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Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course covers major theoretical perspectives, including biological, cognitive, behavioral, and sociocultural approaches. Students explore key topics such as perception, learning, memory, development, personality, motivation, emotion, and psychological disorders. Emphasis is placed on research methods, critical thinking, and the application of psychological principles to everyday life. By the end of the course, students will have a fundamental understanding of how psychology seeks to understand individuals and groups through systematic observation and analysis.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by
Sandra E. Hockenbury
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Q1) In a scientifically conducted survey, describe how participants should be selected and explain the importance of the selection process.
Answer: The answer should include the following information: Scientists randomly select a sample of participants to be included in a study. Random selection means that every member of the larger group or population may have an equal opportunity to be included in the sample.
Q2) What is the difference between a positive correlation and a negative correlation? Give an example of each.
Answer: The answer should include the following information (Examples will vary.): A positive correlation is one in which the two factors vary in the same direction such that they increase or decrease together. For example, the text cites a strong positive correlation between GPA and the use of self-testing as a study strategy. The more students engage in self-testing, the better their GPA. In contrast, a negative correlation is one in which two variables move in opposite directions: As one factor decreases, the other increases. The text cites a study that investigated multitasking and GPA. A study found that there was a negative correlation between time spent sending text messages while studying and GPA: As time spent texting while studying increased, GPA decreased.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The Greek philosopher Aristotle first defined psychology as the "scientific study of behavior and mental processes."
B)In contemporary psychology, the nature-nurture issue explores the relative influences of heredity versus environmental factors on behavior.
C)The mind-body issue has now been settled, and psychologists no longer explore the relationship between mental activity and the brain.
D)The principle of interactive dualism was formulated by Aristotle more than 2,000 years ago.
Answer: B
Q2) Which early approach or school of psychology is associated with Wilhelm Wundt's student Edward Titchener?
A)behaviorism
B)humanistic psychology
C)functionalism
D)structuralism
Answer: D
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Q1) Educational psychology is a specialty area in psychology that applies psychological principles and theories to methods of learning.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Francis C. Sumner was the first African American to earn a Ph.D. in psychology.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Harvard University awarded Mary Whiton Calkins her Ph.D., but only after William James intervened on her behalf.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Comparative psychology is the branch of psychology that studies the behavior of nonhuman animal.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) _____, an approach developed by Edward B. Titchener, became the first major school of thought in psychology.
A)Behaviorism
B)Structuralism
C)Functionalism
D)Psychoanalysis
Q2) A collectivistic culture is one in which:
A)individual achievements are highly valued.
B)a person's social behavior is influenced more by individual preference than cultural values and norms.
C)a person's individual preferences and goals are considered to be more important than the requirements and goals of his or her social group.
D)great importance is placed on following established tradition and customs.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the brain-imaging techniques discussed in the Focus on Neuroscience section in the text?
A)magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B)functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
C)transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D)positron emission tomography (PET)
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Q1) Psychologists are expected to abide by ethical principles regulating research with human participants; these principles include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)informed consent.
B)deception.
C)confidentiality.
D)compulsory participation.
Q2) The _____ perspective contended that psychology should focus its scientific investigations strictly on observable conducts that could be objectively measured and verified.
A)psychodynamic
B)humanistic
C)behavioral
D)biological
Q3) Wilhelm Wundt focused on:
A)the nature versus nurture issue and interactive dualism.
B)how brain damage contributes to mental illness.
C)fundamental psychological processes, such as mental reaction times in response to visual and auditory stimuli.
D)the effects of mental illness on families.
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Q1) What does it mean to say that a neuron is polarized?
Q2) Assume that you are going to learn a challenging new skill, such as juggling or a complicated video game. According to research presented in your textbook, how long does it take for learning to transfer into structural changes in the brain?
Q3) What is meant by the phrase lateralization of function?
Q4) Briefly describe the functions of the different subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system.
Q5) What are the key structures of the hindbrain and what roles do they play?
Q6) What contributions did Pierre Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke make to the understanding of the brain?
Q7) What is the refractory period, and what takes place during that period?
Q8) What are the key structures of the limbic system?
Q9) What are spinal reflexes? Are they important?
Q10) What is the hypothalamus? What roles does it play?
Q11) What is the primary motor cortex? What is the degree of representation on the primary motor cortex?
Q12) What is biological psychology and why is this area of study important?
Q13) Compare the effects on rats of being raised in an enriched versus an impoverished Page 8
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Q1) Psychologists are greatly interested in the biological basis of behavior. Which of the following questions reflects this interest?
A)Why do people choose specific careers?
B)Why do you get hungry?
C)Why do some people use social media, while others dislike it?
D)Why do people from different cultures have different values?
Q2) Paul was awakened by a thumping noise in the middle of the night. Frightened, he jumped out of bed to investigate. Hearing a muffled meow, Paul realized that his cat was shut in the closet and was pushing against the door. Breathing a sigh of relief, Paul let the cat out of the closet and went back to bed. Which subdivision of the nervous system helped calm down and restore Paul's body functioning back to normal?
A)parasympathetic
B)endocrine
C)sympathetic
D)somatic
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Q1) A mentally stimulating, intellectually challenging environment is associated with enhanced cognitive functioning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Key structures of the limbic system include the amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, and hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common type of traumatic brain injury is a concussion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The forebrain structure called the hippocampus plays a critical role in the ability to form new memories.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glial cells are the most abundant cells in the human brain.
A)True B)False
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Q1) The terms autonomic and somatic refer to the two main subdivisions of the _____ nervous system.
A)sympathetic B)central
C)peripheral
D)parasympathetic
Q2) Nicotine is classified as a(n):
A)endorphin. B)SSRI.
C)agonist. D)antagonist.
Q3) The brainstem is made up of the _____ and the _____.
A)forebrain; midbrain
B)cerebellum; medulla
C)reticular formation; pons D)midbrain; hindbrain
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Q1) The _____ is involved in regulating blood sugar levels and in hunger.
A)pituitary gland
B)pancreas
C)pineal gland
D)thyroid gland
Q2) According to your textbook, _____ is associated with increased endorphin levels.
A)nicotine addiction
B)heavy consumption of alcohol
C)muscle rigidity during aerobic exercises
D)the pain-relieving effect of acupuncture
Q3) Michael takes medication that increases _____ levels to help control symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
A)endorphin
B)serotonin
C)GABA
D)dopamine
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Q1) How does the gate-control theory explain the perception of pain?
Q2) How does the sensation of taste occur?
Q3) How do airborne molecules result in the sensation of an odor?
Q4) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: Vision, Experience, and the Brain, what do Mike's visual abilities reveal about the development of visual pathways in the brain?
Q5) What is the moon illusion and how has it been explained?
Q6) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.
Q7) What is the kinesthetic sense and where are its sensory receptors located?
Q8) Define and describe the process of transduction. Explain how transduction takes place in at least two different senses with specific examples.
Q9) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?
Q10) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?
Q11) How do frequency theory and place theory explain the perception of pitch?
Q12) Provide an example of perceptual set and explain how it influences perceptual experiences.
Q13) Describe the functions of each of the key structures involved in hearing. Page 14
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Q1) Looking out the window you perceive a tree in front of a car. Even though the tree interrupts your visual image of the car, you still perceive the car to be a solid shape and not split where the tree blocks your view of it. This is an example of the law of _____.
A)proximity
B)closure
C)good continuation
D)similarity
Q2) As you go to sleep at night, you realize that you can hear your roommate's wristwatch ticking. Out of curiosity, you keep a record of when you hear the watch ticking and find out that you can hear it about half the time. Your ability to hear your roommate's wristwatch about half the time is an example of:
A)a difference threshold.
B)an absolute threshold.
C)Weber's law.
D)sensory adaptation.
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Q1) Perceptual illusions such as the Müller-Lyer illusion underscore the fact that what we see is not merely a simple reflection of the world but our subjective perceptual interpretation of it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Within a few minutes after putting on your wristwatch in the morning, you no longer feel the watch on your wrist. This is an example of sensory adaptation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The technical name for the sense of taste is gustation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shape constancy is the tendency to perceive familiar objects as having a fixed shape regardless of the image that is cast on our retinas.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Amy, an accomplished gymnast, has just learned how to do a cartwheel on the balance beam. Which two senses are especially involved in this accomplishment?
A)sense of equilibrium and the vestibular sense
B)proprioception and the kinesthetic sense
C)kinesthetic sense and vestibular sense
D)audition and vision
Q2) Five-year-old Sam is having his hearing checked. The nurse places headphones over Sam's ears and instructs him to raise his hand whenever he hears a beep. Sam is being tested for his hearing:
A)threshold.
B)proprioception.
C)potential.
D)transduction.
Q3) After an injury has healed, it is possible to experience pain signals in or around the injured site. This phenomenon is called:
A)sensitization.
B)adaptation.
C)hallucination.
D)generalization.
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Q1) _____ provide more specific information and function best in bright light, while _____ provide less specific information and function best in dim light.
A)Cones; rods
B)Rods; cones
C)Bipolar cells; ganglion cells
D)Ganglion cells; bipolar cells
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be considered to be an example of a paranormal phenomenon?
A)psychokinesis
B)subliminal perception
C)precognition
D)telepathy
Q3) Without _____, our perception of reality would be in a continual state of flux.
A)perceptual constancy
B)sensation
C)motion cues
D)depth perception
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Q1) What are circadian rhythms?
Q2) What are the effects that can be produced by hypnosis?
Q3) What is the suprachiasmatic nucleus, and what is its main function?
Q4) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?
Q5) How do sleep specialists treat obstructive sleep apnea? Give a specific answer.
Q6) Compare and contrast state and non-state theories of hypnosis.
Q7) How do patterns of sleep change over the lifespan?
Q8) What are the main characteristics of narcolepsy, and how are cataplexy and sleep paralysis involved?
Q9) Jerome's mother always tells him to quit yawning because it makes her yawn. Is Jerome's yawning contagious? Explain.
Q10) Explain the role of sunlight and darkness, clocks, and other environmental time cues, in regulating the sleep-wake cycle.
Q11) Mel, aged 68, has been an avid fan of meditation since he was a young college student. His brother-in-law, Dave, believes that mediation is a waste of time with no lasting benefits. According to research presented in the Focus on Neuroscience box: Mediation and Brain: in your textbook, which man is correct?
Q12) List four strategies for preventing sleep problems. Page 20
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Q1) In a meditation training study where participants learned to meditate in an 8-week course, it was found that:
A)cortical thickness was negatively correlated with meditation experience.
B)meditation does not alter the brain.
C)the new meditators showed gray-matter density decreases in several cortical areas.
D)the new meditators showed gray-matter density increases in several cortical areas.
Q2) Chemical substances, such as paint solvents, spray paint, and gasoline that are used to produce an alteration in consciousness are called:
A)psychedelics.
B)dissociative anesthetics.
C)inhalants.
D)barbiturates.
Q3) Carma is 60 years old. Compared to when she was a child, Carma's:
A)pattern of sleep is very similar.
B)total sleep time has increased.
C)spends more time in REM sleep.
D)total sleep time is less.
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Q1) Because attention is limited in capacity, we tend to focus on information that is most relevant to our immediate or long-term goals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most drug experts agree that alcohol has the highest social cost of all drug addictions.
A)True B)False
Q3) Narcolepsy is another name for somnambulism.
A)True B)False
Q4) Sleep paralysis generally lasts from 90 minutes to two hours.
A)True B)False
Q5) Numerous studies have confirmed that you can interact with people who are chronic sleeptalkers while they are asleep and get reliable answers to almost any question posed.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Physically addictive depressant drugs include:
A)cocaine, caffeine, and heroin.
B)heroin, opium, and "downers," or barbiturates.
C)alcohol, tranquilizers, and barbiturates.
D)heroin, morphine, and LSD.
Q2) In a meditation training study where participants learned to meditate over the course of eight weeks, researchers found that:
A)the new meditators showed gray-matter density increases in several cortical areas.
B)cortical thickness was negatively correlated with meditation experience.
C)meditation does not alter the brain.
D)the new meditators showed gray-matter density decreases in several cortical areas.
Q3) _____, a famous American psychologist, described consciousness as being like a river or a stream.
A)William James
B)Erik Erikson
C)J. Allan Hobson
D)Sigmund Freud
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Q1) Research indicates that yawning is:
A)caused by an overproduction of carbon dioxide in the body.
B)not contagious.
C)caused by too little oxygen in a person's blood.
D)generally followed by an increase in activity level.
Q2) Sleep researchers who study disruptions in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep, including insomnia, obstructive sleep apnea, and narcolepsy, are interested in a broad category of sleep disorders called:
A)parasomnias.
B)dissociative states.
C)dyssomnias.
D)lucid dreaming states.
Q3) Which of the following is a derivative of opium?
A)mescaline
B)cocaine
C)psilocybin
D)codeine
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Q1) What is the partial reinforcement effect? What is extinction in operant conditioning, and what is the relationship between partial reinforcement, continuous reinforcement, and extinction?
Q2) Who was Edward Thorndike, and what were his contributions to the study of learning?
Q3) Describe John Garcia's research, and explain why his findings were originally rejected.
Q4) Why did conditioned taste aversions appear to violate the original principles of classical conditioning, and how did they come to be explained?
Q5) Based on Pavlov's research with dogs, describe and provide examples of the following concepts: generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, extinction, and spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning.
Q6) What did Skinner and other behaviorists believe should be the appropriate subject matter of psychology? That is, what should we study?
Q7) Describe a study that shows indirect evidence of mirror neurons in humans.
Q8) Describe the school or approach to psychology that John Watson founded, and explain why he founded it.
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Q9) Describe Martin Seligman's research on learned helplessness in dogs.
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Q1) When competitive swimmers stayed focused on their practice techniques during swim team practice, they were rewarded by their coach playing popular music over the loudspeakers in the pool area. When they were inattentive or started ''goofing off,'' the coach played recordings of gloomy, off-key organ music. In this example, the coach is using _____ to help his swimmers stay focused.
A)biological preparedness
B)latent learning
C)classical conditioning
D)behavior modification
Q2) You want to make sure that you will get to work on time. You call a co-worker who is always punctual and ask her to meet you for coffee before work the next morning, because you know you'll be more likely to be on time if someone is waiting to meet you.
You are using a strategy called:
A)self-reinforcement.
B)stimulus control.
C)precommitment.
D)focus on the delayed reinforcer.
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Q1) The self-control strategy of stimulus control is based upon classical conditioning principles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To enhance the effectiveness of positive reinforcers, you should make sure the reinforcer is reinforcing to the individual whose behavior you want to modify.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The phenomenon called learned helplessness was discovered by two young graduate students, Steven Maier and Martin Seligman.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A Skinner box, or operant chamber, is a complex maze that a rat must successfully negotiate to get to a food reward in the goal box at the end.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) After two weeks of being screamed at by his drill sergeant at boot camp and shuddering with fear in response, a Marine recruit named Joe now shudders every time he hears the footsteps of his drill sergeant coming down the hall. When the drill sergeant enters the room, Joe snaps to attention and salutes. In this example, shuddering to the sound of the footsteps is a(n) _____ and saluting is a(n) _____.
A)operant response in the presence of a discriminative stimulus; conditioned response
B)unconditioned response; example of latent learning
C)conditioned response; operant response in the presence of a discriminative stimulus
D)unconditioned response; example of learned helplessness
Q2) The majority of studies on media violence and aggressive behavior are:
A)focused on adolescents.
B)causal.
C)correlational.
D)retroactive.
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Q1) In the famous "Little Albert" study, what was the conditioned stimulus?
A)the white rat
B)fear of the loud clang
C)fear at the sight of the rat
D)the loud clang
Q2) An organism enhances its odds of survival by being responsive to the consequences of its actions. This reflects the concept of:
A)observational learning.
B)motivational learning.
C)operant conditioning.
D)classical conditioning.
Q3) While his exhausted mother was taking a nap, four-year-old Dennis decided to help her out by doing the laundry. He dragged a stool over to the washing machine, stuffed clothes into it, turned it on, and dumped a box of detergent on top of the clothes. Which psychologist and which learning theory could BEST explain Dennis's behavior?
A)Ivan Pavlov; classical conditioning
B)Edward Thorndike; the law of effect
C)Albert Bandura; observational learning
D)John Garcia; biological preparedness
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Q1) Describe two forms of the encoding specificity principle, and give an example of each.
Q2) Describe schemas and scripts, and explain how they can potentially contribute to inaccurate memories.
Q3) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.
Q4) Using what you have learned about memory, explain why multiple-choice, matching, and fill-in-the-blank questions are easier to answer than essay questions.
Q5) Describe the progression and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, including changes in the brain.
Q6) How do explicit and implicit memory differ? Give an example of each.
Q7) Compare and contrast the characteristics of suppression and repression, giving an example of each.
Q8) Describe Hermann Ebbinghaus's research and what it demonstrated.
Q9) Explain how source amnesia, inattentional blindness, and encoding failure account for déjà vu experiences.
Q10) What is a flashbulb memory, and in what ways is it similar to and/or different from an ordinary memory?
Q11) Describe the duration and capacity of short-term memory.
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of the encoding specificity principle?
A)mood congruence
B)imagination inflation
C)long-term potentiation
D)source confusion
Q2) After switching departments at work and getting a new phone number, Anne found that it was harder to remember her previous department's phone number. Anne was experiencing _____, which occurs when forming a new memory makes it harder to recall a previous memory.
A)retroactive interference
B)encoding failure
C)proactive interference
D)long-term potentiation failure
Q3) The peg-word method and method of loci are:
A)techniques that have been used to induce false memories in participants in research studies.
B)retrieval cue strategies to help you recall a blocked word or name during tip-of-the-tongue experiences.
C)suggestive techniques that can be used to recover repressed memories.
D)mnemonic devices to help you remember information.
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Q1) Recent studies suggest that the true "magical number" for the capacity of short-term memory is more likely to be four, plus or minus one, than seven, plus or minus two.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the fMRI study described in the Focus on Neuroscience, "Assembling Memories," the act of perceiving a picture activated the visual cortex. However, the act of remembering the same picture activated the left prefrontal cortex, a completely different brain area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amygdala is involved in encoding the emotional qualities of memories.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organizing items into related groups during recall from long-term memory is called "clustering."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Research conducted with the sea snail Aplysia suggests that _____ is the neural basis for memories that are acquired through classical conditioning.
A)short-term potentiation
B)short-term oscillation
C)long-term potentiation
D)long-term oscillation
Q2) In Baddeley's model of working memory, one component called the _____ is specialized for verbal material, such as lists of numbers or words.
A)visuospatial sketchpad
B)semantic network
C)phonological loop
D)central executive
Q3) The _____ model describes the way in which information is organized in long-term memory.
A)interference
B)serial position
C)pragmatic
D)semantic network
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Q1) Research with the sea snail Aplysia has demonstrated that:
A)the sea snail's nervous system is too primitive to form memories.
B)long-term potentiation is only possible in animals with more sophisticated and complex nervous systems.
C)forming a new memory involves changes in both the function and structure of neurons.
D)anterograde and retrograde amnesia involve fundamentally different neural circuits.
Q2) Carlos experienced a severe head injury when his motorcycle was hit by a truck. These types of accidents often result in:
A)fuzzy trace memories.
B)anterograde amnesia.
C)memory consolidation.
D)retrograde amnesia.
Q3) Short-term memory is also called _____ memory.
A)working
B)semantic
C)episodic
D)sensory
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Q1) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.
Q2) List the five characteristics of language, and give an example of each.
Q3) Describe three strategies that can be used to make a decision among several alternatives.
Q4) Define the concepts of standardization, reliability, and validity, and explain why they are important requirements for any psychological test.
Q5) Contrast the ways in which formal concepts and natural concepts are formed, and give an original example of each.
Q6) Discuss research evidence for and against the linguistic relativity hypothesis.
Q7) Danica is the parent of 5-year-old Mariah. Mariah will be attending a large charter school in the fall. The school offers many classes that are taught in both English and Spanish. Danica is worried about her daughter being in both types of classes, as she believes bilingualism leads to confusion, delayed language development, learning problems, and lower intelligence. Using research presented in your text, explain why Danica's beliefs are wrong. Be sure to include the benefits of bilingual education in your answer.
Q8) Define and discuss creativity.

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Q1) During World War I, the U.S. military developed the _____ to screen millions of recruits.
A)Army Alpha and the Army Beta tests.
B)Army and Navy Intelligence test.
C)Navy, Army, and Air Force Aptitude test (NAAA).
D)Military Achievement Test (MAT).
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the components of Sternberg's "successful intelligence"?
A)practical intelligence
B)creative intelligence
C)analytic intelligence
D)interpersonal intelligence
Q3) When Jean-Claude came back from skiing, he wanted to brew a cup of coffee. Because he was out of coffee filters, he settled for tea. Jean-Claude's failure to realize he could use a paper towel as a coffee filter best illustrates:
A)a mental set.
B)intuition.
C)functional fixedness.
D)the availability heuristic.
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Q1) Alfred Binet developed a series of tests measuring different mental abilities in order to identify schoolchildren who could benefit from special help.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Charles Spearman believed that a factor he called "general intelligence," or the g factor, was responsible for people's overall performance on tests of mental ability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A problem-solving strategy that involves following a specific rule, procedure, or method, inevitably producing the correct solution, is referred to as a "heuristic."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trial and error is a problem-solving strategy that involves attempting different solutions and eliminating those that do not work.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When a psychological test is administered to the same group of people on different occasions and it produces very similar scores for each of the participants, it is said to be:
A)reliable.
B)standardized.
C)a "culture-free" test.
D)valid.
Q2) Finn will soon take the GRE. He is a straight-A student at Yale and has received a great deal of support from his family, professors, and friends, as he approaches the date to take the exam. After receiving his score, Finn realized that he actually scored much higher than he had expected. This example illustrates the phenomenon known as _____, which is the awareness that positive expectations can actually improve performance on tasks.
A)the halo effect
B)stereotype threat
C)favorable test bias
D)stereotype lift
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Q1) A friend asks you which three books you would take if you knew you were going to be marooned on a desert island for a year. Because language has the characteristic of _____, you are able to have a meaningful conversation about the topic, even though you're not really marooned on a desert island.
A)displacement
B)generativity
C)syntax
D)linguistic relativity
Q2) According to Claude Steele, how does stereotype threat tend to impair performance?
A)It causes the individual to focus on the self rather than others.
B)Irrelevant mental images are produced, which lead to maladaptive thinking.
C)It creates a sense of neurotic self-efficacy.
D)It leads to the fear that one might confirm the stereotype.
Q3) The study of animal cognition focuses on:
A)memory, problem solving, planning, cooperation, and even deception.
B)comparing animal to human intelligence.
C)the reproductive goals of nonhuman primates.
D)the role of genetic influences on intelligence.
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Q1) Ann wants to achieve the goal of completing a marathon. Outline how she could create and use goal intentions and implementation intentions to help achieve that goal.
Q2) Define homeostasis and outline the role it plays in drive theories of motivation.
Q3) Define motivation, and describe the three characteristics associated with motivation, providing an original example of each characteristic.
Q4) Discuss how individualistic and collectivistic cultures differ in achievement motivation.
Q5) How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of obesity?
Q6) Describe Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation, and list the qualities that characterize self-actualized people.
Q7) Describe how classical conditioning and operant conditioning motivate eating behavior.
Q8) Contrast competence motivation and achievement motivation, and give an original, real-life example of each.
Q9) Identify the basic emotions, and compare individualistic and collectivist cultures in terms of the dimensions of emotions.
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Q1) Rats with a damaged amygdala:
A)will eat anything you feed them, never becoming satiated.
B)overproduce leptin and become extremely lean, despite eating several times their normal amount of calories daily.
C)cannot acquire a classically conditioned fear response.
D)are more easily classically conditioned to fear-inducing stimuli than rats with intact brains.
Q2) Whenever he is feeling gloomy, Lloyd sings the song Put on a Happy Face. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, if he follows the advice of the song, Lloyd is likely to:
A)become more depressed.
B)experience little or no change in his emotions.
C)irritate most people he comes in contact with.
D)experience an elevation in his mood.
Q3) The polygraph is commonly called a _____.
A)form of pseudoscience.
B)truth serum.
C)legal loophole.
D)lie detector.
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Q1) Strong beliefs of self-efficacy result in greater motivational effort in trying to master a situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After devouring his fourth chili-cheese hot dog, Devin's desire to eat another chili-cheese hot dog had diminished. This is an example of sensory-specific satiety.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Extrinsic motivation consists of external influences on behavior, such as rewards, social evaluations, rules, and responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One reason you eat is to maintain a reserve of stored energy, and muscle tissue is the main source of stored calories in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The hormone leptin:
A)is associated with increased food intake when brain levels of the chemical increase.
B)creates a positive energy balance when blood levels of the chemical decrease, which, in turn, triggers eating behavior.
C)is secreted by adipose tissue that signals the hypothalamus, regulating hunger and eating behavior.
D)is also called the "hunger hormone" because its presence in the cells lining the stomach strongly stimulates appetite.
Q2) _____ is the rate at which your body uses energy for vital bodily functions when at rest.
A)Set-point rate (SPR)
B)Basal metabolic rate (BMR)
C)Body mass index (BMI)
D)Systolic blood pressure (SBP)
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Q1) Research indicates that children who are born blind and deaf will:
A)be unable to express the basic emotions.
B)only display extreme emotions, such as anger and exuberance.
C)express emotions such as joy, anger, and pleasure using the same facial expressions as other children.
D)display the social smile at birth but show no other signs of emotional expression.
Q2) As a result of a genetic mutation, ob/ob mice lack the ability to produce:
A)CCK.
B)neuropeptide Y.
C)leptin.
D)ghrelin.
Q3) Psychologists define the term _____ as a complex psychological state that involves subjective experience, a physiological response, and a behavioral or expressive response.
A)motivation
B)emotion
C)self-efficacy
D)anthropomorphism
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Q1) Discuss the relationship between adolescent behavior and adolescent brain development.
Q2) Identify the major stages of the lifespan.
Q3) In regards to physical development in infancy and childhood, describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. How do these trends in infant development compare to the developmental sequence for body segments in the womb?
Q4) Define teratogens, and list five known teratogens.
Q5) Explain the four different parenting styles described by Diana Baumrind and other psychologists, and describe how a parent from each style might deal with a child who wants to spend an excessive amount of time watching cartoon programs on television.
Q6) Describe Jean Piaget's views about the nature of cognitive development in children.
Q7) Describe research on the effect of educational baby videos on language development, and indicate whether the research supports the claim that baby videos work to accelerate language and cognitive development.
Q8) Define epigenetics and describe the different ways that gene expression can be triggered.
Q9) Define and compare the adult development milestones of menopause and andropause.
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Q1) Rachel describes herself in this way: "I go to Emerson school, and I like to play with my friend Heather. I have a dog and two parakeets." Sarah describes herself in this way: "I am not very self-confident, but I believe that I am a unique person who was put on this earth for some reason. My goals include becoming a better person, helping others, and possibly running for political office someday." From their descriptions of themselves, what age would you predict each to be?
A)Rachel and Sarah are probably both adolescents.
B)Rachel is an adolescent, and Sarah is in middle childhood.
C)Rachel and Sarah are both children.
D)Rachel is in middle childhood, while Sarah is an adolescent.
Q2) Which of the following theories posits that gender differences are the result of generations of the dual forces of sexual selection and parental investment?
A)social learning theory
B)evolutionary theory
C)social identity theory
D)gender schema theory
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Q1) Girls who are very thin or who are involved in physically demanding sports can experience a delay of up to two years in menarche beyond the average age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, the postconventional level is characterized by moral reasoning guided by conformity to social roles, rules, obligations, and expectations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Researchers Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess found that about two-thirds of infants can be classified as having either an easy, difficult, or slow-to-warm-up temperament.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Infants all over the world use the same sounds when they first begin babbling, including sounds that do not occur in the language of their parents.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Diamond is 12 years old and has just experienced her first menstrual period. Diamond has experienced:
A)spermarche.
B)menarche.
C)atypical puberty.
D)the pubertal spurt.
Q2) Martina is pregnant with her first child. She wonders how the embryo receives nourishment and rids itself of carbon dioxide and other wastes. You can tell Martina that the _____ performs this function.
A)placenta
B)amniotic sac
C)umbilical cord
D)zygote.
Q3) According research presented in the Focus on Neuroscience box on the adolescent brain, which area(s) of the brain is/are the LAST to reach maturity?
A)the prefrontal cortex
B)the parietal lobes
C)the amygdala
D)the left and right occipital lobes
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Q1) Developmental psychologists divide the lifespan into _____ age-related changes of development.
A)four
B)seven
C)nine
D)twelve
Q2) _____ illustrates genetic contributions to language development.
A)Behaviorism
B)Infant-directed speech
C)Attachment theory
D)Telegraphic speech
Q3) According to Science Versus Pseudoscience: Can a DVD Program Your Baby to Be a Genius?, which of the following is the BEST predictor of infant language development?
A)the baby's IQ
B)the baby's age
C)number of hours spent watching educational DVD programs
D)the amount of time parents spend reading to their kids
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Q1) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.
Q2) Explain the idea of 'possible selves,' and describe how possible selves can affect behavior.
Q3) How did Freud describe the structure of personality?
Q4) Cindy recently gave birth to her first child. She unexpectedly went into labor at a shopping mall, and had the baby before the ambulance could arrive to take her to the hospital. Cindy had to endure the pain of childbirth in a strange, stressful environment without any anesthetic. Her baby is now 3 months old, and when people ask Cindy about her birthing experience, she claims that she cannot remember most of that day. In the context of Freud's psychoanalytic theory, what is the likely cause of Cindy's lapse in memory? Will she ever remember this event in full?
Q5) Describe the primary themes of Alfred Adler's theory.
Q6) What is the social cognitive perspective on personality, and how does it differ from psychoanalytic and humanistic perspectives?
Q7) What are the basic assumptions in Carl Rogers's humanistic theory of personality?
Q8) What are ego defense mechanisms? Briefly describe the defense mechanisms of repression, projection, and denial, and their influences on behavior.
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Q1) Wilkerson has given her new patient several psychological tests. What approach should Dr. Wilkerson take in interpreting the test results?
A)She should assume that the tests tell her everything she needs to know about her new patient.
B)She should assume that the test results are likely to contradict her patient's self-concept.
C)She should combine her knowledge of the test results with behavioral observations and information from other sources, including the patient himself.
D)She should assume that the Rorschach and TAT tests will provide the most reliable insights into her patient's personality traits.
Q2) The two basic types of personality tests are:
A)aptitude and achievement tests.
B)personality type tests and self-report inventories.
C)personality trait inventories and personality type inventories.
D)projective tests and self-report inventories.
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Q1) Although they have been broken up for months, Hector still bought Shivangi flowers and chocolates for Valentine's Day. Hector is demonstrating the ego defense mechanism called rationalization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is strong evidence that the traits of extraversion and neuroticism are substantially influenced by genetics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Shelly was assessed at a career counseling service using a self-report test that determined her personality type was introverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving (ISFP). Shelly has been given the Rorschach Inkblot Test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to Carl Rogers, the fully functioning person is likely to be creative and spontaneous, and to enjoy harmonious relationships with other people.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Latency is to _____ as reaction formation is to _____.
A)psychosexual stage; ego defense mechanism
B)ego defense mechanism; psychosexual stage
C)conscious; unconscious
D)unconscious; conscious
Q2) According to the _____ perspective, people would instinctively choose positive, constructive behaviors if the restrictions of society were loosened.
A)psychoanalytic
B)social cognitive
C)humanistic
D)trait
Q3) The actualizing tendency is to _____ as striving for superiority is to _____.
A)Abraham Maslow; Carl Jung
B)Alfred Adler; Karen Horney
C)Carl Rogers; Alfred Adler
D)Carl Jung; Carl Rogers
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Q1) Hannah would like to be a professional musician one day. According to Albert Bandura, the BEST way for her to strengthen her sense of self-efficacy in this particular realm of behavior is:
A)through unconditional positive regard and developing a congruent self-concept.
B)through observational learning and mastery experiences.
C)by adopting the ego defense mechanisms of sublimation and displacement.
D)by developing a more positive "possible self" and daydreaming of making her debut at Carnegie Hall.
Q2) According to Table 10.5 in the textbook, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr., are key personality theorists associated with the _____ perspective.
A)trait
B)psychoanalytic
C)humanistic
D)social-cognitive
Q3) Both the social cognitive and humanistic perspectives on personality emphasize:
A)unconscious beliefs and feelings.
B)the importance of conscious thoughts about the self.
C)genetic influences on development.
D)positive aspects of aggression.
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Q1) What is a stereotype, and what is stereotype threat? What scientific evidence exists to support the notion of stereotype threat?
Q2) What is conformity? How is it influenced by normative and informational social influence, and culture?
Q3) Describe the Stanford Prison Experiment, and explain how the results of that study help explain the mistreatment of prisoners at Abu Ghraib.
Q4) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.
Q5) What was the basic experimental setup in Stanley Milgram's original obedience experiment?
Q6) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.
Q7) How did people predict that the participants in Milgram's experiment would react, and how did that prediction compare to the participants' actual behavior?
Q8) What aspects of the experimental situation in Milgram's obedience experiment increased the likelihood of destructive obedience?
Q9) Describe the findings of Solomon Asch's research on conformity.
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Q1) The Stanford Prison Experiment demonstrated the powerful influence of:
A)explicit orders and direct pressure to obey by an authority figure.
B)the bystander effect.
C)situational roles and conformity to implied social rules and norms.
D)the just-world hypothesis.
Q2) In Milgram's original obedience experiment, subjects who were assigned the role of teacher:
A)were deceived about the real role of the learner and the level of shock that he actually received.
B)were told to stop whenever they felt the slightest discomfort about what they were doing.
C)seemed to enjoy shocking the learner, especially at the higher voltage levels.
D)quickly figured out the learner was not really getting shocked.
Q3) According to your textbook, biochemical influences on aggression include _____ and _____.
A)testosterone; shrinking of the prefrontal cortex
B)testosterone; alcohol abuse
C)serotonin; oxytocin
D)glutamate; phencyclidine
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Q1) An implicit personality theory is a network of assumptions or beliefs about the relationships among various types of people, traits, and behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In collectivistic cultures, it is generally considered a violation of social norms to publicly disagree with or challenge the judgment of members of one's in-group.
A)True B)False
Q3) Your sense of self involves your unique sense of identity that has been influenced by social, cultural, and psychological experiences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Informational social influence is behavior that is motivated by the desire to be correct.
A)True B)False
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Q1) As you slowly inch your way toward the intersection, you finally see the auto accident that was stalling traffic. As you look at the two drivers standing by their crumpled cars, you think to yourself, "They probably had the accident because they're careless drivers." Your thinking reflects which of the following concepts?
A)hindsight bias
B)implicit cognition
C)the self-serving bias
D)the fundamental attribution error
Q2) Normative social influence results from people's desire to:
A)reduce cognitive dissonance.
B)be correct and have accurate information.
C)be liked and accepted by others.
D)avoid the fundamental attribution error.
Q3) Which of the following is a fairly common attributional bias?
A)hindsight bias
B)the in-group bias
C)the "feel good, do good" effect
D)diffusion of responsibility
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a key component that influences our person perception?
A)the characteristics of the individual you are attempting to size up
B)the rule of reciprocity
C)the specific situation
D)your own perceptions and goals
Q2) Deliberate, conscious mental processes are to _____ as automatic, nonconscious mental processes are to _____.
A)hindsight bias; implicit personality theory
B)implicit cognitions; explicit cognitions
C)stereotypes; prejudice
D)explicit cognition; implicit cognition
Q3) Joey and Ross were good friends. Joey was a very handsome guy, and Ross was a homely, nerdy-looking guy. Joey is likely to be perceived by other people as being _____ than Ross.
A)more intelligent, happier, and better adjusted
B)less intelligent, less happy, and less well adjusted
C)lonelier, less popular, and more socially anxious
D)more intelligent, more popular, but less happy
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Q1) How can social support help buffer the effects of stress? Does social support have to come from human sources?
Q2) Describe the role of major life events and change in producing stress. Next, list some of the limitations of the life events approach to measuring the impact of stress on health.
Q3) Do personality factors cause disease? Describe the research findings on this topic and explain why psychologists and other scientists are cautious in the statements they make about the connections between personality and health.
Q4) Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome.
Q5) Contrast the general patterns of coping in individualistic versus collectivistic cultures.
Q6) Health psychologist Shelley Taylor has proposed that women "tend-and-befriend" in response to stress. Define the "tend-and-befriend" response, and explain this phenomenon from an evolutionary perspective.
Q7) Describe the Type A and Type B behavior patterns, and identify the personality dimension or dimensions that seem to produce the highest health risks.
Q8) Define telomeres, and describe how they are affected by stress.
Q9) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?
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Q1) People in the _____ socioeconomic levels of society tend to have the _____ levels of psychological distress, illness, and death.
A)lowest; lowest
B)highest; highest
C)lowest; highest
D)highest and lowest; same
Q2) Barbara is an accountant who works a lot of overtime toward the end of the tax year to finish her clients' tax returns by the deadline. However, despite the long hours of being under pressure to get the tax returns done on time Barbara continues to be relaxed and calm. Barbara is:
A)showing a Type A behavior pattern.
B)in the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
C)using denial and escape-avoidance to cope with stress.
D)showing a Type B behavior pattern.
Q3) _____ are every day, minor events that annoy and upset people.
A)Life change units
B)Daily hassles
C)Catastrophes
D)Type A events
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Q1) Because microaggressions are subtle forms of racism, they contribute very little to the stress experienced by minority groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To help a troubled person cope, you should pretend to be cheerful and downplay the person's problems by saying things like, "Oh, I'm sure everything will turn out for the best."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research shows that less than 30 percent of those who experience major disasters-such as floods, earthquakes, and hurricanes-develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
A)True B)False
Q4) Mindfulness meditation tends to exacerbate the psychological effects of stress because it focuses awareness on negative thoughts and prolongs negative thinking about the stressor.
A)True B)False
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Q1) _____ refers to a negative emotional state occurring in response to events that are perceived as taxing or exceeding a person's resources or ability to cope.
A)Stress
B)Anxiety
C)An attitude
D)An appraisal
Q2) The MOST damaging component of the Type A behavior pattern appears to be:
A)time urgency and impatience.
B)lack of personal control.
C)hostility.
D)competitiveness.
Q3) According to Focus on Neuroscience: The Mysterious Placebo Effect, one possible explanation for the placebo effect is that it:
A)is ineffective for reducing pain.
B)can have a harmful effect on the central nervous system.
C)reduces pain by activating the brain's natural opioid network.
D)increases pain by activating the brain's natural opioid network.
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Q1) A PET-scan study that was featured in Focus on Neuroscience: The Mysterious Placebo Effect demonstrated that a placebo painkiller:
A)does not relieve pain and does not seem to affect brain regions.
B)relieves pain but activates different brain areas than genuine painkillers.
C)actually increases the sensation of pain.
D)activates the same brain areas as genuine painkillers.
Q2) When you are confronted with a threatening event, you will experience stress if: A)the event or situation rates above 75 life event units on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale.
B)you think you are unable to cope with the event or situation.
C)you use external, unstable, and specific explanations for the threatening event or situation.
D)you lack social support.
Q3) According to psychologist Shelley Taylor, the hormone _____ is higher in females than males and may promote the _____ response to threats.
A)oxytocin; tend-and-befriend
B)cortisol; fight-or-flight
C)catecholamines; tend-and-befriend
D)oxytocin; fight-or-flight
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Q1) Distinguish between the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, and give at least two examples of each.
Q2) What kinds of themes are commonly present in delusional thinking?
Q3) What is a personality disorder? Describe the symptoms, behaviors, and personality characteristics associated with the three conditions that are included in the odd, eccentric cluster of personality disorders.
Q4) What symptoms characterize bipolar disorder?
Q5) Summarize the research by neuroscientist Paul Thompson and contrast the brain development of normal, healthy teenagers with that of adolescents who have early-onset schizophrenia.
Q6) What evidence seems to support the role of genetic factors in the development of schizophrenia?
Q7) Discuss the prevalence of cigarette smoking among people with mental disorders, and summarize the key research findings showing a link between cigarette smoking and mental disorders.
Q8) What can a person do to help someone who expresses suicidal intentions?
Q9) Identify the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic attacks, panic disorder, and explain how agoraphobia is related to panic disorder.
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Q1) According to the information presented in the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders:
A)researchers are exploring the use of nicotine gum and patches as an alternative to antidepressant medications for people with major depressive disorder or persistent depressive disorder.
B)people with multiple psychological disorders have higher rates of smoking and smoke more cigarettes per day than people with one or no psychological disorders.
C)people who smoke a pack of cigarettes per day or more seem to develop a brain "buffer" that reduces the chances of major depressive disorder occurring or recurring.
D)people diagnosed with schizophrenia or another mental illness were four times less likely to smoke than the general population.
Q2) Present in virtually all cases of dissociative identity disorder are symptoms of:
A)hallucinations and delusions.
B)substance misuse and anorexia.
C)obsessions and compulsions.
D)amnesia, memory lapses, and memory problems.
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Q1) Feelings of anxiety are always abnormal and indicate the existence of a serious psychological disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The DSM-5 includes the symptoms, the criteria that must be met to make a diagnosis, and the frequency, typical course, and risk factors for each disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The characteristics and symptoms of personality disorders are usually evident by adolescence or early adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Major depressive disorder is often triggered by traumatic and stressful events.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that a person feels driven to perform.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Compared with during the spring months, during the winter months the number of suicides in the United States:
A)doubles.
B)triples.
C)quadruples.
D)is at its lowest rate.
Q2) Addyson has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. When her symptoms are severe, Addyson's verbal responses are limited to very brief, empty comments. This particular symptom is called:
A)avolition.
B)agoraphobia.
C)serotonin syndrome.
D)alogia.
Q3) About _____ of people who experience an initial episode of schizophrenia will develop a chronic, ongoing form of the disease that severely impairs their ability to function.
A)one-tenth
B)one-quarter
C)one-half
D)two-thirds
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Q1) Which of the following statements about social anxiety disorder is TRUE?
A)People with social anxiety disorder typically are unaware that their fears are unreasonable or excessive.
B)Social anxiety disorder is also referred to as phonophobia.
C)People with social anxiety disorder are intensely afraid of having a panic attack in a public place.
D)More women than men experience social anxiety disorder.
Q2) Research indicates that _____ occur(s) more often among creative writers and artists than among the general population.
A)depressive and bipolar disorders
B)personality disorders
C)schizophrenia
D)kleptomania and pyromania
Q3) According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), the median age of onset for any disorder is _____ years.
A)14
B)24
C)29
D)31
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Q1) What are the basic premises of family therapy? How does family therapy differ from individual psychotherapy?
Q2) Explain how researchers have investigated the question of whether psychotherapy is effective in the treatment of psychological problems, and describe their findings. Is there a difference in the effectiveness of various psychotherapies?
Q3) Describe the steps used in systematic desensitization and identify the conditioning principles involved in this technique.
Q4) What are some of the important points that someone should keep in mind if he or she is considering psychotherapy?
Q5) Summarize the basic experimental design and the main findings of the fMRI scan study of emotional and cognitive brain activity in patients with and without major depression. What effects were noted after cognitive therapy?
Q6) Describe similarities and differences in Freud's and Rogers's views of the therapeutic relationship.
Q7) Describe the psychotherapy techniques that were developed by Sigmund Freud, and explain their therapeutic functions.
Q8) List and describe at least three drawbacks of early antipsychotic medications.
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Q1) Researchers on effective psychotherapy have identified several common factors that contribute to a positive therapy outcome. Which of the following is NOT one of those common factors?
A)a specific therapeutic approach or orientation
B)therapist characteristics and the quality of the therapeutic relationship
C)awareness of and sensitivity to cultural differences
D)client characteristics
Q2) According to traditional psychoanalysis, when the patient experiences blocks in the process of free association, abruptly changes the topic being discussed, or suddenly goes silent, it probably signals:
A)insight.
B)resistance.
C)interpretation.
D)transference.
Q3) Hugh is a paraprofessional. Hugh
A)has no training in psychology or mental health.
B)has a license similar to a clinical psychologist.
C)probably has some training and a certificate in his field.
D)can work in most medical and mental health settings.
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Q1) It is completely normal for the psychotherapist and the client to become close personal friends and even become involved with one another on a social basis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lithium stabilizes the availability of glutamate within a narrow normal range, preventing both abnormal high and abnormal low levels of the neurotransmitter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research has consistently shown that traditional psychoanalysis is superior to all other forms of psychotherapy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Exposure therapy is a relatively new, untested approach to treating phobias and posttraumatic stress disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Peter recently underwent virtual reality therapy, which is a form of computer-assisted _____ used to help people conquer phobias such as fear of heights.
A)systematic desensitization
B)aversive conditioning
C)contingency management
D)cognitive reorganization
Q2) A _____ is usually a clinical psychologist or psychiatrist who has received additional training in using the specific techniques of the form of psychotherapy originated by Sigmund Freud.
A)counselor
B)neurologist
C)behaviorist
D)psychoanalyst
Q3) The FIRST step in rational-emotive therapy is a focus on identifying:
A)problem behaviors.
B)unconscious conflicts.
C)anger-provoking events
D)core irrational beliefs.
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Q1) A commonly seen _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.
A)negative; delusions
B)positive; hallucinations
C)positive; flat affect
D)negative; sensory distortion
Q2) Taijin kyofusho is:
A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.
B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.
C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.
D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicide?
A)flexible thinking and rational beliefs
B)a family history of suicide
C)exposure to cyberbullying
D)presence of a firearm in the home
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