Foundations of Psychology Question Bank - 14792 Verified Questions

Foundations of Psychology Question Bank

Course Introduction

Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course covers the core concepts, perspectives, and research methods in psychology, including biological bases of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Emphasizing both classic and contemporary theories, this course provides a solid grounding in how psychologists investigate and understand the complex factors influencing thought and action, laying the groundwork for further study in the field.

Recommended Textbook

Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon

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82 Chapters

14792 Verified Questions

14792 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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220 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) You will learn more as you read if you

A)utilize experiential processing during your reading and studying sessions.

B)use massed practice whenever you read and study.

C)read every module in the textbook at least three times.

D)bring more mindfulness and genuine interest to your reading.

Answer: D

Q2) Survey Questions are repeated throughout each module to help the students recognize key topics.In addition,there are questions that begin some of the paragraphs that will help students focus on seeking information as they read and are very much like those questions that run through their minds.These questions are referred to as __________Questions.

Answer: Dialogue

Q3) Which of the following does NOT characterize the goals set by reflective,active learners?

A)specific and clear-cut

B)broad-based and flexible

C)set for the day,week,and semester

D)measurable

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology

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218 Verified Questions

218 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Procrastinators can improve their grades and study habits through A)the use of negative self-statements.

B)better time management.

C)experiential processing.

D)all of these.

Answer: B

Q2) The main factor that determines whether a student will be interested in a course is the

A)instructor's teaching style.

B)student's attitude.

C)readability of the textbook.

D)match between the instructor's personality and that of the student.

Answer: B

Q3) Many modules in the textbook have boxes that provide interesting information for the reader,including the Critical Thinking boxes that present intriguing questions,the Human Diversity boxes that encourage one to reflect on the rich variability of the human experience,The Clinical File boxes that explain how psychology is applied to clinical problems,and the boxes that relate psychology to one's own behavior are called ______ boxes.

Answer: Discovering Psychology

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Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science

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183 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following summarize observations,explain these observations,allow prediction,and guide future research?

A)accurate hypotheses

B)operational definitions

C)good theories

D)statistical results

Answer: C

Q2) To assess your personality,a graphologist would want to

A)study your handwriting.

B)examine the shape of your skull.

C)study your palm.

D)record your brain waves with an EEG.

Answer: A

Q3) With respect to astrology,palmistry,and phrenology,it can be said that A)all are pseudopsychologies.

B)none is subject to the Barnum effect.

C)they rarely appear to work due to the confirmation bias.

D)astrology is the only system with a scientific basis.

Answer: A

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dr.Malloy explains to his patient that a person's threatening thoughts are often repressed so that he or she will be unaware of them.However,these repressed thoughts might "surface" in dreams,expressed emotions,or "slips of the tongue." Dr.Malloy has just explained the ideas of which school of thought in psychology?

A)structuralism

B)psychoanalytic psychology

C)humanistic psychology

D)Gestalt psychology

Q2) Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow advocated the school of thought known as ______ psychology.

Q3) If you read an article comparing the value of breastfeeding versus formula feeding on the physical growth of infants,the psychologist who wrote this article is probably a ______ psychologist.

A)comparative

B)developmental

C)social

D)gender

Q4) Rules that define acceptable and expected behavior for members of various groups are called social ______.

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment

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Sample Questions

Q1) We wish to test the hypothesis that music improves learning.Random assignment into two groups,one that listens to music and one that studies in silence,controls for

A)the students' inherent academic ability.

B)the students' use of different study strategies.

C)the amount of sleep students had prior to the experiment.

D)all of these.

Q2) You are conducting an experiment to determine whether teaching students the SQ4R method will increase their test scores.So,you explain your hypothesis to your participants and then conduct the experiment.Informing the participants about your hypothesis

A)may create research participant bias.

B)violates ethical standards.

C)prevents the random assignment of subjects.

D)will have no effect on the results of the experiment.

Q3) A simple experiment has two groups of subjects called the A)dependent group and the independent group.

B)extraneous group and the independent group.

C)before group and the after group.

D)control group and the experimental group.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental

Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) The anthropomorphic error would pose the greatest problem for which of the following?

A)clinical psychologist

B)Freudian psychologist

C)humanist

D)comparative psychologist

Q2) Regarding surveys and polling,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Representative samples are often obtained by randomly selecting who will be included in the survey.

B)Surveys done by magazines,websites,and online information services have been shown to be as accurate as the Gallup and Harris polls.

C)People are often polled by telephone or the Internet,which has made it easier to obtain large samples.

D)A biased sample does not accurately reflect the population from which it was drawn.

Q3) Your medical record would be an example of a case study.

A)True

B)False

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) When reading the claims of makers of home biofeedback machines,sleep-learning devices,subliminal CDs,and the like,it is important to A)realize that the authenticity of the report has been thoroughly checked by the media. B)be wary of overly complex explanations.

C)consider the number of experts that are promoting the product.

D)consider whether the information is motivated by monetary gain.

Q2) As consumption of ice cream increases during the year,so does the number of aggravated assaults.A politician advocates that ice cream be banned so that the crime rate will go down.Besides needing to be voted out of office,this politician needs to understand

A)the dangers of a single example.

B)the difference between observation and inference.

C)the difference between correlation and causation.

D)that the Barnum effect occurs only in ten-year cycles.

Q3) Most of the time the stories in the media regarding psychology are based more on critical thinking or science than on just entertainment value.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The central nervous system is composed of the autonomic and somatic systems. A)True

B)False

Q2) The autonomic system is

A)self-governing.

B)in control of the sense organs.

C)responsible for muscle movement.

D)mainly in control of voluntary actions.

Q3) Nerve cell bodies and dendrites are not the only locations sensitive to neurotransmitters.Receptor sites can also be found on A)muscles and glands.

B)skeletal joints.

C)axon terminals.

D)all vital organs.

Q4) When the sympathetic branch is activated, A)the pupils of one's eyes constrict.

B)one's digestion is stimulated.

C)there is a release of sugar from the liver.

D)one's blood vessels constrict.

Q5) The cell body of a neuron is also called the _______.

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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to detect the electrical activity of a single neuron,a scientist would most likely use

A)ESB.

B)a microelectrode.

C)PET.

D)fMRI.

Q2) Research by Daniel Langleben has shown that more activity will occur in the front of the brain when a person is lying than when telling the truth with the brain scan technique utilized in this research being the _______.

Q3) Dr.Kahn is able to detect the electrical activity of a single neuron by using the tip of an extremely thin glass tube filled with a salty fluid,which is known as an ablation tube.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The research strategy of linking specific structures in the brain with specific psychological or behavioral functions is known as neurocortical induction.

A)True

B)False

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11

Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding visual images,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Visual images are accurately represented in miniature in the occipital lobes like a "little TV screen" in your brain.

B)Visual images create patterns of activity in nerve cells in the occipital lobes which we interpret as images.

C)Visual images are the exact opposite in color and form as real world images.

D)Visual images are processed primarily by the parietal lobes.

Q2) If a PET scan was done of your brain while you listened to your favorite song,your primary auditory area would be the first to light up,followed by association areas in your _______ lobes.

A)frontal

B)parietal

C)temporal

D)occipital

Q3) The right hemisphere processes information

A)simultaneously.

B)sequentially.

C)by specific details.

D)analytically.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Musicians,who practice special motor skills throughout their lives,have larger than average cerebellums.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If too much growth hormone is secreted at the beginning of the growth period,it can cause A)giantism.

B)achondroplasia.

C)virilism.

D)acromegaly.

Q3) Which brain area receives incoming messages from the sense organs and bombards the cortex with stimulation,keeping the brain active and alert?

A)thalamus

B)medulla

C)reticular activating system

D)limbic system

Q4) Anabolic steroids that are used by athletes to increase muscle growth are synthetic versions of the hormone

13

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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Differences between the two sides of the body,especially differences in the abilities of the brain hemipheres are referred to as A)ablation.

B)corticalization.

C)lateralization.

D)ambidextrous functionality.

Q2) A combination of preference for using hand,foot,eye,and ear is referred to as A)sidedness.

B)neuroplasticity.

C)hemispherization.

D)preferential lateralization.

Q3) Regarding the proportion of left-handed people,individualist countries tend to have

A)significantly more lefties than collectivist countries.

B)the same number of lefties as collectivist countries.

C)slightly fewer lefties than collectivist countries.

D)significantly fewer lefties than collectivist countries.

Q4) If you gesture more with your left hand,you probably process language in your _______ hemisphere.

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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment

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206 Verified Questions

206 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Poverty has been shown to affect

A)a child's health with poor children being sick more often.

B)a child's socioemotional development.

C)a child's cognitive development.

D)all of these.

Q2) Compared to the adult brain,the brain of a newborn baby has fewer connections between nerve cells,which are called

A)dendrites.

B)synapses.

C)ion channels.

D)nodes of Ranvier.

Q3) Abby's mother has watched Abby progress in her development from attempting to pick up a ball using her arms and torso,to using her whole hands,and finally to using her fingertips.This is an example of cephalocaudal development.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A psychologist explaining differences between two individuals in terms of activity levels,irritability,and distractibility is describing aspects of the inherited part of one's personality known as _______.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood

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170 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fathers spend more time with their infants doing all of the following EXCEPT for

A)rough-and-tumble play.

B)lifting,tickling,and handling the children.

C)giving more visual attention.

D)playing more conventional games.

Q2) The identifiable patterns of parental caretaking and interaction with children are referred to as

A)parental temperaments.

B)parental styles.

C)socialization methods.

D)discipline methods.

Q3) Discuss early emotional development,including the age and order in which the emotions and the social smile emerge and the most common emotions expressed by infants,according to Bridges and Izard.

Q4) Identifiable patterns of parental caretaking and interaction with children are called _______.

Q5) A baby's emotional needs for love and trust are every bit as important as obvious needs for food,water,and physical care.These emotional needs of the infant are known as _______ needs.

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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood

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Sample Questions

Q1) The false-belief task is used to assess whether a child has developed _______.

Q2) In the concrete operational stage,children are able to use abstract principles and consider hypothetical possibilities.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the late teens,the brain actively destroys unneeded connections,especially in the frontal lobes,with this pruning of synapses sharpening the brain's capacity for A)sensory capabilities.

B)language comprehension.

C)abstract thinking.

D)intuitive thinking.

Q4) The concepts of reversibility and conservation develop during the _______ stage.

A)preoperational

B)sensorimotor

C)concrete operational

D)formal operational

Q5) Your baby is about two months old and says "oo" over and over as you hold her.Your baby is exhibiting

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Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and

Adulthood

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Sample Questions

Q1) The preconventional level of moral development is most characteristic of A)adults.

B)adolescents.

C)young children and delinquents.

D)young adults.

Q2) The top scorers on intellectual tests who were over 65 were people who

A)consistently got eight hours of sleep.

B)continued to work.

C)had never drank alcohol or smoked.

D)exercised three times a week.

Q3) Many of the same reactions described by Kübler­Ross accompany any major loss,including divorce,loss of a job or home,and the death of a pet.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Studies suggest that the healthiest,happiest older people

A)show more gratitude and forgiveness.

B)decrease their activity to a slower pace.

C)decrease the number of social activities.

D)show less empathy for others and more concern for self.

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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness

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Sample Questions

Q1) The relationship of happiness to good and bad life events would best be described as

A)almost a perfect positive correlation.

B)significant for the vast majority of people.

C)a relatively small relationship.

D)unpredictable.

Q2) Regarding the relationship of age and gender to happiness,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Life satisfaction and happiness generally do not decline with age.

B)When declines in happiness do occur,older people today seem better able to cope with them.

C)Overall,women tend to be happier than men do.

D)Women have a tendency to experience higher emotional highs and lower lows than men do.

Q3) Regarding happiness and holding religious beliefs,there is _____ relationship.

A)no

B)a negative

C)a small positive

D)a high positive

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Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes

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112 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The process of detecting physical energies with the sensory organs is called

A)sensation.

B)perception.

C)adaptation.

D)cognition.

Q2) Advertisers who want to capture the attention of consumers would be wise to use A)subliminal messages.

B)subtle,but factually scientific pleas.

C)loud,contrasting,and changing stimuli.

D)smaller print that causes one to put forth effort in order to focus.

Q3) In a classic study in which participants were asked to count the number of times a basketball was passed between the team members wearing black,half the participants failed to notice the person wearing the gorilla suit who walked into the middle of the basketball game.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Discuss the process of sensory analysis,and explain how it is both innate and influenced by early experiences by describing the studies conducted by Blakemore and Cooper.

Q5) Light sensations caused by pressure applied to the eye are referred to as _____.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Snellen and the Landolt rings are used to assess A)night vision.

B)visual acuity.

C)color vision.

D)depth perception.

Q2) The clear membrane that covers the outside of the eye and helps gather and bend light inward is called the A)pupil.

B)iris.

C)cornea.

D)retina.

Q3) If you lack cones or if the cones do not function normally,you will A)experience night blindness.

B)have tunnel vision.

C)lack peripheral vision.

D)be color blind.

Q4) Caucasian males are more likely to be red-green color-blind than Asian,African,or Native American males.

A)True

B)False

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Damage caused by exposing the hair cells of the inner ear to excessively loud sounds is called a _______ hearing loss.

A)noise-induced

B)compression

C)conductive

D)tympanic

Q2) Regarding the skin receptors,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Your skin could be "mapped" by applying heat,cold,touch,pressure,or pain to points all over your body.

B)Sensitivity generally matches the number of receptors in a given area of the body.

C)The forearm and thigh are more sensitive than the face and hands.

D)The skin sensation a person ultimately feels will depend on one's brain activity.

Q3) Pain messages are carried by small nerve fibers in the warning system and by large nerve fibers in the reminding system.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The stapes is attached to a membrane on the cochlea called the _______.

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22

Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual

Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Special effects for science fiction films create illusions of depth by quickly making the images of planets,starships,and monsters bigger or smaller.They are using the pictorial depth cue called

A)aerial perspective.

B)interposition.

C)linear perspective.

D)relative size.

Q2) The chief cues for depth perception utilized by producers of 3-D movies are those that involve the moviegoers being presented with two slightly differing views of the scenes,which simulates

A)linear perspective.

B)light and shadow.

C)retinal disparity.

D)texture gradients.

Q3) Smog,fog,and haze add to the apparent distance of an object.This is called A)linear perspective.

B)aerial perspective.

C)relative size.

D)relative motion.

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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Recent experiments on eyewitness testimony have shown that the relationship between a person's confidence in his or her testimony and its accuracy

A)depends upon whether the witness is male or female.

B)depends upon whether the witness has at least a high school education.

C)has almost no relationship.

D)is more suspect for children than for adults.

Q2) The famous illusion in which a horizontal line with arrowheads appears shorter than the line with V's (although the lines are actually identical in length) is known as the _______ illusion.

Q3) Eyewitness reports of a traumatic event may be distorted because perceptions are affected by A)stress.

B)visual capture.

C)self-consciousness.

D)reality testing.

Q4) A readiness to perceive in a particular manner,induced by strong expectations is called a(n) _______.

Q5) Describe five ways that one's perceptual accuracy can be enhanced.

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) After close to 130 years of investigations,it is still impossible to say conclusively whether psi events occur.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The results of more than 1.5 million ESP trials done through the mass media found

A)a significant ESP effect.

B)that only persons younger than 25 years of age showed any psi ability.

C)that only persons older than 45 years of age showed any psi ability.

D)no significant ESP effect.

Q3) Describe the three basic forms of extrasensory perception and the psi phenomenon known as psychokinesis.

Q4) Over 1.5 million ESP trials were recently conducted through the newspaper,radio,and television.The results indicated that

A)psychokinesis exists,but the other three psi phenomenon do not exist.

B)psychokinesis does not exist,but the other three psi phenomenon do.

C)only 10 percent of the participants exhibited a stable ESP ability.

D)there was no significant ESP effect.

Q5) Events that seem to defy accepted scientific laws are known as _______.

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Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mild sensory deprivation has shown promise as a way to stimulate creative thinking and to enhance sports and music performance skills.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Psychologists have used small isolation tanks in which a participant floats in shallow body-temperature water containing hundreds of pounds of Epsom salts to explore the possible benefits of A)sensory restriction.

B)hydroponic therapy.

C)mindfulness meditation.

D)weightlessness.

Q3) The main purpose of meditative exercises is to A)increase energy and creativity.

B)focus attention and interrupt the typical flow of thoughts.

C)solve problems and relieve worries.

D)sharpen normal consciousness.

Q4) Describe what effect(s)hypnosis has on the following areas: physical strength,memory,amnesia,pain relief,age regression,and sensory changes.

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26

Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams

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Sample Questions

Q1) Having bizarre experiences upon awakening,such as sensing an alien being is in one's bedroom,is characteristic of the condition known as REM behavior disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q2) LaMonte had trouble concentrating in class today.His roommate noticed that LaMonte's hands are trembling;his speech is slurred;and he is having trouble even naming common objects.LaMonte is most likely suffering from A)sleep loss.

B)somnambulism.

C)lucid dreaming.

D)narcolepsy.

Q3) Our sleep rhythms tend to follow an exact 24-hour day because A)the time of peak activity is invariant from person to person. B)they are tied to external time markers like light and dark.

C)they have adapted to technological improvements made in the last century.

D)everyone needs at least eight hours of sleep every night.

Q4) Some physicians believe that SIDS,or crib death,may be caused by the sleep disorder known as _______.

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Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the research on nicotine and cigarette smoking,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)For a nonsmoker,50 to 75 milligrams of nicotine taken in a single dose could be lethal.

B)A 30-minute exposure to one pinch of smokeless tobacco is equivalent to smoking three or four cigarettes.

C)Withdrawal symptoms for nicotine may last from two to six weeks and may even be worse than heroin withdrawal.

D)Second-hand smoke can lead to minor respiratory problems,but has not resulted in any deaths.

Q2) Regarding the research on MDMA,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)When a person stops taking MDMA,they tend to experience long-term feelings of anxiety and depression that can persist for months

B)MDMA has been shown to increase sexual performance in both men and women.

C)MDMA has been shown to intensify the impact of music for the user.

D)MDMA users have sufferred fatal heat exhaustion and severe liver damage.

Q3) GHB is a mixture of degreasing solvent and drain cleaner.

A)True

B)False

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28

Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams

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Sample Questions

Q1) While sleeping,you begin to feel as if you are awake during the dream and capable of normal thought.You are experiencing A)somnambulism.

B)imagery rehearsal.

C)lucid dreaming.

D)daydreaming.

Q2) According to Freud,condensation,displacement,and secondary elaboration are types of

A)dream processes.

B)ego defense mechanisms.

C)fixations.

D)archetypes.

Q3) According to Freud,the mental filters that disguise the meanings of dreams are called _______.

Q4) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.

Q5) Drugs that tend to suppress dreaming by interfering with REM sleep include A)amphetamines.

B)barbiturates.

C)opiates.

D)all of these.

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Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning

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199 Verified Questions

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Q1) If you wear a particular tie and get teased and laughed at,you are less likely to wear this tie again.This illustrates

A)an automatic,nonlearned response.

B)learning by an association of stimuli.

C)operant conditioning.

D)classical conditioning.

Q2) A key component of cognitive learning is

A)feedback.

B)reinforcement.

C)punishment.

D)respondent conditioning.

Q3) Which of the following types of learning extends beyond basic conditioning into the realms of memory,thinking,problem solving,and language?

A)operant learning

B)instrumental learning

C)cognitive learning

D)Pavlovian cognition

Q4) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior due to _______.

Q5) Classical and operant conditioning are the two types of _______ learning.

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Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning

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Q1) Little Armondo is afraid of dogs.He also shows a fear of other furry animals,such as cats and rabbits.Armondo is exhibiting simulus _______.

Q2) Many of the emotional (positive or negative)attitudes that people develop toward foods,political parties,and ethnic groups were developed in childhood by observing how their parents responded to these same foods or groups.Thus,these reactions were probably conditioned

A)through negative transference.

B)by insight learning.

C)by response chaining.

D)vicariously.

Q3) Pavlov's most famous experiment involved teaching dogs to do which of the following behaviors to a new stimulus?

A)salivate

B)blink

C)bark

D)regurgitate

Q4) Explain how the classical conditioning of an eye blink came to be used as a diagnostic tool.

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Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant

Conditioning

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you give a child her favorite licorice candy for doing well in school,and she continues to do well in school,the licorice candy is

A)a reward and a reinforcer.

B)a reward,but not a reinforcer.

C)a reinforcer,but not a reward.

D)neither a reinforcer nor a reward.

Q2) A reward will reliably increase responding,while an operant reinforcer will increase responding only occasionally.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Operant shaping is often used in training various animals to perform tricks with hand signals being used to indicate which trick that the animal is to perform and food treats then being used as reinforcers.Thus,the trainer's hand signals are serving as A)unconditioned stimuli.

B)respondent cues.

C)cognitive maps.

D)discriminative stimuli.

Q4) Define discriminative stimuli,and provide two real-life examples of its use.

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you cannot punish an animal or young child immediately,

A)wait for the next instance of misbehavior by the animal or young child.

B)take the animal or child back to the place of the misbehavior and then punish them.

C)delay the punishment but increase the intensity.

D)clearly state or point at the damage while punishing the animal or young child later.

Q2) When Mark took some of his little brother's toys,his parents reprimanded him and then rewarded him for playing cooperatively with his brother and for sharing his toys with his brother.Mark's parents are using

A)negative reinforcement.

B)avoidance learning.

C)counterconditioning.

D)latent learning.

Q3) Two-year-old Lance reaches toward a stove burner.His mother should

A)scream and holler at him until he backs away.

B)allow him to touch the flame and get burned so he won't ever do that again.

C)use a punishment,such as slapping his hand.

D)use response cost as a punishment.

Q4) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.

Page 33

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Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral

Self-Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Requiring a resistant child to eat half of each of the foods on his dinner plate before receiving a favorite dessert is an example of A)generalized reinforcers.

B)punishment.

C)the Premack principle.

D)the partial reinforcement effect.

Q2) When trying to change a bad habit,if a person were to finally discover what is reinforcing an unwanted response and then remove,avoid,or delay the reinforcement,we would say this person has utilized the technique known as A)extinction.

B)modeling.

C)breaking response chains.

D)cues and antecedents.

Q3) Elaine wants to get to her classes,work,and church on time,so she keeps a tally sheet in her car with two columns labeled "On time" and "Late," and she puts a mark in each column to count the number of times she is on time and the number of times she is late.Elaine is keeping track of the frequency of her responses through _______.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems

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289 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you thought you "remembered" that "sleep" was in the original list of words you read in the "Try It Yourself" section of your textbook module,then you were mistaken,since the word "sleep" was not present but was associated with most of the words on the original list.This exercise illustrates the reality of

A)false memories.

B)priming implicit memories.

C)cognitive dissonance.

D)eidetic imagery.

Q2) A brain-injured patient who can still execute a perfect golf swing or a high dive but is unable to recall or relearn even the broad outlines of American history is exhibiting superior function in which type of memory?

A)procedural memory

B)semantic memory

C)episodic memory

D)fact memory

Q3) For most people,the space capacity for short-term memory is 12 items,plus or minus two.

A)True

B)False

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting

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Questions

Q1) If you have experienced a painful emotional event,you will probably avoid all thoughts associated with this memory and keep cues out of mind that could trigger the painful memory.Thus,true repression may result from this active A)relearning.

B)redintegration.

C)suppression.

D)elaborative processing.

Q2) People tend to review emotionally charged events over and over in their minds,telling others of the events,and also seeing many of these events over and over again in the news.For these reasons,many people place great confidence in their _______ memories.

A)flashbulb

B)eidetic

C)repressed

D)habituated

Q3) Ebbinghaus plotted a graph that showed the amount of information remembered after varying lengths of time with this graph being called the _______.

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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be the most important factor to use in deciding whether to use whole learning or part learning in memorizing a poem or a selection of music?

A)the age and gender of the person who will be memorizing the poem or music selection.

B)the intellectual level of the person who wil be memorizing the poem or music selection.

C)the number of days before the person must perform the poem or musical selection. D)the length and complexity of the poem or music selection to be memorized.

Q2) Natasha is using an effective technique that will help her summarize the material she is studying,will force her to practice retrieving information,and will provide her with feedback on what she knows.Natasha is using

A)rote rehearsal.

B)massed practice.

C)recitation.

D)progressive-part learning.

Q3) Summarizing aloud while you are learning forces you to practice retrieving information with this technique being referred to as __________.

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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics

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Q1) You are having trouble remembering history.Which of the following would NOT help you to remember history?

A)Picture each historical personality as a person you know right now,such as a friend.

B)Make parks and schools you know into countries.

C)Consider history as part of the long-ago past and see your long-dead relatives as part of this past.

D)Visualize battles and other events as if they are happening in your own city.

Q2) (1)Make things meaningful; (2)make information familiar; (3)use mental pictures;and (4)form bizarre,unusual,or exaggerated mental associations are the basic principles of

A)rote learning.

B)redintegration.

C)implicit priming.

D)mnemonics.

Q3) Which of the following is a mnemonic technique?

A)Making a rhyme out of the last letter of all items in a list to be recalled.

B)Using maintenance rehearsal to keep information in long-term memory.

C)Making bizarre and unusual associations.

D)Using the tip-of-the-tongue effect.

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language

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Sample Questions

Q1) Acceptance into the nursing program requires that you have successfully completed eight hours of anatomy and physiology and three hours of college algebra and have an overall 3.0 grade point average.Your acceptance into the nursing program would be considered a _______ concept.

A)disjunctive

B)prototypical

C)conjunctive

D)relational

Q2) Kanzi usually placed action symbols in the order he wanted to carry them out,such as "chase tickle" or "chase hide." In this respect,Kanzi's grammar was on a par with that of a _______ year­old child.

A)two-

B)four-

C)six-

D)eight-

Q3) The denotative meaning of a word is

A)its stereotypical definition.

B)its emotional or personal meaning.

C)its dictionary definition.

D)the exact spelling and pronunciation of any word.

Page 39

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Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cook does not have any clean mixing bowls and has no way to wash them.If this cook fails to see that he could use a frying pan or part of his double boiler as a mixing bowl,he is exhibiting which barrier to problem-solving?

A)emotional

B)cultural

C)learned

D)perceptual

Q2) Insight tends to be based on A)algorithms.

B)heuristics.

C)a random search strategy.

D)reorganizing the problem.

Q3) World class chess experts are especially good at A)pattern recognition.

B)algorithmic knowledge.

C)rote strategies.

D)trial-and-error strategies.

Q4) A sudden mental reorganization of a problem that makes the solution obvious is referred to as _______.

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Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition

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Sample Questions

Q1) When people vote for the person they like rather than the person who is the most qualified for the job,they are allowing their decision making to be affected by _______.

Q2) Ignoring the base rate

A)involves paying careful attention to the underlying probability of an event occurring.

B)encourages a person to be mentally flexible in making decisions.

C)is similar to thinking that you or a situation is an exception to the rule.

D)consists of using inductive thinking rather than deductive thinking.

Q3) If you know that your best friend is allergic to shellfish,you know that she is allergic to clams,oysters,shrimp,and lobster.Going from this general statement of allergy to shellfish to specific examples of this allergy illustrates __________ thought.

A)deductive

B)inductive

C)intuitive

D)creative

Q4) Discuss five of the typical characteristics of creative persons,including how these characteristics differ from the stereotype of creative people.

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The person responsible for the development and design of the first useful individual test of intelligence was Howard Gardner.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The average seven-year-old child with an IQ of 100 has a mental age of A)seven.

B)107.

C)70.

D)10.

Q3) When the Stanford-Binet was first used,the correct formula for IQ was

A)IQ = MA / 100 x CA.

B)IQ = MA / CA x 100.

C)IQ = MA x CA x 100.

D)IQ = CA / MA x 100.

Q4) People with intellectual disabilities

A)respond warmly to love and acceptance.

B)have a right to self-respect and a place in the community.

C)can be hurt by rejection,teasing,and ridicule.

D)are characterized by all of these.

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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity

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Q1) Psychologist Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi believes that one can become more creative by starting to do more of what you really enjoy and less of what you dislike.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In order to be creative,one needs time to revise or embellish initial solutions,which allows time

A)to create mental sets.

B)to "thin­slice" the solution.

C)for incubation.

D)for consolidation.

Q3) Looking for analogies to a problem

A)is an effective way to represent a problem.

B)helps to define the problem more narrowly.

C)encourages one to criticize solutions and discard unworkable ideas.

D)encourages the formation of mental sets.

Q4) Fixations and functional fixedness are specific types of mental sets.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions

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Sample Questions

Q1) "Day people" wake up alert,are energetic early in the day,and fall asleep early in the evening,while "night people" wake up groggy,are lively in the afternoon or early evening,and stay up late.This occurs because "day people" have early peaks and "night people" have later peaks in their A)ASCs.

B)sensation-seeking patterns.

C)circadian rhythms.

D)opponent processes.

Q2) Basic emotions,such as fear,are likely first processed by subcortical brain structures in the

A)brain stem.

B)reticular activating system.

C)limbic system.

D)endocrine system.

Q3) The value of a goal above and beyond its ability to fill a need is known as its homeostatic value.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The "target" of one's motivated behavior is known as a(n) _______.

Page 44

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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vicki is a college freshman,who most people would characterize as orderly,kind,and giving.She enjoys going out to eat with her friends,although she does not enjoy the spicy foods that they keep wanting her to try.Vicki would most likely be described as A)introverted-perceptive.

B)extrinsically motivated.

C)low in sensation seeking.

D)self-actualized.

Q2) Overeating tends to be encouraged by all of the following EXCEPT for A)the larger food portions.

B)taking less time to eat.

C)the sweetness or high fat content.

D)a lack of variety in one's foods.

Q3) The repeated losing and gaining of weight,which dramatically slows the body's metabolic rate and raises the body's set point is called A)"supersized dieting."

B)behavioral dieting.

C)"yo­yo dieting."

D)French-style dieting.

Q4) Explain the causes of anorexia and bulimia and the treatments used.

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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding facial expressions,which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

A)The facial expression of sadness is the most universal and easily recognized facial expression of emotion.

B)The facial expressions that are recognized around the world are not the same basic emotions listed by Plutchik.

C)Children who are born blind display basic expressions in the same way as sighted people do.

D)All of these statements are true.

Q2) Which theory of emotion would explain that if you see a bear,your brain activity will simultaneously produce bodily arousal,running,and the feeling called fear?

A)attribution theory

B)Schachter's cognitive theory

C)Cannon-Bard theory

D)James-Lange theory

Q3) In comparison to females in Western cultures,males in Western cultures are

A)more emotionally expressive as infants,but less expressive as adults.

B)less emotionally expressive as infants,but more expressive as adults.

C)less emotionally expressive from infancy through adulthood.

D)more emotionally expressive from infancy through adulthood.

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Page 46

Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence

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Q1) Using strengths that we already possess,such as kindness,originality,humor,optimism,and generosity,can help us to cultivate _______.

Q2) Regarding emotional intelligence,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Avoiding and suppressing negative emotions is a part of emotional intelligence.

B)Cultivating positive emotions is a part of emotional intelligence.

C)Positive emotions tend to broaden one's focus,while negative emotions tend to narrow one's focus.

D)Strengths we possess,such as kindness,originality,humor,optimism,and generosity,are natural buffers against misfortune and can help people live more positive,genuinely happy lives.

Q3) Emotions that are associated with actions that helped our ancestors save their lives are our _______ emotions.

A)unconscious

B)negative

C)positive

D)suppressed

Q4) Discuss how emotionally intelligent people perceive,use,understand,and manage their emotions.

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation

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Q1) A child that is born with an XY pair of chromosomes is genetically considered to A)have Turner's syndrome.

B)have Klinefelter's syndrome.

C)be male.

D)be female.

Q2) Regarding sexual orientation,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Neuroscientists have shown that there is no significant difference in the brain structures or brain chemicals of heterosexuals and homosexuals.

B)Some researchers now estimate that sexual orientation is from 30 to 70 percent genetic.

C)Homosexuality is not caused by hormone imbalances in adulthood with the hormone levels of most gay men and lesbians being within the normal range.

D)There is little difference in the development of children with gay or lesbian parents and those who have heterosexual parents.

Q3) Discuss the research findings regarding the causes of one's sexual orientation,especially research related to the causes for homosexuality.

Q4) Your predominance of androgens or estrogens determines your _______ sex.

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,

Androgyny, and Gender

Variance

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159 Verified Questions

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Q1) A woman rated as androgynous on the Bem Sex Role Inventory would have

A)high scores on feminine traits.

B)high scores on masculine traits.

C)neutral traits.

D)all of these.

Q2) As compared to highly masculine or highly feminine individuals,androgynous individuals typically show

A)higher emotional intelligence.

B)overinflated self-esteem and arrogance.

C)greater financial success.

D)greater happiness in marriage.

Q3) Which of the following would be considered a "feminine" trait on the Ben Sex Role Inventory?

A)ambitious

B)self-reliant

C)child-like

D)analytical

Q4) People who are androgynous tend to be more satisfied with their lives.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the past year,what percent of men and women reported having two or more sexual partners?

A)five percent of men and two percent of women

B)10 percent of men and six percent of women

C)17 percent of men and 10 percent of women

D)25 percent of men and 18 percent of women

Q2) After orgasm,men experience a short phase during which a second orgasm is impossible,which is referred to as the __________ period.

Q3) Masturbation is an expression of immaturity and low self-esteem and can lead to sterility.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One study found that what percent of HIV patients who knew they were infectious did not always use condoms when they were engaging in sex?

A)15 percent

B)24 percent

C)33 percent

D)41 percent

Page 50

Q5) Surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as _______.

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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems

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Q1) Laura tells her husband Eddie that her mother and father are coming for the weekend.When Eddie does not immediately respond,Laura says angrily,"You really don't want them to come or you would have said something."

Laura is exhibiting

A)gunnysacking.

B)sensate focus.

C)mind-reading.

D)desensitization.

Q2) According to Gottman and Krokoff,there are three patterns that are almost always related to serious long-term problems in relationships.These include all of the following EXCEPT

A)defensiveness (including whining).

B)anger.

C)stubbornness.

D)refusal to talk with one's partner.

Q3) Discuss male erectile disorder,including the term once used for this sexual dysfunction,the diagnostic criteria that distinguish this disorder from a temporary problem,the different organic and psychogenic causes,the difference in primary and secondary types of this disorder,and the treatments used.

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Page 51

Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality

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Q1) In humanistic theories,the developmental emphasis involves A)psychosexual and psychosocial stages.

B)the development of the self-image.

C)critical learning situations.

D)identification and imitation.

Q2) Behaviorists are to the external environment as humanists are to A)stress.

B)personal growth.

C)trait analysis.

D)internal conflicts.

Q3) Dr.Balta is assessing a client's personality by using a rating scale.Dr.Balta's assessment most likely involves A)direct observation.

B)a projective test.

C)a personality questionnaire.

D)the MMPI-2.

Q4) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her _______.

Q5) Differentiate between the terms self-concept and self-esteem,and describe how they are related,and then explain the differences in the basis of self-esteem in Eastern and Western cultures.

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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories

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Q1) The source traits identified by Cattell can be measured using a test known as the A)MMPI-2.

B)16 PF.

C)TAT.

D)WAIS.

Q2) If a person is extremely conscientious to the point of having impossibly high standards,psychologists usually call this trait

A)neurotic anxiety.

B)dogmatism.

C)perfectionism.

D)organismic valuing.

Q3) You describe your friend Joel as reserved,hostile,irresponsible,temperamental,and disinterested in ideas.You have just rated his personality based on A)the five-factor model.

B)the MMPI-2.

C)Hans Eysenck's dimensions.

D)Dollard and Miller's critical situations theory.

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Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic

Theories

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Q1) Forgiveness,humility,prudence,and self-control describe the human strength,identified by Seligman and Peterson,as

A)temperance.

B)humanity.

C)transcendence.

D)wisdom and knowledge.

Q2) According to Carl Rogers,an individual who is open to feelings and trusts his or her inner urges is

A)fully functioning.

B)prepotent.

C)ideal.

D)incongruent.

Q3) An overly strict or harsh superego will cause A)increasing levels of primary process thinking.

B)an antisocial personality.

C)inhibition,rigidity,or unbearable guilt.

D)a breakdown of the libido.

Q4) Humanistic theorists hold a negative,pessimistic view of our human nature.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning

Theories

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Q1) Behaviorists would say that showing honest behavior is the result of situations interacting with our A)central traits.

B)ideal self.

C)prior learning.

D)instinctual drive for altruism.

Q2) In Dollard and Miller's learning theory of personality,cues are A)stimuli which are strong enough to goad a person into action. B)responses that an individual perceives in the environment.

C)external stimuli that signal the presence or absence of reinforcement.

D)such things as hunger,pain,thirst,lust,and fear.

Q3) With respect to the influence of traits and situations on behavior,it is most accurate to say that the two A)interact.

B)counteract.

C)are independent.

D)are secondary.

Q4) The "cognitive behaviorism" of social learning theory can be illustrated by three concepts proposed by Julian Rotter, which are the psychological situation,expectancy,and _______.

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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness

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Q1) Shyness is considered to be

A)a personality trait.

B)a personality type.

C)related to a "sensing" temperament.

D)a character flaw.

Q2) Shyness is often triggered by all of the following EXCEPT

A)informal settings.

B)being the focus of attention.

C)being noticeably different from others.

D)meeting someone of higher status.

Q3) If you want to show that you are interested in another person and gain extra information that can be used to extend conversations,it is best to use

A)open-ended questions.

B)more animation in one's conversation.

C)intellectualization.

D)projections and rationalizations.

Q4) In starting a conversation,it is best to use a type of question that will gain extra information about the person with whom you are speaking.This type of question is called a(n) _______ question.

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Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology

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164 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Stress and negative emotions raise our vulnerability to infections,worsen illnesses,and delay recovery because they

A)lower immune system activity and decrease inflammation.

B)lower immune system activity and increase inflammation.

C)increase immune system activity and decrease inflammation.

D)increase immune system activity and increase inflammation.

Q2) The alarm reaction,the stage of resistance,and the stage of exhaustion are the three stages of the

A)Cannon-Bard theory.

B)expectancy value theory.

C)general adaptation syndrome.

D)Yerkes-Dodson law.

Q3) Which perspective defines health as a state of well-being that we can actively attain and maintain?

A)the psychosomatic perspective

B)the mind-body perspective

C)the medical model

D)the biopsychosocial model

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Chapter 56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and Conflict

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jerrod is in a traffic jam and needs to be at a very important meeting in less than 20 minutes.He tries to call the office from his cell phone,but his phone battery is down,and he does not have his charger.As the minutes tick by,we can expect which of the following to increase for Jerrod?

A)learned helplessness

B)frustration

C)conflict

D)burnout

Q2) The intensity of the body's stress reaction ultimately depends on A)what we think and tell ourselves about stressors.

B)rumors and misattributions.

C)misperceptions of physiological arousal.

D)the gender,age,and personality of the individual.

Q3) If you miss getting an "A" by only one point,your frustration will be more intense because

A)the goal was near.

B)you are experienced an approach-avoidance conflict.

C)this incident has happened before.

D)you believe a mistake has been made.

Page 58

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Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness, and Depression

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Q1) When Pablo's father died after a long illness,Pablo shielded himself from this emotional pain by thinking about how his father was now out of the pain that he had been in for over two years and how his father had lived such a long and meaningful life.Pablo is using the defense mechanism known as A)compensation.

B)rationalization.

C)fantasy.

D)intellectualization.

Q2) On his job,Guermo is faced with stressors that he cannot control.His best strategy for dealing with these stressors is to use

A)emotion-focused coping.

B)problem-focused coping.

C)rationalization.

D)reaction formation.

Q3) The use of defense mechanisms prevents us from developing large blind spots in our awareness.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health

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Q1) Hardy people (those unusually resistant to the effects of stress)are characterized by a(n)

A)sense of personal commitment to self,work,and family.

B)feeling of no control over their lives.

C)attitude of just going with the flow.

D)tendency to avoid extra responsibilities.

Q2) According to Barbara Fredrickson,positive emotions tend to

A)narrow our mental focus on what is important.

B)make it more likely that you will find creative solutions to your problems.

C)increase the bodily arousal so that you can more effectively deal with the stress.

D)do all of these.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the core features of a hardy personality?

A)seeing life as a series of challenges

B)having a sense of commitment to self,work and family

C)feeling that one has control over one's life and work

D)effective use of defense mechanisms

Q4) Explain the benefits of positive emotions and the advantages of being an optimist in life.

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Page 60

Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management

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Q1) People who use humor to cope with stressful situations tend to

A)lose their focus on solving the problem.

B)lower their distress and stress reactions to difficult events.

C)distract themselves and others from working on the problems.

D)come up with less creative and less realistic solutions to problems.

Q2) Before her big job interview,Tanya tells herself ,"If I get nervous,I'll just pause a moment" and "I've managed other interviews before." These are examples of

A)coping statements.

B)overly optimistic thinking.

C)the K.I.S.S.strategy.

D)accepting your limits.

Q3) Regarding meditation,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Meditation promotes relaxation by interrupting upsetting thoughts.

B)Meditation is difficult to learn and may require a training course.

C)Listening to or playing music can be meditations of sorts.

D)Taking nature walks or enjoying hobbies can be meditations of sorts.

Q4) Stress is often made worse by our misguided responses to it.Describe four ways that we can reduce our stress and ineffective behavior.

Q5) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective _______.

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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology

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Q1) Robert was found wandering naked in the campus parking lot,proclaiming himself to be "Father Time." The mental disorder that Robert appears to have would fit under which DSM-5 category?

A)anxiety disorders

B)schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders

C)obsessive-compulsive and related disorders

D)dissociative disorders

Q2) Failure to match one's behavior to widely accepted norms or to the usual minimum rules for social conduct describes what definition of normality?

A)subjective discomfort

B)statistical abnormality

C)social nonconformity

D)cultural relativity

Q3) Culturally disapproved of behaviors in the past were often given psychological labels with the so­called "mental disorder" that caused slaves in the 1840s to run away from their masters being referred to as _______.

Q4) Regarding the diagnostic categories of disorders,enuresis and encopresis are types of _______ disorders.

Page 62

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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,

and Schizophrenia

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Q1) Many researchers believe that schizophrenia is related to overactivity in the brain's _______ systems.

A)serotonin

B)acetylcholine

C)schizotoxin

D)dopamine

Q2) Ginny's mother was exposed to the influenza virus midway through her pregnancy as well as being malnourished during much of her pregnancy.Due to these prenatal factors,Ginny is more likely to

A)show increased serotonin and acetylcholine production.

B)have an incomplete development of the corpus callosum.

C)develop ADD or ADHD,which,in turn,increases the risk of bipolar disorder.

D)have a disturbance in brain development,leaving her more vulnerable to a psychotic break with reality during adolescence or young adulthood.

Q3) If Kyle believes that every time he hears a car horn honk on the busy street outside his apartment that he is being sent an important coded message from the CIA,he is exhibiting a delusion of reference.

A)True

B)False

Page 63

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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders

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Q1) SAD stands for

A)situational affected depression.

B)seasonal affective disorder.

C)sensory attributed depression.

D)simulated apathy disorder.

Q2) Regarding pregnancy and childbirth,the two most common forms of depression experienced by women are

A)maternity blues and postpartum depression.

B)dysthmia and cyclothymic disorder.

C)endogenous and exogenous depressions.

D)emotional burnout and sleep-deprivation depression.

Q3) If one fraternal twin is depressed,what percent chance does the other fraternal twin have of suffering depression?

A)19 percent

B)33 percent

C)52 percent

D)67 percent

Q4) Discuss seasonal affective disorder (SAD),including its symptoms,when and where this depression is prevalent,why it occurs,and how it is treated.

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Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based

Disorders and Personality Disorders

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Q1) Jan is experiencing pervasive feelings of stress,insecurity,inferiority,and dissatisfaction with life.She avoids any situation that increases these feelings of stress,such as skipping class on test days and withdrawing from her sociology class because a short speech was required during the semester.Jan is exhibiting symptoms of a(n)

A)persistent depressive disorder.

B)nervous breakdown.

C)anxiety-related problem.

D)borderline personality disorder.

Q2) Jessie is so afraid to drive across the long bridge over Lake Pontchartrain that he drives 50 miles out of his way when he visits his mother.Jessie would be diagnosed with A)agoraphobia.

B)acute stress disorder.

C)a panic disorder.

D)a specific phobia.

Q3) In the DSM-5,hoarding disorder is classified under obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide

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Q1) Warning signs for potential suicide include all of the following EXCEPT

A)sudden mood swings and aggression.

B)increased contact and dependence on others.

C)a preoccupation with death.

D)alcohol and/or drug use.

Q2) Which men tend to have the LOWEST rate of suicide?

A)married men

B)divorced men

C)single men who have never been married

D)men who are widowed after a long happy marriage

Q3) Withdrawal from others,personality change,depression,and giving away prized possessions are among the warning signs for

A)a suicide attempt.

B)bipolar II disorder.

C)adolescent turbulence.

D)dysthymia.

Q4) Married men have higher suicide rates than divorced,widowed,or single men.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress

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Q1) Which directive approach is used both in individual and group therapies and focuses on a person's immediate awareness?

A)Gestalt therapy

B)psychodrama

C)rational-emotive behavior therapy

D)brief psychodynamic therapy

Q2) When experiments are used to determine whether therapy is effective,

A)it is not unusual for the control group to show some improvement,even without receiving therapy.

B)the therapy can be deemed effective only if the experimental group shows more improvement than the control group.

C)a waiting-list control group is used since it would be unethical to withhold treatment from someone who really needs therapy.

D)all of these can occur.

Q3) Research on the effectiveness of psychotherapy suggests that

A)for some people,therapy is tremendously helpful.

B)for some people,therapy is unsuccessful.

C)overall,therapy is effective for more people than not.

D)all of these statements are true.

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Page 67

Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies

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Q1) In which type of therapy must the person actively seek to solve his or her own problems with the therapist's job being to create a safe "atmosphere of growth" by providing opportunities for change?

A)psychoanalysis

B)rational-emotive behavioral therapy (REBT)

C)client-centered therapy

D)interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)

Q2) A young man dreams of pulling a pistol from his waistband and aiming at a target,while his wife watches.The pistol repeatedly fails to discharge,and the man's wife laughs at him.According to Freud,these aspects of the dream that the patient tells the therapist constitute which type of dream content?

A)transference

B)lucid

C)manifest

D)latent

Q3) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by _______.

Q4) Describe the four basic conditions that Carl Rogers believed that an effective therapist should maintain.

Page 68

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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies

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Q1) Which of the following pioneered a type of aversive therapy in which clients receive painful electric shocks while they are drinking alcoholic beverages?

A)Francine Shapiro

B)Fritz Perls

C)Roger Vogler

D)Joseph Wolpe

Q2) If a response is followed by an unpleasant effect or discomfort,the response behavior will be suppressed.This is an example of A)nonreinforcement.

B)aversive shaping.

C)punishment.

D)extinction.

Q3) Explain how operant conditioning is used to modify human behavior by listing and describing the six operant principles most often used by behavior therapists.

Q4) Describe the technique known as EMDR,including a description of the procedure,who developed it,what conditions it is used to treat,and how this technique is believed to work.

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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Staying in a mental hospital takes patients out of situations that may be sustaining their problems and can help them make a clean break from their self-destructive behavior patterns.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the major advantages of antipsychotic drugs?

A)Antipsychotic drugs have tranquilizing effects and reduce hallucinations and delusions.

B)Antipsychotic drugs are the primary mode of treatment for schizophrenia.

C)Antipsychotic drugs typically cause only minor side effects.

D)Antipsychotic drugs have shortened hospital stays.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an antidepressant?

A)Haldol

B)Zoloft

C)Prozac

D)Elavil

Q4) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as _______ drugs.

Q5) Skilled management of a psychological emergency is known as _______.

Q6) The use of drugs to treat psychopathology is called drug therapy,or _______.

Page 70

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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help

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Q1) Your friend has asked to talk to you about the troubles he is having in his marriage.You soon realize that your friend's problems are beyond your ability to properly address,so your best course of action would be to

A)review the general counseling skills in your psychology textbook before you speak to him again.

B)ask some of your other friends to provide suggestions about how to help your friend.

C)go to the bookstore and buy your friend some self-help books on relationships.

D)find your friend a more qualified,licensed counselor.

Q2) A behavior modification procedure that assists an individual in suppressing upsetting mental images and internal "talk" is called A)desensitization.

B)covert sensitization.

C)thought stopping.

D)operant suppression.

Q3) One of the best things you can do when offering support to another person is to give feedback by simply restating what is said,which is called _______.

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Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition

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Q1) The hostile reaction of others as you step in front of them in a grocery store checkout line occurs because you have violated a A)norm.

B)social status.

C)social role.

D)group structure.

Q2) A group that an individual identifies with and uses as a standard for social comparison is called a _______ group.

A)focus

B)personal identification

C)reference

D)membership comparison

Q3) The statement,"I am convinced that atomic wastes cannot be safely disposed of" made by an opponent of nuclear power,represents which component of an attitude?

A)action

B)belief

C)experience

D)emotion

Q4) The process of making inferences about behavior is known as _______.

Page 72

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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence

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Q1) Marc was a POW in Vietnam.He was placed in a tiny cell,beaten,and threatened with death on a daily basis.This treatment is a part of the phase of brainwashing known as

Q2) When Stanley Milgram polled a group of psychiatrists before his obedience experiments were conducted,the psychiatrists predicted that less than one percent of those tested would obey when,in reality,65 percent obeyed completely by going all the way to the 450-volt level.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Subjects in Milgram's experiment who gave the highest level of shocks rationalized that they were NOT personally responsible for their actions.This raises questions about our willingness to commit inhumane acts as a result of

A)resistance compliance.

B)obedience to a legitimate authority.

C)self-assertion.

D)conformity to group pressure.

Q4) Describe the procedures used in brainwashing and in cult conversion,and explain how these two procedures are similar and how they are different.

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Page 73

Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding self-disclosure,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Self­disclosure is governed by unspoken rules about what's acceptable.

B)When self­disclosure is too rapid or inappropriate,we are likely to "back off" and wonder about the person's motives.

C)The reason that the excessive self-disclosure on many television talk shows is entertaining rather than threatening to viewers is because the television guests are strangers rather than friends.

D)People often feel freer to express their true feelings on social networking sites,which can lead to genuine,face-to-face friendships,but can also lead to some very dramatic overdisclosure.

Q2) In an experiment involving a thick cloud of smoke being blown into a room through a vent,a person quickly noticed the presence of the smoke when the person was

A)in a medium-size group.

B)alone in the room.

C)a female.

D)a male.

Q3) We are encouraged to help others who have helped us because of the norms of

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Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior

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Q1) Road rage and some freeway shootings are most likely the result of A)the frustration of traffic congestion with automobiles providing anonymity,or a loss of personal identity.

B)urban societies being desensitized by the violence and apathetic to their fellow motorists.

C)instinctual drives for aggression being elicited by the honking horns and angry gestures.

D)the car serving as an aggressive weapons effect.

Q2) Peter,who belongs to the "preppie" clique at the high school,is seen talking to a couple members of the "gothic" clique.Several members of his "preppie" group explain to Peter why he should not be seen talking to "those other people." If Peter adheres to the expectations of his clique,he will be exhibiting

A)group prejudice.

B)personal prejudice.

C)scapegoating.

D)social stereotyping.

Q3) An unwarranted positiveness or certainty in matters of belief or opinion is called

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Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism

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Q1) In trying to break the prejudice habit,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)The decision to give up being prejudice eliminates prejudiced thoughts and feelings right away.

B)A nonprejudiced person may experience lingering stereotypes learned in childhood that may cause the person to respond emotionally to members of other ethnic groups.

C)Once prejudice is given up,people lose the stereotypes they learned early in life.

D)People who really want to break out of the prejudice habit can do so with relatively little effort.

Q2) Giving equal status,recognition,and acceptance to different ethnic and cultural groups is referred to as __________.

Q3) In order to "break the prejudice habit," it is important that we look for information that helps define a person as an individual,rather than as a member of a group or social category.This information is called _______ information.

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Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology

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Q1) Carlos works for a company in which he is given a goal of making a certain number of items,while reducing waste by a specific percentage.However,Carlos is allowed the freedom to choose how he will achieve these goals. Carlos' company is utilizing

A)management by objectives.

B)scientific management.

C)job specialization and task analysis.

D)Theory X leadership.

Q2) Personnel psychologists use which of the following types of tests?

A)general mental ability tests (intelligence tests)

B)vocational interest tests

C)general personality tests

D)all of these

Q3) Regarding knowledge workers,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Knowledge workers tend to work hard to gain competence and to use their talents.

B)Today in North America,two of every five people in the workforce would be considered knowledge workers.

C)Knowledge workers usually think of their work as a career rather than a job.

D)Bankers,teachers,and lawyers are examples of knowledge workers.

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Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology

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Q1) Which of the following are defined by groups of people and their activities or interrelationships,such as sporting events or business meetings?

A)physical environments

B)social environments

C)behavioral settings

D)territorial settings

Q2) People who are asked to sign "pledge cards" or sign lists committing themselves to recycling are more likely to follow through and actually recycle.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Regarding spatial norms,formal speeches,lectures,and business meetings are usually conducted at _______ distance.

Q4) Which of the following is beginning to make it easier to conserve limited resources?

A)a decrease in corporate greed

B)better control and feedback tools

C)the human tendency to underuse natural resources

D)strict worldwide environmental standards

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Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of

Education, Law, and Sports

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Q1) Mental practice tends to be most valuable after you have mastered a task at a basic level.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to the text,studies suggest that jurors' final verdict is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT

A)the physical attractiveness of the defendant.

B)exposure to pretrial publicity.

C)the jurors putting too little confidence in DNA evidence presented.

D)whether the defendant wore eyeglasses or not.

Q3) When one is working with children in sports,it is important to emphasize all of the following EXCEPT

A)fair play.

B)extrinsic rewards.

C)self-control of emotions.

D)independence and self-reliance.

Q4) The first step in a teaching strategy is stimulus presentation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Discuss four problem areas regarding jury deliberations.

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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors

Psychology

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Q1) Human factors psychologists who help design space stations

A)do not have to consider the "up" and "down" in rooms because of weightlessness.

B)create stable living and work areas since sameness lowers stress.

C)found that crew members eating at least one meal together each day helped keep them working as a social unit.

D)found that astronauts soon adjust to the noise on a space station and ignore it over time.

Q2) Topics of interest for human factors psychologists would include furniture design,augmented cognition,and technology and aging.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Effective design provides information about the effect of making a response,which is called attentional control.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to Psychologist Donald Norman,the row of vertical buttons in elevators that mimic the layout of the floors is an example of a(n) _______ design.

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Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a reason that the normal curve is a useful tool in psychological statistics?

A)Many psychological characteristics are normally distributed.

B)There is a direct relationship between the standard deviation and the normal curve.

C)The normal curve can be used to estimate probabilities.

D)The normal curve allows us to generalize from small samples.

Q2) A correlation of +1.00 or -1.00 means that 100 percent of the variation in the Y measure is accounted for by knowing the X measure.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The 45 students in your psychology section took the test.Your instructor adds together the scores made by these students and divides by 45 to obtain the A)median.

B)mode.

C)range.

D)mean.

Q4) The range and standard deviation are measures of _______.

Q5) Given these scores 22,44,33,55,33,22,44,22,55,22,the mode is _______.

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Chapter 80: Life After School

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Q1) While employers might tolerate new employees who know very little about their new jobs,they won't gladly suffer new employees who have no clue how to "study" their new jobs.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the first module of Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition),the authors introduced the concept of reflective processing and discussed how to overcome procrastination in order to develop the students' _______ Skills.

A)study

B)intuitive

C)cultural awareness

D)research

Q3) To get a sense of the diversity of psychologists' interests,students reading Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition)should look at Table 3.3 in Module 3 or scan the Table of Contents.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

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Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential

Statistics for Psychological Research

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Q1) The more time students spend sleeping in class,the lower their grades are.This would be a

A)zero correlation.

B)positive relationship.

C)variable relationship.

D)negative relationship.

Q2) Higher alcohol levels are related to lower coordination scores.This would be a A)zero correlation.

B)positive relationship.

C)variable relationship.

D)negative relationship.

Q3) When measure X gets larger,measure Y gets smaller in a(n) _______ correlation.

Q4) In order to convert a number to a z-score,it is necessary,within a group of scores,to know the mean and the A)range.

B)correlation.

C)mode.

D)standard deviation.

Q6) For the numbers 10,17,2,9,and 15,the range is _______. Page 83

Q5) A bar graph of a frequency distribution is known as a(n) _______.

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Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate

Psychology Major

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

76 Verified Questions

76 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72185

Sample Questions

Q1) In determining one's specialty area in psychology and the career opportunities available,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)To provide information regarding a specialty area in psychology,one can read The Insider's Guide to the Psychology Major: Everything You Need to Know about the Degree and Profession.

B)The American Psychological Association has a list of more than 50 specialized divisions,and one can browse their associated websites.

C)Students can attend departmental activities,such as the colloquia.

D)Although students cannot become student members of national organizations at the present time,they can attend certain sessions as a group if accompanied by their professor.

Q2) Most college programs in psychology follow the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,which were developed and published by the National Psychological Training Board.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

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