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Foundations of Psychopathology explores the scientific study of mental disorders, focusing on their origins, development, and manifestations. The course examines major psychological disorders as defined in current diagnostic systems, considering biological, psychological, and sociocultural perspectives. Students will analyze symptomatology, classification, causal factors, and the course of various disorders, while also investigating approaches to diagnosis and case formulation. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking about theoretical frameworks and empirical research that underpin our understanding of psychopathology.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrated Approach 6th Edition by David H. Barlow
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Q1) Induced vomiting was a 17th century treatment for depression.As described in Anatomy of Melancholy (1621),this could be accomplished by eating _________.
A) raw meat
B) ice
C) coal
D) tobacco
Answer: D
Q2) Although electroconvulsive therapy is controversial,we still use it today.It is interesting that it is used
A) despite possible harmful side effects.
B) and may cause serious fatal outcomes such as heart attacks.
C) despite the fact that we have little knowledge of how it works.
D) despite the fact that the success rate is about 25%.
Answer: C
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Q1) The best description of the multidimensional integrative approach to understanding psychopathology is that it is based on
A) biological and psychological causes.
B) biological causes only.
C) learned helplessness and social learning theory.
D) the physical structure and chemical processes of the brain.
Answer: A
Q2) The fact that some behaviors can be symptoms of many different disorders (e.g.,delusions can be a result of amphetamine abuse or of schizophrenia)is an example of ____________.
A) equifinality
B) psychopathology
C) pathogenesis
D) orthogonal causation
Answer: A
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Q1) Controversy continues concerning inclusion of "premenstrual dysphoric disorder" in future editions of DSM because of issues related to _____________.
A) religion
B) racism
C) stigmatization
D) pregnancy and birth
Answer: C
Q2) The comprehensive system for administering and scoring the Rorschach inkblot test was developed because
A) a lack of standardized procedures affects the way the test taker responds to the questions.
B) it was discovered that inter-rater reliability had increased significantly.
C) Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was being given.
D) the previous scoring system was found to be difficult and time-consuming.
Answer: A
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Q1) The two most frequently used methods in prevention research for examining psychopathology across time are
A) longitudinal and case study.
B) case study and experimental.
C) longitudinal and cross-sectional.
D) experimental and cross-sectional.
Q2) Single-case experimental designs are sometimes criticized because they tend to A) always involve a single case.
B) decrease internal validity.
C) decrease external validity.
D) decrease reliability.
Q3) A study that uses the controlled conditions of the lab to replicate the phenomenon under study is called a(n)
A) analog model.
B) longitudinal study.
C) cross-sectional study.
D) retrospective study.
Q4) Explain why it is important to make a distinction between statistical and clinical significance when interpreting research findings.
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Q1) In regard to the obsessions seen in patients with OCD,the term "need for symmetry" refers to
A) doing something a number of different ways.
B) keeping things in perfect order.
C) putting everything on one's right and nothing on the left.
D) accumulation of possessions.
Q2) A teenage girl had recently been having panic attacks while shopping at the mall.She was sitting in her room feeling very depressed.To cheer her up,a friend suggested that they both go to an exercise class.Shortly after the warm-up started,however,she had another panic attack.What is the best explanation for this occurrence?
A) She was angry with the friend for insisting that she go out.
B) The medication that had been prescribed for her was only treating the depression, not the anxiety.
C) The physical sensations experienced during exercise had become an internal cue for panic to occur.
D) The exercise class was an unconditioned stimulus that resulted in a panic attack.
Q3) Discuss the different types of specific phobias and how they are acquired.
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Q1) With regard to evidence for the scientific validity of dissociative identity disorder (DID),the most accurate statement is
A) most DID patients are faking.
B) research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is possible.
C) it is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur in dissociative identity disorder.
D) objective tests can always determine which patients are faking dissociative identity disorder.
Q2) Joe injured his back at work several years ago.Although he was treated and considered healed by his physicians,he still complains of severe and debilitating back pain.Other than some minor scar tissue,his doctors can't find anything that could be causing more than some minor stiffness.It appears that Joe might be diagnosed with
A) conversion disorder
B) somatization disorder
C) pain disorder
D) hypochondriasis
Q3) Describe the factors that contribute to anxiety,focusing on physical sensations and illness in hypochondriasis.
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Q1) Compare and contrast the symptoms of major depressive episode,a manic episode,dysthymic disorder,and hypomania.
Q2) Tricyclic medications
A) have been widely used for depression in spite of a variety of side effects.
B) include imipramine, fluoxetine, and amitriptyline.
C) are not beneficial for children with attention problems, but are safe for children having major depressive disorder.
D) are given to patients demonstrating a rapid cycling pattern of depressive, manic, and hypomanic symptoms.
Q3) Recent evidence (Coryell et al.,2003)indicates a higher level of ___________ in bipolar patients with a rapid cycling pattern compared to those with a non-rapid cycling pattern.
A) treatment response
B) resistance to treatment
C) medication side effects
D) suicide
Q4) Identify and explain the risk factors associated with suicide.
Q5) Discuss the relationship between depression and anxiety.
Q6) Discuss the symptoms,causes and treatments for seasonal affective disorder.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about individuals with an eating disorder?
A) They have a diminished sense of personal control.
B) They may manifest as strikingly low self-esteem.
C) They display more perfectionistic attitudes.
D) All of these
Q2) Martin sits up every night screaming.He does not remember these terrors nor is he easily awakened or comforted.What should Martin's mother do?
A) Wake Martin up during the attack.
B) Make sure that Martin is very tired before going to bed.
C) Use scheduled awakenings to briefly awaken Martin before an attack occurs.
D) All of these have been demonstrated to reduce the frequency and duration of sleep terrors
Q3) Individuals with a sleep efficiency of 90%
A) spend more of their "bed time" awake than asleep.
B) have a diagnosable sleep disorder.
C) need to increase the number of hours in bed.
D) spend 10% of their "bed time" awake.
Q4) Describe primary insomnia and contrast it to hypersomnia and narcolepsy.
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Q1) Which of the following was NOT one of the procedures or types of information used as part of San Francisco's 1990 community-level program to reduce new cases of HIV infection?
A) Personal detailed assessment of HIV risk for each individual
B) Instructions on how to clean needles
C) Classes and videos to demonstrate safe sex skills
D) Discussions of the moral and religious consequences of being HIV positive
Q2) Which of the following statements about AIDS is TRUE?
A) An infected person immediately develops AIDS-related complex (ARC).
B) The median time for the development of full-blown AIDS is around 3 to 5 years.
C) The death rate from AIDS declined 80% since 1990.
D) The current successful treatment of AIDS is the result of highly active antiviral therapy (HAART), which eliminates the virus.
Q3) Programs to prevent injuries in children
A) are typically not effective since most injuries are due to fate.
B) are almost nonexistent in most communities.
C) are less effective than repeated warnings.
D) have not been evaluated for their effectiveness.
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Q1) The original concept of performance anxiety as a cause of sexual dysfunction has been replaced with a more modern view that performance anxiety is comprised of
A) distraction, cognition, and depression.
B) arousal, anxiety, and distraction.
C) cognition, arousal, and distraction.
D) arousal, cognitive processes, and negative affect.
Q2) The effects of alcohol on sexual behavior were well noted by William Shakespeare and can be summarized as
A) alcohol decreases desire and performance.
B) alcohol may increase desire but it decreases performance.
C) alcohol may increase performance but it decreases desire.
D) alcohol may increase desire, but nobody wants to sleep with a drunk!
Q3) Approximately 25% of the patients with sexual aversion disorder also suffer from associated _____________.
A) panic disorder
B) paraphilias
C) hypoactive sexual desire disorder
D) gender identity disorder
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Q1) Relapse prevention refers to a treatment mode that views relapse as
A) a failure of cognitive and behavioral coping skills.
B) a failure of willpower.
C) proof that a person will never be able to control his/her drinking.
D) an insurmountable obstacle to treatment for substance abuse.
Q2) Nikki has decided to stop smoking (again).She can expect to experience which of the following withdrawal symptoms?
A) Elevated mood
B) Decreased appetite
C) Weight loss
D) Irritability
Q3) Legally available narcotic medications,including morphine and codeine,are used primarily as _________.
A) antagonists
B) analgesics
C) antibiotics
D) antidotes
Q4) Discuss the various component treatments for substance abuse.
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Q1) There is a great controversy regarding the classification issue of the personality disorders.Explain what are seen as problems with the current classification system used in DSM-IV and possible changes to address these issues in DSM-V.
Q2) When Axel arrives late for class,he walks in and apologizes to the professor and the students in class.He proceeds to tell them he had every intention of being at class on time,but the traffic was terrible and many accident occurred,which delayed him.Axel describes this in much detail before he takes his seat.This commonly happens every time he is late.Axel could be diagnosed with which personality disorder?
A) Histrionic
B) Narcissistic
C) Borderline
D) Dependent
Q3) According to your text,it is likely that future users of the DSM will A) eliminate personality disorders altogether. B) emphasize categorical views of personality disorders.
C) incorporate elements of a dimensional approach to personality disorders. D) reduce the number of personality disorders listed.
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Q1) The famous case of the Genain sisters,identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia,points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently,a concept called a(n)
A) variable home structure.
B) unshared environment.
C) environmental phenomenon.
D) unique perceptive interpretation.
Q2) Manuella would respond coolly when her daughter embraced her,but when the child tried to pull away Manuella would say,"Don't you love me anymore?" This is an example of
A) a schizophrenogenic mother.
B) double-bind communication.
C) expressed emotion.
D) none of the above
Q3) Match the following negative symptom of schizophrenia with its definition: flat affect, A) inability to initiate and persist in activities.
B) inability to experience pleasure.
C) lack of emotional response, blank facial expression.
D) lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response.
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Q1) The DSM-IV criteria for intellectual disability are an IQ of approximately
A) 70 or below and onset prior to age 18.
B) 70 or below, deficits in adaptive functioning, and onset prior to age 18.
C) 60 or below, deficits in communication, and onset prior to age 18.
D) 65 or below and deficits in adaptive functioning.
Q2) One major distinction between Asperger's disorder and autism is that
A) Asperger's disorder is associated with longer language delays and lower IQ.
B) autism is associated with social impairment and Asperger's disorder is not.
C) autism develops in early childhood and Asperger's develops during adolescence.
D) Asperger's disorder is not associated with severe language delays.
Q3) The educational system has developed an additional method of classification for intellectual disability that
A) is used to identify the ability of students.
B) is split into three categories: trainable, educable, and severe intellectual disability.
C) assumes that certain individuals will not benefit from academic or vocational training.
D) all of the above
Q4) Discuss the possible causes of autism.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about dementia is FALSE?
A) Globally, one new case of dementia is identified every 30 seconds.
B) Worldwide, the cost of dementia is about $315 billion per year.
C) More than 50% of the cases are of the Alzheimer's type.
D) The rate of new cases doubles with every 5 years of age after age 75.
Q2) Alzheimer's type dementia is characterized by
A) multiple cognitive deficits that develop gradually and steadily.
B) a few severe cognitive deficits that develop gradually and steadily.
C) multiple cognitive deficits that develop quickly.
D) a few severe cognitive deficits that develop quickly.
Q3) Sixty-year-old Fred has the typical early symptoms of dementia.The fact that he has abnormalities in walking and weakness in his limbs suggests that his dementia is
A) the Alzheimer's type
B) influenced by a medication
C) due to multiple influences
D) the vascular type
Q4) Explain the relationship that has been observed between formal education and the development of Alzheimer's type dementia.What theoretical and neurological explanations have been offered for this observation?
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Q1) What ethnic group with mental illness is most likely to be homeless?
A) Asian Americans
B) Native Americans
C) African Americans
D) Hispanic Americans
Q2) The question of whether a person can be "forced" to become competent to stand trial involves the issue of ___________________.
A) medication
B) research participants' rights
C) a patient's right to treatment
D) legal representation
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the research participant's rights as described in your text?
A) The right to be informed about the purpose of the research study
B) The right to refuse treatment
C) The right to protection from harm
D) The right to review manuscripts based on data they provide
Q4) Discuss the concept of competency to stand trial and its implications for dealing with a person who is mentally ill and has committed a crime.
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