Foundations of Psychology Review Questions - 7014 Verified Questions

Foundations of Psychology Review Questions

Course Introduction

Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers key concepts, theories, and research methods that form the basis of psychological science, including biological foundations, learning, development, sensation and perception, cognition, personality, and social interactions. Through exploring major psychological perspectives and their real-world applications, students develop an understanding of both historical and contemporary issues in psychology, setting the groundwork for further study and personal insight into human thought and behavior.

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Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by Sandra E. Hockenbury

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Which perspective in contemporary psychology was influenced by Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow? What does this perspective focus on?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: The humanistic perspective was influenced by Carl Rogers and Maslow's development of a theoretical framework for motivation. This approach focuses on the motivation of people to grow psychologically, the influence of interpersonal relationships on a person's self-concept, and the importance of choice and self-direction in striving to reach one's potential.

Q2) How do individualistic cultures differ from collectivistic cultures?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: Individualistic societies emphasize the needs and goals of an individual over the needs and goals of the group. In these cultures, the self is seen as independent, autonomous, and distinctive. Personal identity is defined by individual achievements, abilities, and accomplishments. However, collectivistic cultures emphasize the needs and goals of the group over those of the individual. Social behavior is more heavily influenced by cultural norms and social context than by individual preferences and attitudes. Further, the self is seen as being much more interdependent with the group. That said, the majority of cultures are neither completely individualistic nor completely collectivistic, falling somewhere between these two extremes.

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Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) The branch of psychology that focuses on the study of the behavior of different animal species is called _____ psychology.

A)evolutionary

B)comparative

C)experimental

D)biological

Answer: B

Q2) In Dr. Foster's study one group is given a new medication that is believed to reduce anxiety. Another group is given a medication that looks like the real medication but has none of the active ingredients in it to affect anxiety. In this experiment the experimental group is the:

A)group that receives the new medication.

B)group that receives the medication without the active ingredients.

C)anxiety group.

D)group without anxiety.

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Biological psychology refers to the application of the principles of evolution to explain psychological processes and phenomena.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The humanistic perspective of psychology focuses on the motivation of people to grow psychologically.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Researchers using naturalistic observation try not to be detected by their subjects since the behavior patterns that exist naturally might not be apparent if the subjects knew they were being watched.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Mary Whiton Calkins:

A)founded the first psychology laboratory in America at Yale University.

B)studied with Sigmund Freud and became the first female psychoanalyst in the United States.

C)is best known for her pioneering research on comparative psychology and her book The Animal Mind.

D)conducted research on personality, dreams, and memory, and became the first woman president of the American Psychological Association.

Q2) Ginkgo Biloba is a herb that is thought to increase blood flow in the brain and enhance memory processes. In a carefully controlled study investigating this claim, young adults were assigned to one of three groups. Those in group 1 took a capsule containing 120 milligrams of ginkgo biloba once a day. Those in group 2 took a capsule that looked identical but was a fake. Those in group 3 did not take any capsules. The participants assigned to group 2 constituted the _____ in this study.

A)dependent variable

B)placebo group

C)extraneous group

D)out-of-control group

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Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Wilhelm Wundt focused on:

A)the nature versus nurture issue and interactive dualism.

B)how brain damage contributes to mental illness.

C)fundamental psychological processes, such as mental reaction times in response to visual and auditory stimuli.

D)the effects of mental illness on families.

Q2) The first African American to earn a Ph.D. in psychology was:

A)Mary Whiton Calkins.

B)Francis C. Sumner.

C)Edward B. Titchener.

D)G. Stanley Hall.

Q3) Rodella is very interested in your dream interpretation, blocked memories, and slips of the tongue. Which approach to psychology best fits Dr. Rodella's interests?

A)the evolutionary perspective

B)psychoanalysis

C)behaviorism

D)humanism

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) How does information transmission in the endocrine system differ from that in the nervous system?

Q2) What is biological psychology and why is this area of study important?

Q3) Define and give an example of an antagonist drug.

Q4) What are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system?

Q5) What are endorphins and what are their functions?

Q6) What is the somatosensory cortex? How is it organized?

Q7) What does it mean to say that a neuron is polarized?

Q8) Describe phrenology and explain the contribution it has made to the understanding of the brain.

Q9) Describe the functions of glial cells, as well as the microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells.

Q10) Compare and contrast the effects of agonist and antagonist drugs.

Q11) What are the key structures of the limbic system?

Q13) Select two neurotransmitters and describe their influence on behavior. Page 8

Q12) Describe the differences in male and female brains and discuss what conclusions can be drawn from research on gender differences and the brain.

Q14) What is the refractory period, and what takes place during that period?

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The limbic system refers to the:

A)hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal glands.

B)hippocampus, thalamus, amygdala, and hypothalamus.

C)thalamus, cerebellum, pons, medulla, and hypothalamus.

D)parietal, occipital, frontal, and temporal lobes.

Q2) An antagonist is a drug or other chemical that:

A)blocks a receptor site and inhibits or prevents a response in the receiving cell.

B)binds to a receptor site and triggers a response in the cell.

C)is released in response to stress or trauma and reduces the perception of pain.

D)blocks the reuptake of serotonin, increasing its effect.

Q3) Launched in 2009 by the National Institutes of Health, the Human Connectome project aims to:

A)sequence the human genome.

B)determine how each human is genetically related.

C)connect human research to animal research.

D)form a three-dimensional map of the brain's information highways.

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Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) People with Broca's aphasia find it difficult or impossible to produce speech.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Humans and nonhuman primates are born with all the brain neurons they will ever have, and there is no evidence that new neurons grow and develop after birth.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Acupuncture seems to reduce pain by reducing the availability of serotonin and dopamine in the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The human brain contains approximately 100 billion neurons and about ten times as many glial cells.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Studies with split-brain patients have demonstrated that the corpus callosum serves no particular purpose in the brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Karen is right-handed. A biopsychologist administers a PET scan of Karen's brain while Karen listens to one of her favorite pieces of music, Beethoven's Third Symphony. Which area of Karen's brain is likely to show the greatest activity on the PET scan?

A)Broca's area

B)Wernicke's area

C)the cerebellum

D)the right hemisphere

Q2) Nicotine is classified as a(n):

A)endorphin.

B)SSRI.

C)agonist.

D)antagonist.

Q3) Lydia experiences a rush of euphoria after her daily five-mile run. This sensation is known as:

A)neurogenesis.

B)the runner's high.

C)the synaptic rush.

D)the split-brain high.

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12

Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) In general, neural messages are received by the _____ and transmitted by the

A)cell body; dendrites

B)axons; nucleus

C)dendrites; axon

D)axon; dendrites

Q2) The brainstem is made up of several structures, which include the:

A)thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala.

B)medulla, pons, cerebellum, reticular formation, and midbrain, including the substantia nigra.

C)temporal lobe, parietal lobe, the occipital lobe, and frontal lobe.

D)corpus callosum, cerebral cortex, and the structures that make up the limbic system.

Q3) The _____ is the part of the limbic system that is involved in emotional responses and memories with a strong emotional component.

A)amygdala

B)thalamus

C)hypothalamus

D)medulla

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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Describe the functions of each of the key structures involved in hearing.

Q2) Describe Weber's law and give an example to illustrate it.

Q3) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.

Q4) What is the kinesthetic sense and where are its sensory receptors located?

Q5) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?

Q6) Discuss the basic assumptions of Gestalt psychology. Explain their contributions to psychological studies of visual perception.

Q7) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?

Q8) How do frequency theory and place theory explain the perception of pitch?

Q9) How does the gate-control theory explain the perception of pain?

Q10) How does the sensation of taste occur?

Q11) Describe the series of events that culminate in visual perception including the structure of the eye and/or brain area involved in each step.

Q12) Provide an example of perceptual set and explain how it influences perceptual experiences.

Q13) What sensory receptors and pathways are associated with painful sensations? How are these sensations produced? Page 14

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Page 15

Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) How can the Müller-Lyer illusion be explained?

A)The visual cues of overlap and binocular disparity provide the illusion of a three-dimensional object.

B)We correctly perceive the two lines as being identical in length, but because of motion parallax, the illusion that one line is longer is produced.

C)We assume that the figure is moving and that the ground or frame is stationary.

D)Visual depth cues create the perception that one line is farther away from us, which leads us to perceive that line as being longer.

Q2) The basilar membrane:

A)separates the middle ear from the inner ear.

B)lies within the coiled cochlea.

C)is part of the eardrum.

D)is a structure within the middle ear.

Q3) Hearing is to _____ as smell is to _____.

A)sound waves; nociceptors

B)sound waves; airborne odor molecules

C)airborne odor molecules; sound waves

D)sound waves; proprioceptors

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Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) People who are unable to smell specific odors or lack a sense of smell completely have a condition called anosmia.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Because of linear perspective, it is possible to see three-dimensional objects in stereograms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The 1 million axons of the ganglion cells are bundled together to form the optic nerve, a thick nerve that exits from the back of the eye at the optic disc and extends to the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Umami is the name for a fifth taste sensation and means "yummy" or "delicious" in Japanese.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) The optic disk produces:

A)color vision.

B)night vision.

C)the blind spot.

D)proprioception.

Q2) Research shows that repeated exposure to a particular stimulus leads to increased liking for that stimulus. This is referred to as:

A)the mere exposure effect.

B)psychokinesis.

C)perceptual constancy.

D)sensory adaptation.

Q3) Which of the following is a monocular cue involved in depth perception?

A)convergence

B)binocular disparity

C)accommodation

D)motion parallax

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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) According to Weber's law, the size of _____ is a constant proportion of the size of the initial stimulus.

A)the absolute threshold

B)a just noticeable difference or difference threshold

C)a subliminal threshold

D)a binocular disparity

Q2) The term sensation refers to:

A)a vague feeling of excitement or pleasure.

B)the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure.

C)the transformation of physical energy into chemical energy.

D)the interpretation and organization of sensory stimuli.

Q3) The sensory receptor cells for hearing are:

A)located in the primary auditory cortex of the brain.

B)embedded in the tiny bones (anvil, hammer, stirrup) in the middle ear.

C)embedded in the basilar membrane in the cochlea of the inner ear.

D)located along the length of the auditory nerve.

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19

Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Define dyssomnia, and then list and describe the characteristics of three dyssomnias discussed in the textbook.

Q2) What are circadian rhythms?

Q3) Describe the perils of multitasking or dividing attention, and provide an example.

Q4) What are sleep terrors, and who is most likely to have them?

Q5) What is the suprachiasmatic nucleus, and what is its main function?

Q6) Describe what neuroscientists have discovered about the nature of dreams, and identify the brain areas that are active and inactive during REM sleep.

Q7) How do sleep specialists treat obstructive sleep apnea? Give a specific answer.

Q8) How do dyssomnias and parasomnias differ?

Q9) What are the main characteristics of narcolepsy, and how are cataplexy and sleep paralysis involved?

Q10) According to research presented in your textbook, is it possible to control your dreams?

Q11) Define attention, and describe how attention is selective and limited in capacity.

Q12) Distinguish between sleep thinking and dreams.

Q13) How does alcohol affect the body and psychological functioning? Page 20

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Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) According to the activation-synthesis model of dreaming,:

A)dreams are completely meaningless.

B)the imagery in dreams is highly symbolic of repressed urges, wishes, and desires.

C)dreams are meaningful insofar as they reflect how the dreamer imposes personal meaning on the images generated by his or her brain.

D)dream images of sticks, swords, brooms, and other elongated objects are phallic symbols that represent the penis.

Q2) Matilda suffers from a sleep-related eating disorder. She would be classified as suffering from a class of sleep disorder called:

A)a dyssomnia.

B)dissociation.

C)a parasomnia.

D)delirium tremens.

Q3) The activation of the _____ brain areas reflects the dreams emotional qualities.

A)prefrontal cortex

B)limbic system

C)language

D)left hemisphere

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) The term circadian rhythm refers to biological and psychological processes that fluctuate over a period of about 24 hours.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A blood alcohol level of 0.20% is accompanied by obvious intoxication and marked depression in sensory and motor capability.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Caffeine, nicotine, and amphetamines are depressant drugs that tend to promote relaxation and sleep.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The electroencephalograph is the instrument that produces a graphic record of brain activity called an EEG, or electroencephalogram.

A)True

B)False

Q5) It is a myth that the original formula of Coca-Cola contained cocaine.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) The Psych for Your Life section provides a number of tips to help minimize sleep problems. Which of the following is NOT one of those recommendations?

A)Use stimulus-control therapy.

B)Engage in regular daytime exercise.

C)Use depressant drugs, such as alcohol or barbiturates, that cause drowsiness.

D)Develop a consistent sleep-wake cycle.

Q2) Which colors frequently appear in MOST people's dreams?

A)black and red

B)dark blue and emerald green

C)pastel colors

D)neon colors

Q3) Most people who are deprived of all environmental time cues tend to naturally follow a _____-hour sleep-wake cycle.

A)12

B)20

C)25.2

D)24.2

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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?

A)Circadian rhythms are regulated by the release of the neurotransmitter melatonin by the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

B)Circadian rhythms remain stable regardless of the sleep-wake schedule people adopt.

C)There are more than 100 different bodily processes that systematically vary over the course of each day, including blood pressure, the secretion of hormones, and pain sensitivity.

D)There are two important neurotransmitters, serotonin and dopamine, that regulate the 24-hour biological clock.

Q2) After traveling overseas to visit his family, Sanjay experienced _____, a condition that can occur when circadian rhythms are drastically out of synchronization with daylight and darkness.

A)jet lag

B)narcolepsy

C)insomnia

D)rebound sleep

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25

Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) Describe a study that shows indirect evidence of mirror neurons in humans.

Q2) Compare and contrast positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement, and provide an original example of each.

Q3) Pick two of the four basic schedules of reinforcement, describe them, and give at least one example of the reinforcement schedule operating in daily life.

Q4) Explain what is meant by the "adaptive nature of learning" as it relates to classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and observation/imitation.

Q5) Discuss criticisms of the famous "Little Albert" study.

Q6) What conditions increase the likelihood that a behavior will be imitated?

Q7) Describe three learning principles that you can use to improve self-control.

Q8) Describe the basic process of classical conditioning, using an original example. Be sure to identify the UCS, UCR, CS, and CR.

Q9) Identify three species of animals that have shown evidence of observational learning. Describe one study that had provided evidence of observational learning in animals.

Q10) Explain how Robert Rescorla demonstrated that mental processes are involved in classical conditioning.

Page 26

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) Which of the following factors was NOT identified as a factor that contributes to the effectiveness of entertainment-education programs?

A)an interesting, engaging story

B)support programs that are already in place when the series is broadcast

C)identifying a specific villain who is to blame for unhealthy behaviors

D)depicting the benefits of the changed behaviors

Q2) Skinner coined the term operant to describe:

A)active behaviors that operate on the environment to generate consequences.

B)the operational relationship between a conditioned stimulus as it relates to a reinforcer.

C)involuntary behaviors that were subject to the laws of learning but operated independently.

D)the relationship between behaviors and conditioned stimuli that elicited the behaviors.

Q3) Which of the following would be considered a conditioned reinforcer?

A)food

B)water

C)sexual contact

D)money

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) While at the airport, 7-year-old Ethan discovers a quarter in the coin return of a pay telephone. Ever since, Ethan checks the coin return of any pay telephone he sees. Using operant conditioning terms, the sight of a pay telephone is a discriminative stimulus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Gambling is a classic example of a fixed-ratio schedule.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The television program "Makutano Junction" was developed to educate viewers about physical and mental health. These entertainment-education programs use the principles of observational learning.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A Skinner box, or operant chamber, is a complex maze that a rat must successfully negotiate to get to a food reward in the goal box at the end.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) _____'s research contributed to television and radio serial dramas that are used to promote social change and healthy behaviors around the world.

A)B. F. Skinner

B)Albert Bandura

C)John Garcia

D)Edward L. Thorndike

Q2) Daniel's young twins often get into arguments about toys and what to watch on television. To reduce the number of arguments, Daniel started setting time limits during play and TV viewing. If the boys refrained from arguing during the set time, they were immediately rewarded with verbal encouragement and stars for their sticker charts. According to the box In Focus: Changing the Behavior of Others, Daniel is using the strategy of:

A)punishment by removal.

B)time-out from positive reinforcement.

C)reinforcing the non-occurrence of the problem behavior.

D)punishment by application.

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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Q1) _____ is a movement that advocates turning daily life into a kind of virtual reality game, in which "points" or other conditioned reinforcers are awarded to reward healthy or productive behaviors.

A)Gamification

B)Operant conditioning

C)Fantasy league

D)Token economy

Q2) In dogs, learned helplessness could be overcome by:

A)repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

B)dragging the dogs over the barrier to the side of the cage that was not electrified.

C)removing the food from the end of the maze.

D)disconnecting the food dispenser from the operant chamber in the dogs' cages.

Q3) According to _____, a rat learning to navigate a maze will eventually acquire

A)Edward C. Tolman; a cognitive map of the maze

B)Martin Seligman; learned helplessness

C)John Garcia; a taste aversion to any food eaten in the maze

D)Ivan Pavlov; a conditioned emotional response to the maze

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) How does the semantic network model describe the organization of information in long-term memory?

Q2) Identify and describe at least two factors that seem to influence forgetting.

Q3) Describe schemas and scripts, and explain how they can potentially contribute to inaccurate memories.

Q4) What is a flashbulb memory, and in what ways is it similar to and/or different from an ordinary memory?

Q5) What do tip-of-the-tongue experiences demonstrate about retrieval cues?

Q6) Your textbook lists seven factors that can contribute to the development of false memories. Pick four factors and explain them, giving an example of each.

Q7) Explain how interference theory contributes to the notion of forgetting, and discuss two types of interference that may affect memory.

Q8) Describe Richard F. Thompson's work on the classically conditioned eye blink response.

Q9) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.

Q10) Identify the role played by at least three brain structures involved in memory.

Q11) Describe the duration and capacity of short-term memory.

Q12) Describe the different types of long-term memory, and give an example of each. Page 31

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) During a Trivial Pursuit game, Seth was trying to think of the name of John Lennon's wife. "Yanni? Yo-yo? No, that's not it. I'm sure I'll think of . Wait, I remember! It was Yoko Ono! That was John Lennon's wife!" This example illustrates:

A)the misinformation effect.

B)the déjà vu experience.

C)a TOT (tip-of-the-tongue) experience.

D)the experience of a flashbulb memory.

Q2) Working memory:

A)provides permanent storage for information.

B)refers to the active, conscious manipulation of temporarily stored information.

C)has a limited capacity of about 12 to 14 items.

D)has a relatively short duration seldom exceeding 3 or 4 seconds.

Q3) During the last stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:

A)misplacing keys, glasses, and other common objects.

B)the spontaneous recovery of long-repressed memories.

C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.

D)the inability to recognize loved ones, loss of the sense of self and identity, and the inability to communicate in any meaningful way.

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Recovery therapists have been criticized for using highly suggestive techniques, such as hypnosis, in trying to "recover" supposedly repressed memories of childhood sexual abuse.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Maintenance rehearsal focuses on the meaning of information and is useful for maintaining information in long-term memory.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The maximum duration of short-term memory is about 20 seconds, unless the information is actively rehearsed.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Research has shown that the bits and pieces of information that people usually recall during a tip-of-the-tongue experience are completely unrelated to the blocked memory.

A)True

B)False

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Page 34

Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Q1) Of the different types of memory, _____ memory has the SHORTEST duration.

A)working

B)sensory

C)short-term

D)long-term

Q2) Years after H. M.'s surgery, doctors were surprised that he had acquired:

A)atypical Parkinson's symptoms.

B)a full range of episodic memories.

C)some new semantic knowledge.

D)a lifetime of false memories.

Q3) The _____ model describes the way in which information is organized in long-term memory.

A)interference

B)serial position

C)pragmatic

D)semantic network

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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:

A)agitation and moodiness.

B)spontaneous recovery of long-term and working memories.

C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.

D)misplacing common objects and moodiness, such as one's keys, glasses, or checkbook.

Q2) Which of the following statements about long-term memory is FALSE?

A)Information stored in long-term memory can potentially last a lifetime.

B)The amount of information that can be held in long-term memory is limitless.

C)The three components of long-term memory are the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive.

D)One category of long-term memory is semantic memory.

Q3) Whenever Carlos reaches for the silverware, he keeps reaching for the drawer that used to contain the silverware. Carlos's failure to remember the new location of the silverware is probably due to:

A)encoding failure.

B)retroactive interference.

C)the misinformation effect.

D)proactive interference.

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Page 36

Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who was David Wechsler, and what is he famous for?

Q2) Contrast the ways in which formal concepts and natural concepts are formed, and give an original example of each.

Q3) People often cling to beliefs that have been contradicted by empirical evidence. What kinds of obstacles to logical thinking can help explain the persistence of such unwarranted beliefs?

Q4) Contrast the viewpoints of Charles Spearman and Louis L. Thurstone on the nature of intelligence.

Q5) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.

Q6) Describe at least three suggestions that can enhance your ability to think creatively.

Q7) Describe and explain the contributions of genetics and environmental factors that influence IQ scores. How do researchers approach questions related to these variables?

Q8) What was Alfred Binet's role in the development of intelligence tests?

Q9) For individuals who are genetically related, how does similarity in IQ scores vary with degree of genetic relatedness?

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) When Jennifer lived in the Eastern European country of Slakia for a year, she found it very difficult to adapt to the strange customs and diet of the Slakian culture. Robert Sternberg might suggest that Jennifer is low in _____ intelligence.

A)analytic

B)spatial

C)creative

D)practical

Q2) The new Simonian Personality Scale had test and retest scores that were very dissimilar, and it also appeared to show little predictive value. In addition, there was some uncertainty about precisely what the test was actually measuring. The Simonian Personality Scale has:

A)high validity but low reliability.

B)high reliability but low validity.

C)low validity and high reliability.

D)low validity and low reliability.

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) A general rule-of-thumb strategy for problem solving that may or may not work is called a "heuristic."

A)True

B)False

Q2) Eleanor Rosch found that even though Dani-speaking people in New Guinea have words for only two colors in their language, they seemed to remember and perceive color in much the same way as English-speaking people from the United States.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When tests were described as measuring intelligence, the following results occurred: Hispanic students performed more poorly than white students, children from low socioeconomic backgrounds performed more poorly than students from higher socioeconomic backgrounds, and social science majors scored lower than natural science majors. These examples all illustrate stereotype threat.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Unlike formal concepts, natural concepts tend to have "fuzzy boundaries."

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, an individual with Asperger's syndrome (a mild form of autism spectrum disorder) is likely to:

A)score below the 30th percentile on a test of overall cognitive ability.

B)have narrow interests and inflexible behavior, but average to above-average intelligence.

C)have extraordinary long-term memory but is at risk for early-onset Alzheimer's disease.

D)require life-long support in daily living skills.

Q2) The linguistic relativity hypothesis:

A)contends that American Sign Language (ASL) lacks the formal requirements for language and is relatively impoverished linguistically.

B)states that thoughts and perceptions are influenced by the particular language that is used.

C)proposes that the formal characteristics of a language are relative and not absolute.

D)suggests that the way people think and perceive the world in different linguistic groups influences the formal language that they develop and use.

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Crissy likes to drive fast, counting on her matronly appearance and southern charm to avoid getting a speeding ticket. She believes that most speeders who get tickets are young males driving high-performance cars, so she was surprised when an officer pulled her over and gave her a $200 speeding ticket despite the fact that she had three kids with soccer balls and uniforms in the back of her SUV. Crissy was misled by the _____ in her belief that she was highly unlikely to get a speeding ticket.

A)representativeness heuristic

B)belief-bias effect

C)confirmation bias

D)availability heuristic

Q2) Hannah is writing a research paper on autism spectrum disorder. She is particularly interested in individuals who are called "autistic savants." According to the In Focus box

Neurodiversity: Beyond IQ, about _____ percent of people with autism spectrum disorder are considered to be autistic savants.

A)10

B)15

C)25

D)30

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Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Taking the evolutionary perspective, describe how emotions might help people adapt to their environment. In your answer, note how Charles Darwin viewed the functions of emotional displays in both humans and nonhuman animals.

Q2) How does the two-factor theory differ from the cognitive appraisal theory in terms of explanation of emotion?

Q3) Describe what a polygraph measures. List some problems with using a polygraph to detect lies, and describe the reading of microexpressions as an alternate method of detecting deception

Q4) Contrast competence motivation and achievement motivation, and give an original, real-life example of each.

Q5) Define motivation, and describe the three characteristics associated with motivation, providing an original example of each characteristic.

Q6) Define glucose, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as short-term signals in regulating eating behavior.

Q7) Define leptin, insulin, and neuropeptide Y, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as long-term signals to regulate body weight.

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Page 42

Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) The application section described a specific strategy for turning your good intentions into reality. What is the name of that strategy?

A)implementation intentions

B)self-actualization

C)drive motivation

D)activation motivation

Q2) People are considered to be _____ if they have a body mass index (BMI) between 25 and 29.9, unless the BMI is due to muscle and bone rather than fat.

A)obese

B)underweight

C)normal weight

D)overweight

Q3) According to Maslow's humanistic theory of motivation, what must people do before they can strive for the realization of their personal potential and creative abilities?

A)achieve a high Thematic Apperception Test score

B)recognize and deal with unconscious psychological conflicts

C)satisfy basic needs and psychological needs

D)learn to suppress their basic needs, such as thirst and hunger

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) You can become classically conditioned so that a specific time of the day-for example, 11:30 AM-becomes a conditioned stimulus (CS) that triggers internal bodily changes (the conditioned response) that increase your feelings of hunger and desire to eat.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Extrinsic motivation consists of external influences on behavior, such as rewards, social evaluations, rules, and responsibilities.

A)True

B)False

Q3) People with damage to the amygdala lose the ability to distinguish between friendly and threatening faces.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Research has shown that when people lose weight by dieting, it has no effect on blood levels of the hormone called ghrelin.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) According to _____ theory, optimal human functioning and growth throughout the lifespan is possible only if psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness are met.

A)self-determination

B)humanistic

C)self-actualization

D)psychoanalytic

Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)On average, women have a basal metabolic rate that is about 3 to 5 percent lower than the basal metabolic rate for men.

B)Getting only about five hours of sleep a night is an effective strategy for reducing appetite and losing weight.

C)When people who are obese restrict their caloric intake, their basal metabolic rate decreases.

D)An adult would be considered seriously underweight if he or she had a BMI of 17.

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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Psychologists define the term _____ as a complex psychological state that involves subjective experience, a physiological response, and a behavioral or expressive response.

A)motivation

B)emotion

C)self-efficacy

D)anthropomorphism

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of Maslow's theory of motivation?

A)Maslow's initial studies on self-actualization were based on limited samples and often relied on the life stories of acquaintances and biographies and autobiographies of historical figures he selected.

B)The concept of self-actualization is vague and almost impossible to define in such a way that it could be empirically measured or tested.

C)Despite the claim that self-actualization is an inborn motivational goal, most people do not experience or achieve self-actualization.

D)Because of Maslow's influence, psychology was encouraged to focus on the motivation and development of psychologically healthy people.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does the child who is in the concrete operational stage of development differ from the child who is in the formal operational stage of cognitive development?

Q2) In regards to physical development in infancy and childhood, describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. How do these trends in infant development compare to the developmental sequence for body segments in the womb?

Q3) Marissa and Blake are concerned that their daughter, Peige, is approaching her teenage years. They have commented to friends that they are terrified of the idea of peer pressure and wonder if they should place restrictions on Peige's activities and friends. Would you recommend that Marissa and Blake respond in this way? Explain, citing research from the textbook in your answer.

Q4) Describe Jean Piaget's views about the nature of cognitive development in children.

Q5) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.

Q6) Describe the major research findings on the effects of aging on cognitive and intellectual abilities in late adulthood.

Q7) According to psychological research, what are the long-term effects of child care on attachment and development?

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Page 47

Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to developmental psychologist Jerome Kagan high-reactive infants are likely to be:

A)outgoing and have a high energy level.

B)tense, fearful, and inhibited.

C)calm and slow-to-warm-up.

D)sociable but difficult to soothe.

Q2) The Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget is best known for his:

A)information-processing theory of social development.

B)extensive studies on how parenting styles influence the social behavior of children and adolescents.

C)theory proposing that children progress through distinct stages of cognitive development.

D)influential theory of psychosocial development throughout the lifespan.

Q3) The study of how people change physically, mentally, and socially throughout the lifespan is called:

A)cognitive psychology.

B)humanistic psychology.

C)developmental psychology.

D)epigenetics.

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48

Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Young Angelo can roll over and grasp his rattle but is not yet able to sit up without support. In terms of physical development he is approximately 15-months old.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to Erik Erikson, achieving a sense of generativity during middle adulthood involves expressing concern for the welfare of future generations through community involvement, caring for others, and productive work.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Research has found that authoritative parenting produces a broad range of beneficial effects for adolescents including better adjustment and greater confidence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The embryonic period is the second period of prenatal development and extends from the third week through the eighth week.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to _____ theory, the quality of attachment plays an important role in determining an infant's ability to thrive physically and psychologically.

A)attachment

B)goodness-of-fit

C)humanistic

D)personality

Q2) According to Erik Erikson:

A)the psychological task of old age is to achieve a sense of ego integrity.

B)the dying person progresses through a series of five distinct stages.

C)most older adults gradually disengage from social, occupational, and relationship roles.

D)the psychosocial conflict of late adulthood is initiative versus guilt.

Q3) Diamond is 12 years old and has just experienced her first menstrual period. Diamond has experienced:

A)spermarche.

B)menarche.

C)atypical puberty.

D)the pubertal spurt.

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) According to _____, each stage of the lifespan is associated with a particular psychosocial conflict that needs to be resolved.

A)Erik Erikson

B)Sandra Bem

C)Abraham Maslow

D)Lawrence Kohlberg

Q2) According to Erikson, which of the following is an example of "ego integrity"?

A)being active and focused on healthy living

B)expressing unselfish concern for the welfare of the next generation

C)the feeling that one's life has been meaningful

D)being well-respected by society and receiving acknowledgment for one's life work

Q3) Developmental psychologists divide the lifespan into _____ age-related changes of development.

A)four

B)seven

C)nine

D)twelve

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) What are the basic assumptions in Carl Rogers's humanistic theory of personality?

Q2) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.

Q3) What are the functional and structural brain differences that have been associated with the Big Five personality traits?

Q4) Compare the views of Sigmund Freud and Albert Bandura on human aggression.

Q5) What personality types did Hans Eysenck describe in his trait theory of personality?

Q6) Explain the idea of 'possible selves,' and describe how possible selves can affect behavior.

Q7) Define graphology, and describe the scientific research investigating the claims of graphologists. State what conclusions can be drawn about this topic.

Q8) What are ego defense mechanisms? Briefly describe the defense mechanisms of repression, projection, and denial, and their influences on behavior.

Q9) What is a surface trait? What is a source trait? What are the basic assumptions of the trait perspective on personality?

Q10) What are some important criticisms of the trait perspective on personality?

Q11) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) Deanne really wants to drink a glass of wine but she knows that it will make her too sleepy to finish her research paper which is due in the morning. Deanne's roommate encourages her to have the wine anyway saying "if it feels good, then do it." The roommate appears to be governed by which component of Freud's theory of personality?

A)the id

B)the superego

C)the ego

D)the reality principle

Q2) Rhonda feels confident in her ability to dance the part of Clara in The Nutcracker ballet. Albert Bandura would say that Rhonda is showing a high level of:

A)displacement.

B)unconditional positive regard.

C)self-efficacy.

D)sublimation.

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Page 53

Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) Brain imaging studies of the Big Five personality traits have found that conscientiousness is associated with a large region of the frontal cortex called the middle frontal gyrus, which is known to be involved in planning, working memory, and self-regulation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr. are key theorists associated with the five-factor model of personality.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When people take a projective test their responses to the ambiguous images are thought to represent the projection of unconscious conflicts, motives, psychological defenses, and personality traits.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Carl Rogers believed that people were essentially positive, forward-moving, constructive, realistic, and trustworthy.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) Latency is to _____ as reaction formation is to _____.

A)psychosexual stage; ego defense mechanism

B)ego defense mechanism; psychosexual stage

C)conscious; unconscious

D)unconscious; conscious

Q2) Eros likes to seek out stimulating environments. According to Eysenck's theory, Eros would be described as:

A)neurotic.

B)psychotic.

C)extraverted.

D)introverted.

Q3) Which of the following is a strength of the social-cognitive perspective as compared with the other perspectives on personality?

A)It provides insights into unconscious influences, motives, and conflicts.

B)It helps explain many seemingly irrational aspects of human behavior.

C)Its strength is that it works best in controlled laboratory research rather than complicated real life settings.

D)Its key ideas can be operationally defined, measured, and empirically tested.

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, _____ refers to behaviors that enhance our chances of survival, and _____ refers to aggressive, reckless, and dangerous behaviors that are life threatening.

A)Eros; Thanatos

B)rationalization; repression

C)the id; the ego

D)Thanatos; Eros

Q2) In Freud's psychoanalytic theory of personality, which one of the following personality structures is entirely unconscious?

A)the id

B)the libido

C)the ego

D)the superego

Q3) Which of the following perspectives on human personality emphasizes the study of individual differences?

A)psychoanalytic

B)social cognitive

C)trait

D)neo-Freudian

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Page 56

Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) What is person perception, and what is social categorization? Describe the role that explicit and implicit cognition play in these processes.

Q2) What is cognitive dissonance, and how is cognitive dissonance illustrated in the Grasshopper Experiment example described in your textbook?

Q3) What is a stereotype, and what is stereotype threat? What scientific evidence exists to support the notion of stereotype threat?

Q4) Explain how the fundamental attribution error, the hindsight bias, and the just-world hypothesis contribute to people's tendency to "blame the victim" of misfortune.

Q5) Under what conditions are bystanders most likely to help a stranger? Least likely to help a stranger?

Q6) What is implicit cognition, and what is an implicit personality theory? Why do these reactions occur, and how can they potentially lead to faulty perceptions of other people?

Q7) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.

Q8) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.

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Page 57

Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) The study of the mental processes people use to make sense of their social environment is called:

A)social cognition.

B)prosocial behavior.

C)social influence.

D)social categorization.

Q2) Of the following factors, which is NOT one that will make you more likely to conform to the group's norms?

A)You have already expressed commitment to a different idea or opinion.

B)You are strongly attracted to the group and want to be a member of it.

C)You are facing a unanimous majority of four or five people.

D)You must give your response in front of the group.

Q3) In a replication of _____ classic experiment investigating _____, Manjit joined a group of six other people whose task it was to state which of three comparison lines matched the standard line in length.

A)Solomon Asch's; conformity

B)Stanley Milgram's; obedience

C)Phillip Zimbardo's; cognitive dissonance

D)Bibb Latané and John Darley's; bystander intervention

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Page 58

Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) Informational social influence is behavior that is motivated by the desire to be correct.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Collectivistic cultures often demonstrate the self-effacing bias.

A)True

B)False

Q3) From an evolutionary perspective, there are adaptive benefits to having a genetic predisposition toward aggression in certain contexts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Both normative social influence and informational social influence can contribute to the bystander effect, especially in ambiguous situations.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The most significant factor in attraction is physical appearance.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) The Robbers Cave experiment showed that an effective way to reduce prejudice and tension between members of different groups was to:

A)create a situation in which members of different groups cooperate to achieve a common goal.

B)set up competitive situations in which members of different groups can demonstrate their expertise.

C)provide opportunities for members of different groups to socialize.

D)force members of different groups to have contact with one another in a stressful situation, in this case being trapped in a cave.

Q2) As you slowly inch your way toward the intersection, you finally see the auto accident that was stalling traffic. As you look at the two drivers standing by their crumpled cars, you think to yourself, "They probably had the accident because they're careless drivers." Your thinking reflects which of the following concepts?

A)hindsight bias

B)implicit cognition

C)the self-serving bias

D)the fundamental attribution error

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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) Gilda volunteers two or three mornings a week at a local animal rescue center because she believes that helping abused and abandoned animals is "the right thing to do." Her friend Wilda volunteers a few times a week at the same shelter because she believes that it gives her valuable work experience and may help her gain admission to veterinary school. Gilda's motivation is guided by _____, and Wilda's motivation reflects

A)altruism; prosocial behavior

B)normative social influence; informational social influence

C)prosocial behavior; altruism

D)informational social influence; normative social influence

Q2) Even though it had been billed as "one of the most delightfully funny Broadway plays every produced," Michael thought the jokes were corny, the actors were too mechanical in delivering their lines, and the singing was mediocre. However, at the conclusion of the play, Michael reluctantly stood up with the rest of the audience to join in the standing ovation. Michael's behavior clearly illustrates:

A)obedience.

B)prosocial behavior.

C)the stereotype threat.

D)conformity.

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Page 61

Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) What kinds of social support efforts are LEAST likely to be perceived as helpful? What is "invisible support"?

Q2) According to the In Focus box: "Providing Effective Social Support," what are the three most commonly studied broad categories of social support? Give original examples of each.

Q3) Describe research linking stress and susceptibility to the common cold. How does this happen, and does illness inevitably follow stress?

Q4) Discuss gender differences in responding to stress, contrasting the tend-and-befriend response with the fight-or-flight response.

Q5) Describe the role of major life events and change in producing stress. Next, list some of the limitations of the life events approach to measuring the impact of stress on health.

Q6) Describe the Type A and Type B behavior patterns, and identify the personality dimension or dimensions that seem to produce the highest health risks.

Q7) Health psychologist Shelley Taylor has proposed that women "tend-and-befriend" in response to stress. Define the "tend-and-befriend" response, and explain this phenomenon from an evolutionary perspective.

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Page 62

Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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240 Verified Questions

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a correlate of loneliness?

A)poor physical health

B)decreased cognitive functioning

C)better mental health

D)higher death rates

Q2) When stress is prolonged, the hypothalamus signals the:

A)brain to release catecholamines.

B)thymus to release corticosteroids.

C)immune system to release lymphocytes.

D)pituitary gland to release ACTH.

Q3) The _____ response refers to the rapidly occurring chain of internal physical reactions that prepare people to react to an immediate threat.

A)stress contagion

B)general adaptation

C)escape-avoidance

D)fight-or-flight

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63

Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using PET scans, researchers discovered that both the injection of a placebo solution and the injection of an actual opioid painkiller activated the same brain area, called the anterior cingulate cortex, which is known to contain opioid receptors.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Members of collectivistic cultures tend to emphasize personal autonomy and personal responsibility in dealing with problems, and are less likely to seek support in stressful situations than members of individualistic cultures.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Walter Cannon described the response to acute threat, calling it the fight-or-flight response, while Hans Selye described the response to prolonged or chronic stressors, calling it the general adaptation syndrome.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Some forms of coping behavior can actually intensify or prolong stress.

A)True

B)False

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64

Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ refers to a negative emotional state occurring in response to events that are perceived as taxing or exceeding a person's resources or ability to cope.

A)Stress

B)Anxiety

C)An attitude

D)An appraisal

Q2) Assume that each of the following individuals is middle aged. Who is MOST likely to develop coronary problems?

A)Mae, who is an unemployed widow

B)Calvin, who is a Type A businessman

C)Sanjay, who is neurotic and depressed

D)Claire, who is both Type A and hostile

Q3) _____ is to acute stress as _____ is to prolonged stress.

A)The fight-or-flight response; the general adaptation syndrome

B)The general adaptation syndrome; the fight-or-flight response

C)Psychoneuroimmunology; health psychology

D)Health psychology; psychoneuroimmunology

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65

Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Regarding the Type A behavior pattern, most health psychologists today would agree that:

A)the Type A behavior pattern has little or no relationship with physical health.

B)competitiveness and achievement motivation seem to be strongly linked to the development of heart disease.

C)a sense of hostility is strongly linked to the development of heart disease, while time urgency, competitiveness, and achievement motivation are not.

D)competitiveness and time urgency are strongly linked to poorer immune system function, while hostility seems to be linked only to the risk of psychological problems, such as major depressive disorder.

Q2) Lisa and Xavier are both middle-aged people who are under a great deal of stress. Which of the following statements about Lisa and Xavier is TRUE?

A)Xavier is more likely than Lisa to avoid his problems.

B)Lisa is more likely than Xavier to seek out social support.

C)Lisa is more likely than Xavier to engage in confrontive coping.

D)Xavier and Lisa are equally likely to turn to alcohol to cope.

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Teresa is a 51-year-old mother of three children. Since childhood, Teresa has had difficulties with controlling her emotions and behaviors. Beginning in her teenage years, Teresa started stealing from stores, friends, and family members. Often, the items had little or no monetary value or she had no need for them. For example, she once stole a lint brush from her aunt and boots that were three sizes too large from a co-worker. Friends and family have always been perplexed by Teresa's behavior, wondering why she would hurt and betray her loved ones over such insignificant items. What disorder does Teresa have, and what are the primary characteristics of this disorder?

Q2) How does pathological anxiety differ from normal feelings of anxiety?

Q3) Define major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and describe the similarities and differences between these three disorders.

Q4) Joel has persistent and recurring complaints of bodily symptoms that are accompanied by abnormal thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. For instance, when Joel gets a headache, he panics, calls his wife, and tells her he has a brain tumor. After eating certain foods, Joel sometimes gets heartburn. On three occasions, he has gone to the hospital to make sure he wasn't having a heart attack. What disorder does Joel likely have? What clues suggest that Joel has this disorder?

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Page 67

Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Psychologists who support the diagnostic criteria of dissociative identity disorder argue that the sharp increase in reported cases in recent decades is probably due to:

A)the fact that most insurance plans now cover treatment for dissociative identity disorder.

B)the greater prevalence of drug use among grade-school children, which may produce dissociative identity disorder in adulthood.

C)greater clinical awareness of the disorder and of its symptoms and increased screening for dissociative symptoms.

D)greater coverage of sensational dissociative identity disorder patients in movies and television shows, making it easier for disturbed people to mimic the symptoms.

Q2) The dopamine hypothesis is the theory that schizophrenia is related to:

A)brain abnormalities in the frontal lobe.

B)excess dopamine activity in the brain.

C)reduced dopamine activity in the brain.

D)prenatal or early childhood infection by a particular strain of the flu virus.

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Research has shown that obsessive-compulsive disorder is linked to an excess of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Researcher David Silbersweig and colleagues used PET scans to take a "snapshot" of brain activity during schizophrenic hallucinations. At the moment of hallucination, PET results showed activity in the left auditory and visual areas of the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which a normal-weight person engages in binge eating and then purges the excessive food by self-induced vomiting or by misusing laxatives or enemas.

A)True

B)False

Q4) People with generalized anxiety disorder experience high levels of anxiety only when they are in the particular situation that triggers their anxiety.

A)True

B)False

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69

Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Each year in the United States, there are approximately _____ new cases of schizophrenia diagnosed.

A)200,000

B)330,000

C)500,000

D)750,000

Q2) About _____ of people who experience an initial episode of schizophrenia will develop a chronic, ongoing form of the disease that severely impairs their ability to function.

A)one-tenth

B)one-quarter

C)one-half

D)two-thirds

Q3) A commonly observed _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.

A)negative; delusions

B)positive; alogia

C)negative; flat affect

D)positive; avolition

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Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by:

A)a rigid preoccupation with orderliness, cleanliness, and rituals that interfere with completing tasks.

B)erratic, unstable relationships and desperate efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment.

C)extreme social inhibition due to feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism or disapproval.

D)pervasive but unwarranted distrust and suspiciousness, and assumptions that other people intend to deceive, exploit, or harm them.

Q2) According to the biological preparedness perspective, people are more likely to develop phobias toward objects or situations that:

A)reflect an important threat to survival in human evolutionary history.

B)are irrational and result from catastrophic thinking.

C)once caused fear and anxiety, such as being bitten by a dog as a child.

D)are associated with danger, such as flying in an airplane.

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) What are the basic assumptions and processes in Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy (CT)?

Q2) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?

Q3) Compare and contrast the first-generation antidepressants with the second-generation antidepressants and identify the newest antidepressant drugs that have been developed.

Q4) Compare and contrast eclectic psychotherapy to integrative psychotherapy.

Q5) Summarize the basic experimental design and the main findings of the fMRI scan study of emotional and cognitive brain activity in patients with and without major depression. What effects were noted after cognitive therapy?

Q6) Christopher has been depressed for over six months. He has gained weight, his sleep is disturbed, and he and his wife are discussing divorce. Christopher's self-esteem has declined as a result of his weight gain and marital difficulties. How would Freud and Rogers explain the source of Christopher's problems?

Q7) Describe the steps used in systematic desensitization and identify the conditioning principles involved in this technique.

Q8) Compare and contrast the therapeutic use of the token economy and contingency management programs.

Page 72

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) After a near-fatal suicide attempt, Emily was hospitalized for major depressive disorder. Because the risk of suicide continued to be high, Emily's psychiatrist suggested a series of ECT treatments because:

A)Emily's suicidal behavior needed to be punished.

B)compared to using antidepressant medications, ECT can potentially relieve the symptoms of major depressive disorder much more quickly, sometimes within days.

C)the therapeutic benefits of ECT usually last much longer than treatment with antidepressant medications.

D)ECT causes severe memory loss and Emily is not likely to remember why she wanted to commit suicide in the first place.

Q2) A new experimental treatment for major depressive disorder that does not induce seizures, called _____, involves the surgical implantation of a device that delivers brief, intermittent electrical stimulation via an important nerve that runs through the neck to the brainstem.

A)eye movement desensitization reprocessing (EMDR)

B)vagus nerve stimulation (VNS)

C)transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

D)deep brain stimulation (DBS)

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A new experimental treatment for major depressive disorder that does not induce seizures, called vagus nerve stimulation, involves the surgical implantation of a device that delivers brief, intermittent electrical stimulation via an important nerve that runs through the neck to the brainstem.

A)True

B)False

Q2) By definition, integrative psychotherapy is the pragmatic and integrated use of techniques from different psychotherapies that are carefully tailored to the problems and characteristics of the individual seeking help.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Family therapy focuses on uncovering a client's repressed memories of being mistreated or unhappy in early childhood, and then confronting the client's parents with evidence of the parents' misdeeds.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ECT involves electrically inducing a seizure in the brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____, a treatment for major depressive disorder, does NOT involve applying an electrical current to the patient.

A)TMS

B)VNS

C)ECT

D)DBS

Q2) You are thinking about entering psychotherapy. It is reasonable for you to expect that your therapist will:

A)share your private thoughts and feelings with other clients and therapists.

B)always support your position.

C)make your decisions for you.

D)challenge how you think and act.

Q3) _____ therapy was originally developed to treat major depressive disorder.

A)Behavioral

B)Interpersonal

C)Humanistic

D)Cognitive

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) Which of the following statements about major depressive disorder is FALSE?

A)Feelings of worthlessness and self-loathing after the death of a loved one may indicate major depressive disorder.

B)Abnormal sleep patterns are a hallmark of major depressive disorder, and include insomnia and, less commonly, excessive amounts of sleep.

C)For people with seasonal affective disorder, repeated episodes of major depressive disorder tend to occur most often with the onset of autumn and winter.

D)In terms of lifetime prevalence, about 25 percent of Americans will be affected by major depressive disorder at some point in their lives.

Q2) A(n) _____ is a brief, sudden, uncontrollable episode of acute anxiety and fear that rapidly escalates in intensity and usually includes physical symptoms like a pounding heart, rapid breathing, trembling, and feeling as if you are choking or cannot breathe.

A)panic attack

B)manic episode

C)episode of rapid cycling

D)dissociative experience

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