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Course Introduction
Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers major concepts, theoretical perspectives, and research methods in psychology, exploring topics such as biological bases of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, development, emotion, motivation, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological principles apply to everyday life and contribute to a deeper understanding of oneself and others. Through experiments, case studies, and critical discussion, students develop a foundational knowledge essential for advanced study in psychology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 13th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Q1) The research conducted by psychologists involves
A) the validation of commonsense beliefs in predicting everyday experiences.
B) the systematic use of commonsense beliefs in solving new problems.
C) gathering information through direct observation.
D) a reliance on subjective opinions and rationalizations.
Answer: C
Q2) Critical thinking does NOT involve which of the following questions?
A) How good is the evidence?
B) What was the nature and quality of the tests?
C) Has any other independent researcher duplicated the findings?
D) How are the findings related to commonsense beliefs?
Answer: D
Q3) Critical thinking involves
A) using conventional wisdom and common sense.
B) a reliance on the opinions of experts.
C) a willingness to actively reflect on ideas.
D) all of these.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following psychological approaches is matched correctly to its view of human nature?
A) behavioristic----------------positive, philosophical view
B) humanistic------------------neutral, scientific, somewhat mechanistic view
C) psychodynamic------------somewhat negative, pessimistic view
D) cognitive--------------------positive, philosophical view
Answer: C
Q2) The study of similarities and differences in the behavior of different species is called A) biology.
B) comparative psychology.
C) environmental psychology.
D) differential psychology.
Answer: B
Q3) The independent variable in an experiment is
A) the subject him or herself.
B) a measure of the subject's behavior.
C) the variable that the experimenter chooses to manipulate.
D) any unwanted variable that may adversely affect the subject's performance.
Answer: C

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Q1) The survey method involves
A) an in-depth study of the opinions and attitudes of a selected individual.
B) an overview of the attitudes and backgrounds of selected groups.
C) direct observation and recording of a representative sample of behavior.
D) careful questioning of a representative sample of people.
Answer: D
Q2) The cognitive view of psychology takes a computer-like view of how the brain functions and explains behavior in terms of information processing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Critical thinking is a type of reflection that involves asking whether a particular belief can be supported by scientific theory and observation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The heart of critical thinking is a willingness to actively __________ on ideas
Answer: reflect

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Q1) Wernicke's area is located in the __________ lobe.
A) right frontal
B) right temporal
C) left frontal
D) left temporal
Q2) Through his use of stimulants and hallucinogens,Martin caused damage to his pons.Now doctors have to inject him with medication that will help
A) him store new memories.
B) him to move his legs in a coordinating way.
C) him to sleep.
D) control his aggressiveness.
Q3) Which part of the brain is related to complex behaviors with damage dramatically changing one's personality and emotional life?
A) prefrontal area
B) primary somatosensory area
C) corpus callosum
D) primary auditory area
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Q1) From an early age,Daniel's parents noticed that Daniel could perform all tasks,including writing and sports activities,equally well with either of his hands.In fact,Daniel really does not prefer the use of one hand over the other in doing any task.Daniel would be described as
A) being moderately right-handed.
B) being moderately left-handed.
C) being ambidextrous.
D) having inconsistent handedness.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes how anabolic steroids affect young adolescents?
A) Anabolic steroids elevate mood.
B) Anabolic steroids increase the risk of heart attack and stroke.
C) Anabolic steroids are often used to promote weight loss.
D) Anabolic steroids have no adverse health effects.
Q3) The Latin word for "right" means
A) lucky.
B) dominant.
C) dexterous.
D) skillful.
Q4) The cell body of a neuron is also called the __________.
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Q1) Chromosomes are made up of A) zygotes.
B) gametes.
C) genes.
D) phenotypes.
Q2) If you were to observe the development of psychomotor abilities in infants across cultures,you would find the most similarities in the A) ages at which each ability appears.
B) child-rearing practices used to foster development.
C) sequence in which abilities appear.
D) relationship between intellectual and psychomotor development.
Q3) Which of the following teratogens tends to greatly reduce oxygen to the fetus,increase the risk of miscarriage,prematurity,and low birth weight with surviving children showing lower scores on language and mental abilities tests?
A) German measles
B) maternal stress
C) exposure to X-rays
D) smoking by the mother
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Q1) You place five pennies in a row and then take five more pennies and place them in a row directly below the other,so that the pennies in the two rows are paired.Your five-year-old son tells you that there are the same number of pennies in each row.You then spread out the pennies on the bottom row so that it looks longer.Your son now thinks that the bottom row has more pennies,showing that he lacks
A) conservation.
B) object permanence.
C) assimilation.
D) egocentrism.
Q2) Erica is accustomed to riding her own bicycle.She decides to ride her brother's bike,which is slightly larger.Piaget would call the changes Erica makes in order to ride her brother's bike
A) assimilation.
B) accommodation.
C) conservation.
D) transformation.
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Q1) Regarding the discipline approach known as management techniques,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Management techniques need to be carefully adjusted to a child's level of understanding.
B) Management techniques tend to create "model" children, who are overly dependent on adults for approval, insecure, and anxious.
C) Management techniques involve an overly permissive style of parenting that can lead to more problem behaviors.
D) Management techniques tend to cause low self-esteem in elementary school children.
Q2) It is important for parents to allow toddlers to do things for themselves since overprotecting them or ridiculing their efforts may cause toddlers to lack confidence their abilities and become overly dependent on their parents.These conflicts are part of Erikson's psychosocial stage known as
A) initiative versus guilt.
B) autonomy versus shame and doubt.
C) industry versus inferiority.
D) generativity versus stagnation.
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Q1) According to Kohlberg,the conventional level is based on self-interest and avoiding punishment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the five reactions to impending death as outlined by Kübler-Ross,and explain how this information on the typical reactions can be used to help those who are dying,their loved ones,and ourselves.
Q3) If you slam a door (making a loud noise),an infant is likely to be startled and show the __________ reflex.
Q4) A time of increased susceptibility to both positive and negative environmental influences is called a(n)__________.
Q5) According to Chomsky,humans have a biological predisposition to develop language.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Zach likes to "lay down the law" and takes no arguments from his children.According to the research on parenting styles by Diana Baumrind,Zach is exhibiting a(n)__________ parenting style.
Q7) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called __________.
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Q1) On weekends,16-year-old Clanton likes to hunt,ride his motorcycle,and play drums in his local rock band.His doctor told him that he has damaged the hair cells in his ears.Which of the following types of hearing loss does Clanton NOT have?
A) noise-induced hearing loss
B) sensorineural hearing loss
C) the Hunter's notch
D) conductive hearing loss
Q2) A frog's eyes are highly sensitive to small,dark,moving spots.Since the frog's eyes are attuned to this specific stimuli,the frog's eyes act as
A) feature detectors.
B) sensory amplifiers.
C) perceptual transducers.
D) phosphenes.
Q3) Regarding sound waves,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Sound waves are produced by vibrating objects.
B) Sound waves can travel in a vacuum.
C) Compressions are the valleys within the sound waves.
D) Rarefactions are the peaks within the sound waves.
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Q1) Which of the following would be good advice to help a person to minimize motion sickness?
A) Fixate on a distant immobile object.
B) Move your head as little as possible.
C) Lie down if you can.
D) All of these are good suggestions.
Q2) The latest cochlear implants make use of which theory of hearing to separate higher and lower tones?
A) frequency
B) place
C) conduction
D) stimulation
Q3) The pain carried by small nerve fibers are slower,nagging,aching,widespread and extremely unpleasant.This is the body's __________system.
A) reminding
B) warning
C) kinesthetic
D) vestibular
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Q1) Smog,fog,and haze add to the apparent distance of an object.This is called
A) linear perspective.
B) aerial perspective.
C) relative size.
D) relative motion.
Q2) Simons and Chabris showed participants a film of two basketball teams,one wearing black shirts and the other wearing white.Observers were asked to watch the film closely and count how many times a basketball passed between members of one of the teams,while ignoring the other team.As the observers watched and counted,a person wearing a gorilla suit walked into the middle of the basketball game,faced the camera,thumped its chest,and walked out of view.Which of the following occurred?
A) All of the participants lost count of the number of basketball passes because of the unexpected appearance of the gorilla.
B) Half of the participants failed to notice the gorilla's appearance.
C) All of the participants failed to notice the gorilla's appearance.
D) Only the female participants noticed the gorilla.
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Q1) When listening to your favorite television program,hearing the various sounds of the actors' voices and the background sounds and music would be an example of perception,while interpreting the meaning of the actors' words is an example of the process of sensation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bottom-up processing is like putting together a picture puzzle you have seen many times.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The theory that explains motion sickness as a mismatch in information received by the eyes and the body is called the __________ theory.
Q4) The shortest wavelengths of visible light are sensed as red,while the longest wavelengths of light are sensed as purple.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A popular theory of olfaction which states that odors are related to the shapes of chemical molecules is the __________ theory.
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Q1) Which of the following is an external marker that helps us set up 24-hour sleep rhythms?
A) hunger
B) physical activity
C) light and darkness
D) lunar patterns
Q2) Regarding the stages of sleep,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Most wave types are present at all times, but they occur more or less frequently in various sleep stages.
B) In Stage 3, a new brainwave called beta waves begins to appear.
C) Most people reach deep sleep in about one hour.
D) Fluctuations in sleep hormones cause recurring cycles of deeper and lighter sleep throughout the night.
Q3) Which of the following is the most important in the physiological control of sleep?
A) brain circuits and brain chemicals
B) the somatic nervous system
C) external markers for sleep and wakefulness
D) sleep-promoting substances in the blood stream
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Q1) Concerning hypnotism as a stage performance,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Stage hypnotists makes use of waking suggestibility.
B) Stage hypnotists randomly select subjects to participate in the show.
C) Stage hypnotists often create a simulation of hypnotic effects, not actual hypnosis.
D) Stage hypnotists often use deception and tricks.
Q2) Freud's dream theory is based on the assumption that the true meaning of a dream is found in its __________ content.
A) latent
B) manifest
C) REM
D) lucid
Q3) The reduction in the body's response to a drug which may accompany drug use is called
A) withdrawal.
B) drug addiction.
C) psychological dependence.
D) drug tolerance.
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Q1) Smoked forms of methamphetamine are commonly called
A) goof balls.
B) ice.
C) crack.
D) scoop.
Q2) Which of the following can be smoked,snorted,injected,or eaten; is known by the street names of "bergs" and "glass;" is made cheaply in backyard labs; and has fueled a violent criminal subculture?
A) GHB
B) marijuana
C) methamphetamine
D) MDMA
Q3) Jacob is suffering from amphetamine psychosis.When in this state,Jacob's most prominent symptom will be
A) severe depression.
B) panic attacks.
C) paranoid delusions.
D) auditory hallucinations.
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Q1) Sleeping in a hammock,a boat,or on a waterbed tends to increase the number of lucid dreams one has by stimulating the vestibular system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Concerning altered states of consciousness,(a)describe characteristics of an altered state of consciousness,(b)describe four everyday situations in which people experience these altered states,and (c)describe the intentional uses and meanings of the altered states within another culture.
Q3) Jana has an argument with her husband and then dreams that she accidentally backs into his motorcycle,damaging it slightly.According to Freud,this is an example of the dream process called __________.
Q4) Dream actions of flying,floating,or falling are more frequent than the dream actions of running,sitting,or talking.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most dreams reflect ordinary waking concerns because the brain areas that are active when we are awake remain active during dreaming,according to the __________ dream theory.
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Q1) A child learns to be afraid of spiders by observing his parents' highly emotional and negative response to them.This demonstrates
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) higher order conditioning.
C) vicarious classical conditioning.
D) stimulus generalization.
Q2) What type of disordered conditioning did psychologist Diana Woodruff-Pak notice in patients six years before other tests on these patients showed signs of dementia?
A) salivation
B) nose twitch
C) knee jerk
D) eye blink
Q3) From a response contingent viewpoint,which of the following tells a person or an animal that a response was "right" and worth repeating?
A) the conditioned stimulus
B) the reinforcer
C) the operant
D) an acquisitional cue
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Q1) A series of responses that gradually approach a desired pattern of behavior are called
A) adaptations.
B) gradients.
C) successive approximations.
D) conditioning trials.
Q2) Ms.Campbell gives her students a star for every completed homework assignment.The star serves as a
A) positive reinforcer.
B) negative reinforcer.
C) primary reinforcer.
D) response cost.
Q3) Your tendency to study more before a scheduled test,to study less right after that test,and then start another studying frenzy right before the next test illustrates the typical pattern of which schedule of reinforcement?
A) fixed ratio
B) fixed interval
C) variable ratio
D) variable interval
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Q1) The first step in using "behavioral self-management" is to A) choose reinforcers.
B) establish goals.
C) choose a target behavior.
D) record two baselines.
Q2) Responses are usually suppressed by A) stimulus generalizations.
B) intermittent reinforcement.
C) negative reinforcement.
D) punishment.
Q3) Regarding the use of punishment with children,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) If punishment is used at all, it should always be mild.
B) Punishment works best when it produces actions incompatible with the response.
C) Response cost is usually best for older children and adults.
D) Punishment is effective in teaching new behaviors and in indicating what the "right" response is.
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Q1) The type of learning that is also known as instrumental learning and involves voluntary responses being emitted by the animal or person is called __________ conditioning.
Q2) Three-year-old Jake ran up to the neighbor's new lab puppy.The puppy barked loudly and playfully jumped up on Jake,knocking him down.Although Jake was not hurt,the experience did frighten him.The next time he saw the lab puppy,he hugged his mother's knees and began to cry.Regarding the development of Jake's fear of dogs,this puppy served as the conditioned stimulus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Learning is a change in behavior caused by maturation and practice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you have ever learned your way through the various levels found in many video games,you have developed a cognitive map of the video game.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In Pavlov's experiment,the dog's salivation to the food is referred to as the __________ response.
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Q1) Smelling apple pie causes you to have vivid and detailed memories of the happy times that you spent in your grandmother's kitchen.This process is called
A) redintegration.
B) eidetic imagery.
C) chunking or recoding.
D) the serial position effect.
Q2) When Timmon comes home from kindergarten,he tells his mother that he learned the days of the week today.Over time,Timmon will forget when and where he learned the days of the week but will retain the names of the days of the week forever.This illustrates that the forgetting of episodic memories leads to the formation of __________ memories.
A) echoic
B) semantic
C) skill
D) iconic
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Q1) Déjà vu,the experience that you have previously experienced a new situation,is an example of
A) semantic memory.
B) eidetic imagery.
C) lucid dreaming.
D) partial memory.
Q2) You and your family are leaving on a week-long vacation.As you leave your hometown behind,you begin to feel excited as you anticipate the adventures to come and start remembering other exciting vacations that you have taken over the years with your family.This suggests that your memory is
A) state-dependent.
B) eidetic.
C) proactive.
D) regressive.
Q3) The false items that are included with the correct answer to be recognized are known as
A) trick responses.
B) false icons.
C) mnemonics.
D) distractors.
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Q1) Regarding rehearsal of information,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The more you rehearse (mentally review) information as you read, the better you will remember it.
B) If new information is linked to one's existing superstitions, the end result can be improved memory for the new information.
C) The encoding strategy of rote rehearsal is more effective than elaborative processing because it keeps remembered information more concise.
D) To learn college-level information, you must make active use of reflective study strategies.
Q2) Katie is having trouble learning Italian because she finds that having learned German earlier makes it more difficult for her to now learn Italian,which illustrates forgetting due to retroactive interference.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When backing a trailer,you must turn the steering wheel away from the direction you want the trailer to go,a situation in which the skills you developed in one situation conflict with those required to master this new task.This situation is an example of ___________ transfer.
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Q1) A major criticism of the early language studies with chimpanzees was that A) the chimps did not demonstrate humor or emotional statements within their communications.
B) even untrained chimps use simple gestures to communicate with humans.
C) the chimps were unable to use conditional statements when communicating.
D) the chimps were unable to use American Sign Language or lexigrams.
Q2) People have been shown to give different responses to surveys if the word "banned" is used in a question than if "not allowed" is used.The difference is primarily a matter of A) syntax.
B) conjunctive meaning.
C) disjunctive meaning.
D) semantics.
Q3) In which of the following ways would mental images NOT be used ?
A) to change our feelings
B) to make decisions
C) to improve a skill
D) to prevent automatic processing
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Q1) A quick,impulsive thought that does not typically make use of formal logic or clear reasoning describes
A) the thinking process of people who are geniuses.
B) deductive thinking.
C) intuition.
D) inductive thinking.
Q2) Thinking directed toward the discovery of a single established correct answer is known as __________ thinking.
A) deductive
B) convergent
C) divergent
D) intuitive
Q3) Rather than springing from sudden insights,much creative problem-solving is the end result of many small steps.Thus,creative problem-solving
A) requires consolidation.
B) involves simultaneous processing.
C) is incremental.
D) is conditional.
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Q1) You are asked to come up with new ways to clean oil off a beach,so you look in the dictionary at randomly selected words,such as weed,rust,poor,magnify,foam,coal,etc,and try to relate them to the problem and see what thoughts they trigger.You are
A) seeking varied input to solve your problem.
B) narrowing the parameters of your problem.
C) distracting your focus and this should be avoided.
D) creating mental sets that will enhance your creativity.
Q2) Describe the typical characteristics of creative persons; compare and contrast these characteristics with the popular stereotypes of creative people; and explain whether there is any truth to the old saying that "there is a fine line between genius and insanity."
Q3) A supervisor is given the problem to design a better doorway and presents this task to his employees by asking them to "devise ways to define separate areas for living and working."
The supervisor's revised task for his employees will
A) encourage creativity by broadly defining the problem.
B) discourage creativity because the problem has been defined too broadly.
C) encourage creativity by quickly creating mental sets.
D) prevent incubation of the problem and discourage creativity.
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Q1) A 12-year-old child with an IQ of 100 would have a mental age of A) 10.
B) 12.
C) 100.
D) 120.
Q2) A psychologist interested in learning the IQ of a six-year-old child should administer the
A) WAIS-IV.
B) SAT.
C) WISC-IV.
D) Dove Counterbalance test.
Q3) Dr.Ables administers two different versions of the same test to a group of people and compares the scores from each version.Dr.Ables is establishing this test's
A) criterion validity.
B) equivalent-forms reliability.
C) test-retest reliablity.
D) split-half reliability.
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Q1) If a psychologist advocates the neural basis of intelligence,then he or she believes which of the following reflects the brain's efficiency?
A) the g-factor
B) spatial perception
C) speed of processing
D) metacognitive skills
Q2) The age of the mother and father is a significant factor in the child being born with which condition?
A) cretinism
B) phenylketonuria (PKU)
C) fragile-X syndrome
D) Down syndrome
Q3) Brittany was born with Down syndrome due to having an extra chromosome.Her intellectual disability is classified by cause as
A) biopsychosocial.
B) environmental.
C) organic.
D) familial.
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Q1) The distribution of IQ scores within the population tends to show a U-shaped curve with most scores falling at both ends and a few scores in the middle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Crystallized intelligence declines rapidly after middle age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Court decisions have led some states to outlaw the use of intelligence tests in public schools.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Regarding intelligence,creativity,rational thinking,and wisdom,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) People can be intelligent without being wise.
B) People can be intelligent without being creative.
C) Wise people are open and tolerant.
D) Clear, rational thinking leads to inspired answers.
Q5) Discuss artificial intelligence,including computer simulations and expert systems,their uses,and limitations.
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Q1) A commercial for an ice cold beverage shown on a day with record high temperatures is probably an effort to arouse one's __________ motives.
A) biological
B) extrinsic
C) learned
D) stimulus
Q2) Scientists have long known that body activity is guided by internal "biological clocks" known as
A) biofeedback.
B) stimulus motives.
C) circadian rhythms.
D) homeostatic equilibrium.
Q3) Most people are more energetic,alert,and in a better mood at A) the high point of their circadian rhythms.
B) the median point of their circadian rhythms.
C) the low point of their circadian rhythms.
D) varying points within their circadian rhythms depending on the season.
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Q1) Regarding the sex drive and Coolidge Effect,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The Coolidge Effect demonstrates the homeostatic quality of the sex drive.
B) The Coolidge is the pattern of behavior shown by male animals whereby they show higher sexual activity once a new sexual partner is introduced.
C) The Coolidge effect was named after former U.S.President Calvin Coolidge.
D) Since people may seek to arouse the sex drive as well as to reduce it, this quality makes the sex drive capable of motivating a wide range of behaviors.
Q2) MaLynn works for a company that has strict rules for every procedure.She often works under extreme time pressure with her boss constantly "looking over her shoulder." MaLynn will most likely show a(n)
A) Type A personality.
B) Type B personality.
C) increase in her intrinsic motivation for her job.
D) decrease in creativity on her job.
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Q1) As a group,which of the following are most likely to experience the condition called alexithymia?
A) men
B) women
C) persons over 50
D) the creatively gifted
Q2) Regarding gender differences in expressing emotions,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Even though men do not openly express emotions, they are just as aware of their emotions as women are of their own emotions.
B) For many men, an inability to express emotions is a major barrier to having close, satisfying relationships with others.
C) Blunted emotions in the young males involved may have contributed to tragedies, such as the mass murders at Columbine High School.
D) An inability to express emotions can lead to health problems, such as depression or addictive behaviors.
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Q1) Guilt is one of the eight primary emotions described by Plutchik.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eating a salty meal causes an extracellular thirst.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The needs that appear to be innate but are not necessary for survival,such as the needs for activity,exploration,manipulation,and physical contact are called __________ motives.
Q4) As you and your mother are riding the double ferris wheel,you interpret your adrenaline rush as "thrilling and delightful" and your mother interprets her adrenaline rush as "terrifying fear" with this difference best explained by the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Persons with anorexia lose their appetite and stop feeling hungry because of this compulsive dieting.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Regarding research on testosterone levels,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Men with high levels of testosterone are more likely to become aggressive, when sexually aroused.
B) Men with high levels of testosterone are more likely to make poor decisions about sexual behavior when sexually aroused.
C) Men with low testosterone levels may have difficulty thinking and concentrating.
D) Men and women with high testosterone levels are at greater risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) If one identical twin is homosexual or bisexual,what is the percent chance that the other twin is,too?
A) 25
B) 50
C) 75
D) 85
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Q1) Regarding the sex drives of men and women,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Large doses of alcohol suppress orgasm in women and erections in men.
B) The drugs amphetamines, cocaine, and Ecstasy will impair sexual response.
C) Men's and women's sex drives are closely related to the testosterone level in their bloodstreams.
D) Men have a stronger sex drive than women do.
Q2) Regarding androgyny,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Older men tend to be more accepting of androgynous traits than younger men.
B) European-American men tend to be more androgynous than Mexican American men.
C) Androgynous people are able to use both instrumental and expressive capacities to enhance their relationships.
D) Asian-American men, especially those born in the United States, are displaying more androgyny as indicated by this group not being afraid of doing "feminine tasks."
Q3) Ferral has been convicted of child molestation.He has which paraphilia?
A) sexual masochism
B) voyeurism
C) pedophilia
D) bisexuality
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Q1) Within a relationship,sex should be regarded as
A) essential to making the relationship work.
B) a form of communication.
C) a physiological need to be met.
D) irrelevant in understanding the partners' feelings for each other.
Q2) When a disorder,such as erectile dysfunction has a psychological,rather than a physical cause,it is said to be
A) primary.
B) secondary.
C) organic.
D) psychogenic.
Q3) Tom has an excess sexual desire in which he has persistent and intense sexual fantasies,urges,and behaviors,which are very troubling to him.In the new Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders to be published in 2013,Tom's sex addiction will most likely be termed as __________ disorder.
A) primary erectile
B) secondary erectile
C) hypersexual
D) dyspareunia
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Q1) The unspoken mental plan that defines a "plot," dialogue,and actions expected to take place in a sexual encounter is referred to as a(n)__________.
Q2) Explain how gender role stereotyping may encourage the act of rape.
Q3) Although Susan's infant daughter's body produced estrogen,she had a genetic abnormality that causes her adrenal glands to release too much androgen,which caused her to be born with genitals that are more male than female.Susan's infant daughter has a condition known as __________.
Q4) A child that shows an unusual avoidance of,or an interest in,sexual matters,increases misbehavior,is secretive,and develops sleep problems most likely has experienced child __________.
Q5) Surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as __________.
Q6) Cindy can be assertive and a risk-taker when her job calls for these characteristics,while she is caring,compassionate,and sensitive to her younger siblings.According to the sex role inventory,Cindy would be described as __________.
Q7) In some cases of transsexuality or intersexuality,the external genitalia may be altered through __________ surgery.
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Q1) According to Freud,when impulses from the id overwhelm the ego,the person experiences
A) incongruence.
B) neurotic anxiety.
C) moral anxiety.
D) organismic valuing.
Q2) If a person is gullible,passive,and needs lots of attention,he or she may have experienced fixation and have an __________ personality.
A) anal-retentive
B) oral-aggressive
C) anal-expulsive
D) oral-dependent
Q3) According to Freud,the use of mental processes to deny,distort,or otherwise block out sources of threat and anxiety are referred to as
A) the pleasure principle.
B) self-efficacy.
C) congruence.
D) defense mechanisms.
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Q1) A good suggestion for developing toward self-actualization includes
A) a willingness to remain constant and unchanging.
B) a willingness to remain indifferent.
C) allowing others to gauge your progress.
D) repeating activities which lead to peak experiences.
Q2) According to humanistic therapists,if we receive affirmation and support from a close partner,we are more likely to move toward A) conditions of worth.
B) our ideal selves.
C) a state of incongruence.
D) the development of a superego.
Q3) According Julian Rotter,whether you choose to work harder to attain a better grade after failing a test will depend
A) on your trait of conscientiousness.
B) more on expected reinforcement than actual past reinforcement.
C) on extrinsic motivation rather than intrinsic motivation.
D) on how you view yourself in comparison to other students.
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Q1) According to the learning theorists,a passive or active orientation toward the world may develop as a result of
A) feeding experiences.
B) toilet training.
C) sex education.
D) expression of anger.
Q2) External circumstances influence the expression of a personality trait,according to A) behavioral genetics determinants theory.
B) behavioral factor analysis.
C) trait-situation interaction.
D) psychodynamic theory.
Q3) Which is NOT characteristic of shy people?
A) Shy people have lower self-esteem than non-shy people.
B) Shy people tend to blame circumstances for their social failures.
C) Shy people view their shyness as part of their self-concept and a lasting personality trait.
D) Shy people expect to be rejected in social encounters.
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Q1) According to Freud,children from age six to puberty experience a quiet,settled time called the latency period when psychosexual development is dormant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Alfred Adler's view,the main driving force in personality is a striving for
Q3) Regarding his college work,Toby tends to be disorganized,is frequently late to class,and often fails to turn in his assignments; and,thus,would most likely score low on the Big Five trait of conscientiousness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to Freud,the ego is the part of the personality that is made up of innate biological instincts and urges,and is self-serving,impulsive,and irrational. A)True
B)False
Q5) Our personalities can be shaped by the stories we tell ourselves,according to the __________ approach.
Q6) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her __________.
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Q1) Carmen is more likely to experience powerful and uncomfortable stress reactions if she views a stressor as a
A) challenge during primary appraisal.
B) challenge during secondary appraisal.
C) threat during primary appraisal.
D) threat during secondary appraisal.
Q2) Primary and secondary appraisal are the steps that occur when a person is A) coping with threatening situations.
B) developing a romantic situation.
C) trying to defeat a polygraph examination.
D) studying body language and other aspects of kinesics.
Q3) As discussed in your textbook,lifestyle diseases related to just six behaviors,smoking,alcohol and drug use,poor diet,insufficient exercise,and risky sexual practices,account for what percent of all medical costs?
A) 25
B) 40
C) 55
D) 70
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Q1) Which of the following examples most clearly represents frustration from a personal source?
A) You go to the grocery store, and they are out of your favorite ice cream.
B) You would like to make an A on your term paper, but you turned it in late and points will be deducted.
C) You are late to class because of a traffic jam near campus.
D) Your payroll check was delayed in the mail.
Q2) Melinda fails a test because she chose to go to a party over the weekend rather than studying.However,Melinda tells everyone she failed the test because the teacher is "too hard" and "does not like me." Thus,the real source of Melinda's frustration is
A) external, while she perceives the frustration to be personal.
B) personal, while she perceives the frustration to be external.
C) due to pressure, although she thinks she is having an approach-avoidance conflict.
D) nonsocial, while she thinks it is social.
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Q1) Regarding acculturative stress,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Typical reactions to acculturative stress are anxiety, hostility, and depression.
B) Acculturative stress can result in identity confusion.
C) The separation pattern of acculturation usually produces the least amount of stress.
D) People who assimilate usually experience fewer social difficulties than the other patterns.
Q2) Daily annoyances that are closely linked to immediate health and psychological well-being are known as hassles,or __________.
Q3) According to health psychologists,because Margo is often so depressed that she eats and sleeps poorly,rarely exercises,and has been smoking more,she would be described as having a disease-prone personality.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person with the choice of being in the "frying pan or the fire" is in a(n)__________ conflict.
Q5) Describe how a person's body responds during each stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
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Q1) In this country,a drug abuser or a prostitute would most likely be judged as abnormal based on
A) subjective discomfort.
B) cultural relativity.
C) social nonconformity.
D) statistical abnormality.
Q2) The physical deterioration of the brain that sometimes occurs in old age and causes disturbances in memory,reasoning,judgment,impulse control,and personality is called A) generalized neurosis.
B) dementia.
C) dissociative disorder.
D) Munchausen syndrome.
Q3) Which of the following behaviors is considered abnormal by almost all cultures?
A) extreme displays of otherwise normal behavior
B) feelings of unhappiness and discomfort
C) failure to communicate and unpredictable actions
D) any behavior that does not conform to the norms of the culture
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Q1) After failing to receive an expected job promotion,Joe has been in a continuous state of exaggerated sadness for several months.His self-image is very negative and he has lost all interest in others.He is probably suffering from
A) an existential crisis.
B) paradoxical anxiety.
C) psychosomatic depression.
D) a depressive disorder.
Q2) Three to four times a year,Chelsea has a panic attack.What additional information would suggest that Chelsea has panic disorder without agoraphobia?
A) Chelsea recovers quickly from her panic attacks and never has more than one within a month.
B) Chelsea shops in the mall at least twice a week and attends her son's basketball games.
C) Chelsea has a very relaxed attitude toward death.
D) Chelsea has successfully completed therapy to extinguish her fear of flying.
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Q1) Which of the following would be an example of a compulsion?
A) frequent hand washing
B) intrusive thoughts about sexual acts
C) persistent concern about air quality in one's workplace
D) repeatedly envisioning a violent act against a specific family member
Q2) The story of Sybil,a woman who had 16 separate personalities,illustrates multiple personality,which is a rare form of
A) bipolar disorder.
B) schizophrenia.
C) dissociative disorder.
D) personality disorder.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT listed as a major risk factor for suicide?
A) availability of a firearm
B) overeating
C) severe anxiety or panic attacks
D) family history of suicidal behavior
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Q1) In judging normality,social class is probably the most common source of bias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the current manual that is used by mental health professionals in the U.S.to classify mental disorders,explain the advantages of using this approach and how the new edition of this manual will be different from the present one,and discuss the dangers in psychiatric labeling,including the findings of Rosenhan's study.
Q3) Asking someone if he or she is thinking of committing suicide is likely to prompt a suicide attempt if the person is truly depressed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Susceptibility to anxiety-based disorders appears to be partly inherited with studies showing that being high strung,nervous,or emotional runs in families.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you seek counseling help from a cognitive behavior therapist,you would expect him or her to
A) provide aversive conditioning to produce bad habits.
B) provide a non-threatening setting for the expression of unconscious thoughts.
C) help you to change inappropriate patterns of thought.
D) overcome fixations that occurred at earlier stages of development.
Q2) Penelope's therapist rephrases,summarizes,and repeats the thoughts and feelings that Penelope has just expressed,acting much like a psychological "mirror" so that Penelope can see herself more clearly.Penelope's therapist is exhibiting
A) vicarious desensitization.
B) reflection.
C) transference.
D) free association.
Q3) Ellis believes that most irrational beliefs come from three unrealistic core ideas.Which of the following is NOT one of these ideas?
A) Conditions must be the way I want them to be.
B) I must perform well and be approved of by significant others.
C) My problems are always caused by my own faults and mistakes.
D) You must treat me fairly.
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Q1) Which of the following has been used to create immersive distracting environments in order to help patients reduce their experience of pain?
A) EMDR
B) virtual reality exposure
C) aversive conditioning
D) covert sensitization
Q2) Which of the following are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for candy,food,watching TV,or privileges?
A) operants
B) stimulus controls
C) time-outs
D) tokens
Q3) A form of learning in which simple responses (especially reflexes)are associated with new stimuli is called
A) operant conditioning.
B) social learning.
C) classical conditioning.
D) rational-emotive behavior therapy.
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Q1) When looking in the yellow pages,psychologists are usually found under the heading "Psychologists," or
A) "Mental Health Associations."
B) "Counseling Services."
C) "Mental Health Professionals."
D) "Physicians."
Q2) Regarding sensitivity,encounter,and large group awareness training,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Many of the claimed benefits of these groups tend to result from the intense therapeutic alliance that occurs among the group members.
B) The experiences in these groups tend to be positive, but they produce only moderate benefits.
C) These groups continue to be widely used in a number of settings due to their versatility.
D) These groups can be beneficial in helping people reach less ambitious goals, such as learning stress management techniques.
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Q1) You are preoccupied by the negative thought that "you will fail every test you take in college." How could you use thought-stopping to reduce the occurrence of this negative thought?
Q2) Victor Frankl based his logotherapy on experiences he had as a prisoner in a Nazi concentration camp.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adapting traditional theories and techniques to meet the needs of clients from non-European ethnic and racial groups and treating members of racial and ethnic communities as individuals are abilities exhibited by __________ therapists.
Q4) In counseling a friend,you are most likely to experience the "Yes,but" game,according to Eric Berne,if you use reflection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If ignoring children's temper tantrums causes them to cease,a psychologist would call this effect negative reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An ongoing pattern of life that characterizes a society at a given point in history is called
A) conformity.
B) standard norms.
C) group cohesion.
D) culture.
Q2) Zimbardo interpreted the results of his simulated prison study as an indication of the A) powerful influence of social roles on people.
B) tendency to show compassion to people in need.
C) weakness of social pressure in some situations.
D) tendency to displace aggression.
Q3) Being born into an organized society means that which of the following are present when we arrive?
A) established values
B) established expectations
C) established behavior patterns
D) all of these
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the three factors that determine the success or failure of persuasion?
A) the audience
B) the reinforcement
C) the message
D) the communicator
Q2) A person's invisible "spatial envelope" that surrounding the body and is regarded as private and under one's personal control is referred to as one's
A) spatial role.
B) personal space.
C) ego location.
D) proximal location.
Q3) You are talking with a new acquaintance,and you move in closer.Most people will do all of the following EXCEPT
A) take a step backward.
B) turn to their side or look away.
C) move forward toward you.
D) position an arm in front of themselves.
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Q1) The network of roles,communication pathways,and power in a group is known as group cohesiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The theory that explains attitude change in terms of a need to maintain consistency in our thoughts and actions is the __________ theory.
Q3) The lowball technique consists of getting a person committed to act and then making the terms of the request less desirable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mass murder/suicide at Jonestown,the Branch Davidian tragedy at Waco,the Heaven's Gate group suicide in San Diego,and Osama Bin Laden's al-Qaeda movement are examples of the use of A) group compliance.
B) informed consent.
C) the door-in-the-face effect.
D) forced attitude change.
Q5) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as __________.
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Q1) Regarding bystander intervention,which of the following is the first step in the decision-making process one must go through before giving help?
A) define the event as an emergency
B) take responsibility
C) notice that something is happening
D) select a course of action
Q2) Phillip meets Lydia in class and is interested in getting to know more about her.In social psychology,Phillip's affinity for Lydia would be called A) social exchange.
B) interpersonal attraction.
C) an actor-observer bias.
D) social compliance.
Q3) In North America,male friendships tend to be based on shared A) activities.
B) concerns.
C) feelings. D) confidences.
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Q1) Regarding intergroup conflict,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) A danger in demonizing "the enemy" is that it can lead to misperceptions of the motives and actions of other nations and groups.
B) Many of the bloodiest conflicts in history have been fueled, in part, by treating "the enemy" as evil and subhuman.
C) During times of war, normal people are able to kill other humans because they turn off their emotions and moral standards.
D) Those who actually do hold the moral high ground must be careful not to succumb to the same kind of blind hatred that leads to wanton violence and terrorism.
Q2) Sherif was able to finally reduce intergroup conflict between the "Rattlers" and "Eagles" camp groups by
A) holding meetings between the group leaders.
B) having the two groups eat together.
C) damaging the water supply.
D) creating status inequalities.
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Q1) The fact that Americans enjoy Mexican,Chinese,and Thai food indicates that
A) Americans have a higher obesity rate than other countries.
B) Americans are more interested in other cultures than are the citizens of other countries.
C) social competition in the food industry increases tolerance.
D) multicultural populations enrich a community.
Q2) Studies of prosocial behavior show that the more potential helpers present in an emergency,the more likely people are to get involved.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each ethnic group has strengths that members of other groups could benefit from emulating.For instance,all of the following groups emphasize family networks that help buffer them from some of the stresses of daily life EXCEPT for which group?
A) African Americans
B) Asian Americans
C) European Americans
D) Latinos
Q4) Prejudice that is expressed in a disguised fashion is known as __________ prejudice.
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Q1) Which of the following is a smaller area within an environment whose use is well defined,such as a bus depot,waiting room,or student lounge?
A) territorial marker
B) behavioral setting
C) situational space
D) social proxemic
Q2) As part of his job,Joseph has been observing iPod users as they manipulate both the standard and multi-touch interface models and will also survey them regarding these models.Joseph would best be described as a __________ psychologist.
A) human factors
B) humanistic
C) comparative
D) developmental
Q3) A group of employees who work together toward shared goals is called a
A) Theory X management group.
B) scientific management group.
C) quality circle.
D) self-managed team.
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Q1) Regarding natural resource consumption,which of the following is ten times higher in North America than in Asia or Africa?
A) ecological footprint
B) carbon footprint
C) territorial marker
D) conservation factor
Q2) Nita is a psychologist,whose specialties involve working with gifted and disabled students,conducting intelligence testing,and applying classroom management strategies.Nita is most likely a(n)__________ psychologist.
A) cognitive
B) educational
C) intellectual
D) behavioral
Q3) A person who says,"There are too many people in my face,and I need some space," is probably suffering from
A) hypochondriasis.
B) crowding.
C) social density.
D) socialists.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Engaging in behavior that achieves a minimum result,rather than maximizing the outcome of that behavior is known as
A) pseudostupidity.
B) satisficing.
C) compensatory urge.
D) complacency.
Q2) Discovery learning tends to produce students who are more independent,curious,and positive in their attitudes toward school.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To avoid "choking" while he is putting,a golfer must try to A) increase his arousal level.
B) decrease his arousal level.
C) increase his "flow" state through depersonalization.
D) focus on previous errors in putting so he won't repeat them.
Q4) The audible click designed into many computer keyboards is a good example of how effective designs provide the user with __________.
Q5) The volume of greenhouse gases that individual consumption adds to the atmosphere is called a(n)__________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cara is plotting a zero correlation as a graph.Her cluster of points will form the shape of a(n)
A) diagonal oval to the right.
B) diagonal oval to the left.
C) inverted-U.
D) circle.
Q2) Twenty psychology students took a 10-point practice test.Their scores were as follows: 3,3,4,5,5,5,6,6,6,6,8,8,9,9,9,9,10,10,10,10.What would be the median?
A) 4.0
B) 6.7
C) 7.0
D) 8.0
Q3) Which of the following measures offset proportions of a normal curve that are above and below the mean?
A) standard deviation
B) median
C) mode
D) coefficient of correlation
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Q1) In your psychology textbook,Discovering Psychology boxes invite you to relate psychology to your own life,while the Human Diversity boxes encourage students to think about the rich variability of the human experience.Thus,these features aid which step in the SQ4R method?
A) reflect
B) question
C) survey
D) sequential cognition
Q2) Sofia is taking a test with questions that ask her to "compare and contrast" and to "analyze and evaluate." Sofia is taking a(n)__________ test.
Q3) Dr.Molto wants to graphically visualize the correlational relationship between the variables in his study.He should use a(n)___________.
Q4) The web-based,personalized study system that provides a pre-test and a post-test for each chapter of your psychology textbook is
A) PsycPORT.
B) NOW.
C) PsycINFO
D) StudyTECH.
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