Changes. According to the first law we never have a shortage of energy because energy is conserved. According to the second law every time an energy conversion takes place less energy is available to do work. Often many energy transfers and conversions take place in order to get the form of energy we desire.
Q3) Why do you have to use an oven to transform batter into a cake?
Answer: The chemical reaction that occurs to transform batter into cake requires a certain amount of energy (the activation energy) in order to take place. The heat from the oven provides this necessary energy.
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Chapter 4: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Microtubules are
A)affected by cancer-fighting chemicals such as Taxol.
B)responsible for formation of the contractile ring.
C)involved in cell plate formation.
D)only built up to make longer and longer microtubules.
E)important during interphase of the cell cycle.
Q2) Explain why there is a difference in the mechanism by which an animal cell and a plant cell accomplishes cytokinesis.
Q3) At the end of metaphase I, separate.
A)homologous chromosomes
B)haploid chromatids
C)sister chromatids
D)centrioles
E)germ cells
Q4) What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?
A)kinetochore
B)centromere
C)chromatin
D)cyclin
E)MPF
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Chapter 5: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Gregor Mendel was successful in his analysis of the genetics of pea plants because A)he examined and analyzed both the F<sub>1</sub> and F<sub>2</sub> generations.
B)he studied the parental plants to determine their differences.
C)pea plants have genetics different from other organisms.
D)he decided to only look at his results in an objective manner.
E)he studied a trait that had a strange inheritance pattern.
Q2) Mendel correctly surmised that the 3 dominant:1 recessive phenotypic ratio seen in the F<sub>2</sub> generation pea plants was due to
A)a tendency to have more fertilization events yielding homozygous dominant than homozygous recessive.
B)homozygosity.
C)genotypic selection.
D)random combination of sperm and egg with respect to the allele carried.
E)certain phenotypes having a selective advantage.
Q3) Describe how you might analyze a pedigree to determine whether a particular condition is recessive or dominant, and X-linked or autosomal. For the sake of this question, ignore conditions such as multiple alleles, incomplete dominance, and other complications.
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Chapter 6: DNA: The Thread of Life
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Q1) DNA replication
A)occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
B)does not require proteins.
C)occurs in G<sub>1</sub> of interphase.
D)takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
E)is constantly happening in a cell.
Q2) Frederick Griffith conducted experiments where nonlethal bacteria acquired the ability to cause lethal pneumonia due to the presence of an unknown chemical. This chemical was later found to be
A)RNA.
B)a protein.
C)DNA.
D)nonhereditary material.
E)phosphorus.
Q3) Dr. Marilyn Menotti was trying to identify the cat whose hairs were evidence in a murder investigation. When she tested a particular genetic marker, the suspect's cat, Snowball, showed 28 and 25 copies of a TG repeat. How would you explain it if Snowball only showed 28 copies?
Q4) Why do geneticists refer to the two sugar phosphate strands of DNA as "antiparallel"?
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Chapter 7: Genes, Proteins, and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) The anticodon
A)is found on mRNA.
B)has the same sequence as the codon.
C)is a sequence found on DNA.
D)helps the ribosome begin translation.
E)helps bring in the correct amino acid to add to the growing polypeptide chain.
Q2) In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the A)cell membrane.
B)cytoplasm.
C)mitochondria.
D)nucleus.
E)ribosome.
Q3) Compare and contrast DNA and RNA.
Q4) Explain the concept "the genetic code is almost universal." Why is it important?
Q5) In recombinant DNA technology, enzymes used to precisely cut DNA are called A)DNA ligases.
B)restriction enzymes.
C)DNA polymerases.
D)RNA polymerases.
E)vectors.
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Chapter 8: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) After being produced in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the A)epididymis.
B)vas deferens.
C)ejaculatory duct.
D)seminal vesicle.
E)urethra.
Q2) Animals that possess both male and female sexual organs
A)are parthenogenetic and typically self-fertilize.
B)are hermaphroditic and typically self-fertilize.
C)are dioecious and typically cross-fertilize.
D)are dioecious and typically self-fertilize.
E)are hermaphroditic and typically cross-fertilize.
Q3) The male reproductive system contains all of the following structures except the A)seminal vesicles.
B)prostate gland.
C)clitoris.
D)seminal vesicles
E)epididymis.
Q4) Put the major stages of development in order.
Q5) Describe the process of ovulation.
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Chapter 9: The Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Provide evidence for the following statement. "At the time of Darwin's journey, geology was more influential in the development of evolutionary thought than was biology."
Q2) Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A)no mutation
B)no migration
C)small population size
D)random mating
E)no selection
Q3) We refer to favorable traits within a population as A)selections.
B)adaptations.
C)selective.
D)divergent.
E)directional.
Q4) How did the concept of biogeography shape Darwin's thinking?
Q5) Define and give examples of several homologous structures.
Q6) List several types of fossils. Why are they more commonly found in sedimentary rock?
Q7) Although Lamarck's hypothesis was wrong, it is significant. Why?
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Chapter 10: Lifes Origins and Biodiversity
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Q1) The endosymbiont hypothesis suggests that the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells are descended from captured A)cyanobacteria.
B)archaebacteria.
C)aerobic bacteria.
D)chemoautotrophic bacteria.
E)eukaryotic algae.
Q2) Consider the 4.6-billion-year history of the Earth. Geological and fossil evidence indicates that during the greatest fraction of its history, the Earth A)was too hot to have either a solid surface or any form of life.
B)had organic molecules in liquid water, but no living forms.
C)had unicellular organisms, but not multicellular.
D)had both multicellular and unicellular organisms, but no terrestrial (land) forms.
E)had both terrestrial, freshwater, and marine organisms, both unicellular and multicellular.
Q3) How could the formation of membranes have promoted the evolution of the first true cells?
Q4) Why are most Hawaiian silverswords found at high altitudes?
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Chapter 11: Single-Celled Life
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Q1) Each of the following is a common shape of prokaryote except A)vibrios.
B)spirilla.
C)cilia.
D)bacilli.
E)cocci.
Q2) Prokaryotes reproduce
A)very slowly.
B)via binary fission.
C)sexually.
D)such that one of the offspring is always much larger than the other.
E)via binary fusion.
Q3) According to the old Linnaean scheme of classifying the living world into either animals or plants, any organism that could photosynthesize was considered a plant. What kingdoms in the new system contain photosynthetic organisms and what criteria are now used to group them?
Q4) Scientists think diplomonads and amoeboflagellates are primitive and that their characteristics are similar to those of the first eukaryotic cells. What does this tell you about what the first eukaryotes were like and what kind of environment they might have inhabited?
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Chapter 12: Fungi and Plants: Decomposers and Producers
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Q1) What reproductive advantage do fruits give a flowering plant?
Q2) Why is pollen considered an important adaptation to land?
Q3) Lichens are used by scientists as an indicator of pollution because they
A)require nonpolluted water to grow.
B)are extremely sensitive to sulfur dioxide.
C)react to small amounts of carbon monoxide.
D)are very sensitive to ultraviolet radiation.
E)respond to increased levels of chlorofluorocarbons.
Q4) Why is the sporophyte generation better adapted to land than the gametophyte generation?
Q5) Describe how angiosperms have shown coevolution with the various pollinators and seed dispersers.
Q6) The principal polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls is also found in
A)archaebacterial cell walls.
B)eubacterial cell walls.
C)cell walls of land plants.
D)cell walls of red algae.
E)insect exoskeletons.
Q7) In what way does the life cycle and reproduction of seedless vascular plants resemble the life cycle and reproduction of amphibians?
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Chapter 13: The Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) Of the following, which is likely the most direct ancestor of modern humans?
A)Homo habilis
B)Australopithecus garhi
C)Homo erectus
D)Australopithecus afarensis
E)Homo neanderthalis
Q2) Contrast the medusa body form and the polyp body form of a cnidarian.
Q3) Birds are able to maintain relatively constant body temperature regardless of external temperature. Therefore, birds are
A)homeopathic.
B)homeothermic.
C)ecdysozoans.
D)apodans.
E)amniotes.
Q4) The mantle in mollusks
A)secretes the shell and protects the animal.
B)contains the internal organs.
C)functions in obtaining food.
D)is involved in movement.
E)is composed of calcium carbonate.
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Chapter 14: Ecology of Populations and Communities
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Q1) The number of offspring an individual organism could have under optimal conditions is called the
A)biotic potential.
B)fertility rate.
C)life expectancy.
D)carrying capacity.
E)fecundity.
Q2) In the history of human population growth, the earliest stage is referred to as the A)agricultural phase.
B)technological phase.
C)hunting and gathering phase.
D)industrial phase.
E)prehistoric phase.
Q3) Coevolution would be expected to occur between all of these relationships except A)predator and prey.
B)parasite and host.
C)mutualistic relationships.
D)interspecific competitors.
E)commensal relationships.
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Chapter 15: Ecosystems and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which greenhouse gas also destroys the ozone layer?
A)chlorofluorocarbons
B)carbon dioxide
C)nitrous oxide
D)methane
E)oxygen
Q2) Plants and algae need phosphates for growth. Many fish and other animals feed on aquatic plants and algae. Why, then, is an excess of phosphates in the water (eutrophication)harmful to the organisms in a lake?
Q3) Five hundred minnows consume 1000 kilograms of algae over a four-month period. Five bass consume these 500 minnows over a period of two weeks. Louisa catches and eats the bass. How much of the original 1000 kilograms of algae would you expect to become the biomass of Louisa?
A)1
B)10
C)100
D)1000
E)10,000
Q4) Why are food chains limited to a small number of links?
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Chapter 16: Body Function, Survival, and the Steady State
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Q1) Most other mammals could not survive the extreme environment that whale inhabit. Discuss the adaptations whales have evolved to cope with life in the Arctic Ocean. Include water and heat conservation and salt excretion.
Q2) List several functions of epithelial tissues.
Q3) Describe how fluids and some dissolved materials move from the blood in the glomerulus into the nephron.
Q4) Freshwater fish must excrete ______ and actively accumulate _______.
A)water; urea
B)urea; water
C)salt; urea
D)water; salt
E)urea; water.
Q5) How could losing mass in unused muscles possibly benefit an organism?
Q6) A person suffers injury in a car accident, loses a serious amount of blood, and is in danger of going into shock from low blood pressure. Discuss what effect such an injury would have on the production of ADH, aldosterone, atrial natriuretic factor, angiotensin, and erythropoietin.
Q7) What process in the kidney makes drug testing of urine possible?
Q8) Describe the problem a marine fish has with water balance.
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Chapter 17: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Blood flows from the left ventricle
A)to the aorta.
B)to the left atrium.
C)to the pulmonary artery.
D)to the pulmonary vein.
E)to the right ventricle.
Q2) These vessels typically carry deoxygenated blood, at low pressure, and contain valves.
A)capillaries
B)venules
C)veins
D)arterioles
E)arteries
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to heart pains?
A)atherosclerosis
B)arteriosclerosis
C)angina pectoris
D)myocardial infarction
E)aortic dissection
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