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Foundations of Psychology Practice Exam - 14792 Verified Questions

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Foundations of Psychology Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Foundations of Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. This course explores fundamental concepts such as perception, learning, memory, cognition, emotion, development, personality, and psychological disorders. Students examine the biological bases of behavior, influential psychological theories, and research methods used in the field. Emphasis is placed on understanding the applications of psychological principles in everyday life and the development of critical thinking skills necessary for analyzing human thoughts and actions.

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Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon

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Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) While taking notes in class,LaShonda tries to anticipate what the teacher will say and looks for the core of ideas that will make up this lecture.She listens for signal words that will tell her what direction her instructor is taking,and she sits where she can get involved and ask questions.Lastly,LaShonda is selective in writing down only the key points of the lecture,so she can focus on what the professor is saying.LaShonda is engaged in the A)experiential approach.

B)LISAN method.

C)SQ4R method.

D)use of mnemonics.

Answer: B

Q2) In order to conquer procrastination and become a reflective learner,students should follow the suggestions on the study skills checklist found in their psychology textbook.Which of the following suggestions is NOT on this study skills checklist?

A)Study in a specific place.

B)Study while reading.

C)Make a formal schedule.

D)Avoid overlearning.

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: How to Study Psychology

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Q1) Josh is using a web-based study system provided by his psychology textbook to create a personalized study plan.This web-based study system includes media,such as videos,animations,and learning modules,that will help Josh master course content.This study system also has pre-tests and post-tests to help Josh monitor his learning progress.This web-based study system is called A)PsycINFO.

B)PsycPORT.

C)StudyTECH.

D)CengageNOW.

Answer: D

Q2) If you remember that "gato" is the Spanish word for "cat" by visualizing a cat sitting on the top of a gate,then you are using a A)mnemonic.

B)signal word.

C)retriever.

D)lisan device.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Introducing Psychology: Psychology, Critical Thinking, and Science

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Q1) John's poor performance in reading was found to be due to visual discrimination problems.This determination of the cause for his poor reading performance illustrates which goal of psychology?

A)description

B)prediction

C)understanding

D)control

Answer: C

Q2) As an experimenal psychologist,Dr.Gandis utilizes information gained through direct observation and measurement.Dr.Gandis is using

A)introspective data.

B)subjective data.

C)commonsense.

D)empirical evidence.

Answer: D

Q3) An empirical investigation structured to answer questions about the world in a systematic and intersubjective fashion is known as a(n) ______.

Answer: scientific observation

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Chapter 4: Introducing Psychology: Psychology Then and Now

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Q1) Which psychologist said,"Give me a dozen healthy infants ...and I'll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become any type of specialist I might select ..."?

A)William James

B)Ivan Pavlov

C)Sigmund Freud

D)John Watson

Q2) Regarding Freud's contributions to psychology,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Freud is known for creating the first fully developed psychotherapy,or "talking cure."

B)Freud was among the first to appreciate that childhood affects adult personality.

C)When Freud's students broke away from his theories in order to modify and change them,they were called cognitive behaviorists.

D)Freud's ideas have been altered so much that few strictly psychoanalytic psychologists are left,although his legacy is still evident in various psychodynamic theories.

Q3) Sigmund Freud's approach to psychotherapy is known as ______.

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Chapter 5: Introducing Psychology: the Psychology Experiment

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Q1) Describe the classic study at the U.S.Air Force Preparatory School on how expectations can influence people,and discuss its findings and implications.

Q2) An experiment in which neither the subjects nor the experimenters administering the drugs know who is receiving the real drug or a placebo is called a ______ experiment.

A)naturalistic

B)random control

C)placebo-blind

D)double-blind

Q3) A single-blind experiment would most likely be used to minimize the A)researcher bias.

B)correlation versus causation problems.

C)problem of obtaining a representative sample.

D)research participant bias.

Q4) In an experiment to study the effects of study skills training on academic achievement,the motivation and intelligence of the students in the study would be considered dependent variables.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Introducing Psychology: Non-Experimental

Research Methods

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Q1) A common method for selecting representative samples is to select them

A)randomly from the larger population.

B)strictly from volunteers.

C)independently by placing the surveys in popular magazines and newspapers.

D)from the confidential lists generated from mail order firms.

Q2) A teacher asks the school psychologist to observe her class through the two-way mirror and determine why the class disruptions are occurring.Just as the psychologist is walking into the room off to the side of the classroom to observe,the teacher assistant tells the psychologist,"Pay close attention to Claire and Robert over there by the maps.I think they are the real troublemakers in the class." After this encounter,the school psychologist will have to struggle with the A)observer effect.

B)observer bias.

C)placebo effect.

D)anthropomorphic error.

Q3) Each of the students in your American government class will be stopping people in the mall to ask them a series of ten questions regarding their voting preference in the upcoming election.Your government class is using the __________method.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Psychology in Action: Thinking Critically About the Media

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Q1) A psychologist visiting a classroom concludes that one of the children is depressed because the child is quiet and unresponsive.Actually,the child has the flu.The psychologist has made what error?

A)failure to distinguish correlation from causation

B)failure to distinguish inference from observation

C)failure to use experimental controls

D)failure to obtain a representative sample

Q2) When newspaper or magazine articles claim the effectiveness of some product or service,it is wise to

A)realize that the authenticity of the report has been thoroughly checked by the media.

B)be wary of overly complex explanations.

C)remember that truth is often stranger than fiction.

D)consider the source of the information.

Q3) Inferences,interpretations,and opinions,including the opinions of experts,have no value in science or critical thinking.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Brain and Behavior: Neurons and the Nervous System

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Q1) Feelings of pleasure or euphora similar to being "high" on morphine occur when which of the following are released in the brain?

A)acetylcholines

B)endorphins

C)synaptic vesicles

D)neurilemmas

Q2) The cell body of a neuron is also called the A)dendrite.

B)axon.

C)myelin.

D)soma.

Q3) Most of the spinal cord and the nerves of the peripheral nervous system are comprised of large bundles of A)axons.

B)neuropeptides.

C)glial cells.

D)somas.

Q4) A nerve cell carrying information from your eyes,ears,fingers,etc.toward the central nervous system is called a(n)__________neuron.

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Chapter 9: Brain and Behavior: Brain Research

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Q1) Biopsychologists are able to pinpoint areas in the brain responsible for thoughts,feelings,and actions using all of the following EXCEPT for the A)EEG.

B)fMRI.

C)PET scan.

D)CT scan.

Q2) Anatomists learned that the brain is made up of many distinct areas or "parts" by cutting apart autopsied human and animal brains and then examining them under a microscope.This procedure being used is known as A)laterization.

B)neural induction.

C)corticalization.

D)dissection.

Q3) A PET scan records the amount of which radioactive substance used by brain cells?

A)potassium

B)iodine

C)glucose

D)sodium

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Chapter 10: Brain and Behavior: Hemispheres and Lobes of the Cortex

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Q1) Clark was skateboarding and fell backwards hitting his head.He told his friends that he "saw stars" because he hit the brain lobes called the _______ lobes.

Q2) An important outcome of Sperry's split-brain research was

A)an understanding of hemispheric specialization.

B)a procedure for treating schizophrenia.

C)insight into the relationships between the central and peripheral nervous systems.

D)a technique for training enhanced creativity.

Q3) In a comparison of the human brain with other animals,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Whales have the largest brains in overall size.

B)Humans have a larger brain weight to body weight ratio than any other mammal.

C)Many parts of our brain are surprisingly similar to corresponding brain areas in other animals,such as lizards.

D)Compared with other creatures,our brains have a much larger cerebral cortex.

Q4) Discuss mirror neurons,including where they are located,how they were discovered,what their functions are in humans and primates,and how a particular childhood disorder may be caused by damages to these neurons.

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Chapter 11: Brain and Behavior: Sub-Cortex and Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using your knowledge of the limbic system,explain why people who suffer from phobias and disabling anxiety often feel afraid without knowing why.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a correct match between endocrine gland and hormone?

A)pineal gland--------norepinephrine

B)pancreas-----------insulin

C)ovaries-------------estrogen

D)testes---------------testosterone

Q3) Which part of the brain is responsible for hunger,thirst,sex,body temperature,and hormone secretion?

A)reticular formation

B)pons

C)hypothalamus

D)hippocampus

Q4) Regarding the hippocampus,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)The hippocampus lies inside the temporal lobes.

B)The hippocampus is associated with forming lasting memories.

C)The hippocampus tells us when to fear dangerous stimuli.

D)The hippocampus helps us navigate through space.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Psychology in Action: Handedness

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Q1) Although handedness is a matter of degree,what percent of Americans are left-handed?

A)30 percent

B)20 percent

C)10 percent

D)two percent

Q2) Janine usually uses her right hand when she writes,but she may throw a ball or reach for something with either hand.According to research,people,like Janine,who show a mixed handedness are at higher risk for developing which of the following?

A)immune-related diseases

B)allergies and learning disorders

C)spatial neglect

D)facial agnosia

Q3) One's dominant hemisphere is considered the side of a person's brain that A)controls hand movement.

B)controls eye movement.

C)organizes and plans activities.

D)produces language.

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Chapter 13: Human Development: Heredity and Environment

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Q1) Bruce has a dominant gene for brown eyes and a recessive gene for blue eyes.Bruce's eye color would be

A)green

B)brown

C)blue

D)impossible to predict

Q2) Amy lifts her head,then learns to crawl,then to walk with the development progressing from her head to her feet. This progression illustrates A)the cephalocaudal pattern.

B)the proximodistal pattern.

C)habituation.

D)assimilation.

Q3) Compared to the adult brain,the brain of a newborn baby has fewer nerve cell branches that receive information,which are called A)axons.

B)dendrites.

C)nodes of Ranvier. D)neurilemma.

Q4) Within the nucleus of each sperm or each ovum,there are _______ chromosomes.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Human Development: Emotional and Social Development in Childhood

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Q1) Regarding the affectional needs of infants,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)In part to meet their affectional needs,infants rapidly begin to form emotional attachments,or close emotional bonds,with their primary caregivers.

B)As infants form their first emotional bond with an adult,usually a parent,they also begin to develop self- awareness and to become aware of others.

C)An infant's early social development lays the foundation for subsequent relationships with parents,siblings,friends,and relatives.

D)A baby's affectional needs are not important or necessary to meet until an infant becomes self­aware.

Q2) Regarding smiling,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)A baby's first smile soon after birth is haphazard and does not necessarily occur when people are present.

B)The social smile does not appear until around 16 to 24 months of age.

C)The social smile is elicited by social stimuli,such as seeing a parent's face.

D)Babies can use the social smile to communicate interest in an object.

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Chapter 15: Human Development: Language and Cognitive Development in Childhood

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that preoperational children are at great risk when crossing busy streets?

A)Preoperational children tend to be egocentric.

B)Preoperational children lack object permanence.

C)Younger children cannot understand why the driver of a car can't see them if they can see the car.

D)Children under the age of seven cannot consistently judge speeds and distances of oncoming cars.

Q2) During the formal operations stage,children begin to

A)accurately use concepts of time,space,and number.

B)think primarily about concrete objects or situations.

C)develop the concept of object permanency.

D)think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities.

Q3) Learned knowledge and skills are called _______ intelligence.

A)practical

B)fluid

C)crystallized

D)experiential

Q4) The false-belief task is used to assess whether a child has developed _______.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Human Development: Adolescence and

Adulthood

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Q1) An exchange of favors,a reward,or the avoidance of punishment would be examples of the direct consequences that would guide one's choices if the person were exhibiting which level of moral development?

A)preconventional

B)postconventional

C)conventional

D)relational exchange

Q2) Lance is 22 years old,is a college graduate,but is living with his parents and has only a part-time job,although he is looking for a full­time job.Lance's father says that Lance is a self­indulgent adult trapped in a "maturity gap," while Lance's mother says that Lance is just taking longer to find his identity.Either way,Lance is

A)in emerging adulthood.

B)exhibiting generativity.

C)exhibiting premature foreclosure.

D)characterized by all of these.

Q3) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called _____.

Q4) According to Kübler­Ross,the reaction to impending death in which the person is neither happy nor sad,but is at peace with the inevitable is referred to as the stage of

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Chapter 17: Psychology in Action: Well-Being and Happiness

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Q1) Compared to less educated persons,those persons with more education tend to be

A)significantly less happy than the less educated.

B)a little happier because they have higher incomes and more social status.

C)neither more nor less happy than the less educated.

D)significantly happier because they are more intelligent and feel more empowered.

Q2) The happiest people are those who have A)had some positive emotional experiences but have overcome many negative experiences.

B)lots of positive emotional experiences and lots of negative experiences.

C)equal numbers of positive and negative emotional experiences.

D)many positive emotional experiences and relatively few negative experiences.

Q3) Regarding happiness and holding religious beliefs,there is _____ relationship.

A)no

B)a negative

C)a small positive

D)a high positive

Q4) People who win lotteries are often less happy than they were before winning.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Sensation and Perception: Sensory Processes

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Q1) Repetitious stimuli shown in television commercials tend to be so boring that they fail in capturing our attention.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The ability to selectively attend to incoming sensory information is believed to result from

A)the inability of the brain to handle more than one message at a time.

B)faulty transmission of neural impulses.

C)the brain's ability to give some messages priority while putting others on hold.

D)a mismatch between the sensory systems.

Q3) Advertisers would love it if they heard several people humming their products' jingles because it means that television viewers are falling prey to the attention-getting strategy called _____.

Q4) Using a cell phone while driving may result in your failure to perceive a car pulling out of a driveway that is in plain view but not the focus of your attention,a situation referred to as _____.

Q5) The basic elements of a stimulus,such as lines,shapes,edges,or colors,are referred to as _____ features.

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Chapter 19: Sensation and Perception: Vision

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Q1) The cones contain a light-sensitive visual pigment called A)rhodopsin.

B)iodopsin.

C)phosphene.

D)gluten.

Q2) The most common test for color blindness or color weakness is the _____ test.

Q3) Explain what happens during dark adaptation,including the importance of rhodopsin,how long dark adaptation takes to occur,how it can be wiped out,and how it can be speeded up.

Q4) A person who can distinguish some colors but has an inability to distinguish red from green or yellow from blue is said to have A)myopia.

B)hyperopia.

C)color agnosia.

D)color weakness.

Q5) Humans respond to different wavelengths of light by experiencing differing A)hues.

B)levels of brightness.

C)amounts of saturation.

D)amplitudes.

21

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Chapter 20: Sensation and Perception: The Other Senses

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Q1) Skin sensations include

A)light touch,pressure,wetness,cold,and warmth.

B)light touch,pressure,cold,warmth,and pain.

C)wetness,pressure,pain,cold,and warmth.

D)light touch,wetness,pain,cold,and warmth.

Q2) A person usually becomes car sick or sea sick because

A)he or she has an upset stomach due to food poisoning.

B)there are conflicting signals from the visual,kinesthetic,and vestibular systems.

C)of the repetitive motion.

D)he or she has a different perception of speed than one who does not become sick.

Q3) Which theory of olfaction states that odors are related to the shapes of chemical molecules?

A)trichromatic

B)lock-and-key

C)opponent process

D)gate control

Q4) The pitch or tone of a sound is due to the number of waves per second,which is called the _______ of the sound waves.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Sensation and Perception: Perceptual

Processes

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Q1) The tendency to group together objects that are the same size,shape,color,or form is known as

A)closure.

B)continuation.

C)similarity.

D)nearness.

Q2) The illusion that railroad tracks come together in the distance involves the depth cue of

A)atmospheric perspective.

B)texture gradients.

C)light and shadow.

D)linear perspective.

Q3) Studies of people who have had their vision restored after a lifetime of blindness found that it takes time for these people to learn to organize their sensations into A)sensory habituations.

B)sensory sets.

C)realizations.

D)perceptions.

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Chapter 22: Sensation and Perception: Perception and Objectivity

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Q1) A linebacker in football may be able to tell if the next play will be a run or a pass by watching one or two key players,rather than the entire opposing team.This illustrates A)contiguity.

B)convergence.

C)perceptual learning.

D)reality testing.

Q2) Some research indicates that,compared to witnesses of crimes,victims of crimes are

A)more accurate in their accounts of the event.

B)about equally accurate in their accounts of the event.

C)less accurate in their accounts of the event.

D)less accurate in their accounts when the crime is a violent one.

Q3) Ramon frequently tries foods that he normally does not eat and reads political opinions very different from his own. By seeking out these out-of-the ordinary experiences,he hopes to increase his A)habituation.

B)perceptual sets.

C)perceptual accuracy.

D)unconscious transference.

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Chapter 23: Psychology in Action: Extrasensory Perception

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Q1) After 130 years of psi investigation,scientists

A)have concluded that ESP definitely exists.

B)have concluded that ESP definitely does not exist.

C)cannot prove conclusively whether or not ESP exists.

D)have determined that psychokinesis exists,but the other three psi phenomenon do not exist.

Q2) Improved research techniques in parapsychology have resulted in

A)the ability to replicate spectacular results.

B)fewer positive results.

C)less skepticism among scientists about ESP.

D)fewer instances of the "decline effect."

Q3) Reinterpretation in psi experiments,like Edgar Mitchell's experiment,involves

A)discounting the Barnum effect.

B)using double-blind research techniques.

C)safeguarding against fraud and deception.

D)defining scores,both above and below chance,as successes.

Q4) Since Dr.Knox studies extrasensory perception and other psi phenomena,he would be considered a psychodynamic psychologist.

A)True

B)False

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Consciousness: States of Consciousness

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Q1) The difficulty of knowing other minds is why the technique of introspection was replaced with more objective measures by the early

A)psychoanalysts.

B)behaviorists.

C)humanists.

D)structuralists.

Q2) Meditation is considered a distinct state of consciousness because

A)it produces deep relaxation.

B)it requires more intense focus than waking consciousness.

C)PET and fMRI scans reveal changes in the activity of the frontal lobes of the brain.

D)heart rates and blood pressures changes occur when a person is meditating.

Q3) During which ritual do several men sit in total darkness inside a small chamber heated by coals and chant rhythmically?

A)Sioux sweat lodge ceremony

B)Buddhists meditation practices

C)"Dreamtime" ritual of the Aborigines

D)nightlong ritual of the Maori Tohunga of New Zealand

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Chapter 25: Consciousness: Sleep and Dreams

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Q1) Which theory/hypothesis states that NREM sleep "calms" the brain,while REM sleep "sharpens" our memories of the previous day's more important experiences?

A)activation-synthesis hypothesis

B)neurocognition theory

C)dual process hypothesis

D)biological biasing theory

Q2) Levels of sleep identified by brain-wave patterns and behavioral changes are referred to as

A)sleep stages.

B)sleep rhythms.

C)semi-conscious patterns.

D)ASCs.

Q3) Psychodynamic theories of dreaming emphasize

A)internal conflicts and unconscious forces.

B)how random activity in lower brain centers results in the manufacture of relatively bizarre dreams by higher brain centers.

C)that dreams reflect everyday waking thoughts and emotions.

D)the detached part of the dreamer's awareness that silently observes events.

Q4) Short bursts of brain activity in Stage 2 sleep are called _______.

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Chapter 26: Consciousness: Psychoactive Drugs

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Q1) Which of the following are synthetic stimulants that go by the common street names of "speed," "bennies," and "uppers"?

A)amphetamines

B)barbiturates

C)tranquilizers

D)Rohypnol and GHB

Q2) The drug MDMA is also known as A)scoop.

B)Ecstasy.

C)crack.

D)ice.

Q3) Drug use associated with which of the following drugs has been linked to the growth of breast cysts,miscarriages,bladder cancer,heart problems,and high blood pressure?

A)caffeine

B)marijuana

C)nicotine

D)heroin

Q4) The reduction in the body's response to a drug which may accompany drug use is called _______.

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Chapter 27: Psychology in Action: Exploring and Using Dreams

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Q1) Sue dreams about a child sitting in her bedroom crying,while Sue runs around trying to console the child.According to Freud,this one child represents all the people in her life that Sue is attempting to care for,including her elderly mother,her husband,her children,and her students.Since this one dream character represents so many aspects of Sue's life,the dream process being utilized is

A)displacement.

B)sublimation.

C)condensation.

D)secondary elaboration.

Q2) Which of the following would NOT be good advice to aid in dream interpretation?

A)Watch for verbal or visual puns and other playful elements in dreams.

B)It is important to describe your dream so that you can relive some of the feelings in the dream.

C)Avoid discussing your dreams with family members or friends since they may add interpretations that will confuse your more personal analysis.

D)Remember that each dream has several possible meanings or levels of meaning with no fixed way to interpret it.

Q3) Describe Sigmund Freud's four dream processes and give an example of each.

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Chapter 28: Conditioning and Learning: Types of Learning

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Q1) Wearing a particular tie because you get lots of compliments when you wear it illustrates

A)the effect of reinforcement.

B)the effect of punishment.

C)a conditioned response.

D)an unconditioned response.

Q2) Some computer-assisted (CAI)programs make use of instructional games involving stories,competition with a partner,sound effects,and game-like graphics that increase interest and motivation.These CAI programs are known as

A)token economies.

B)educational feedback loops.

C)latent learning exercises.

D)serious games.

Q3) Regarding latent learning,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Just satisfying curiosity can be enough to reward latent learning.

B)Latent learning remains hidden until reinforcement is provided.

C)Latent learning is directly associated with respondent conditioning.

D)In humans,latent learning is related to higher-level abilities,such as anticipating future reward.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Conditioning and Learning: Classical Conditioning

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Q1) In a television commercial,an advertiser shows a party scene with many college-age students having a great time.The advertiser's product,a new lite­beer,is prominently displayed in the scene.This advertiser is hoping that his product will become associated with fun.Therefore,when a college student is in a store,he or she will associate this new beer will good feelings and fun.The advertiser is depending on which of the following to sell his product?

A)higher-order conditioning

B)shaping

C)response chaining

D)extinction

Q2) As a child,you associated pain with a dentist's office.In later visits,your heart began to pound and your palms began to sweat before the dentist began any procedure.You are exhibiting a

A)rational fear based upon realistic dangers.

B)conditioned emotional response.

C)fear that was shaped by operant conditioning in childhood.

D)conscious attempt to act frightened in order to gain attention.

Q3) Explain how the classical conditioning of an eye blink came to be used as a diagnostic tool.

Page 31

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Chapter 30: Conditioning and Learning: Operant

Conditioning

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Q1) Taking away a teen's privileges or using time out with younger children are examples of

A)aversive conditioning.

B)response chaining.

C)negative reinforcement.

D)punishment.

Q2) When we remove an unpleasant event by making a response,we experience

A)shaping.

B)extinction.

C)negative reinforcement.

D)positive reinforcement.

Q3) Compare and contrast classical and operant conditioning,including the nature of the response,the timing of learning,the role of the learner,the nature of the learning,and the learned expectancy for each.

Q4) Negative reinforcement and punishment

A)have opposite effects on behavior.

B)are different terms for the same procedure.

C)have the same effect on behavior.

D)are not very effective in changing behavior.

Q5) Define discriminative stimuli,and provide two real-life examples of its use.

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Chapter 31: Conditioning and Learning: Reinforcement and Punishment

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Q1) On which schedule of reinforcement would a person or animal get rewarded on the average of every fifth response,that is,two correct responses would be made to obtain a reinforcer,sometimes seven responses,sometimes three,and so on with the average being five responses?

A)variable ratio

B)fixed interval

C)fixed ratio

D)variable interval

Q2) When a rat is on an FI-20-second schedule for bar pressing,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)The rat will be reinforced continuously for 20 seconds and then receive no more reinforcement.

B)The rat will have to wait 20 seconds after the last reinforced response before a bar press will pay off again.

C)The rat can press the bar as often as it wants within the interval,but it will not be rewarded until after 20 seconds has passed.

D)The rat is on a partial reinforcement schedule.

Q3) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.

Q4) Time-out is an example of negative punishment,which is also called _______.

Page 33

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Chapter 32: Psychology in Action: Behavioral

Self-Management

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Q1) The first step in using "behavioral self­management" is to

A)choose reinforcers.

B)establish goals.

C)choose a target behavior.

D)record two baselines.

Q2) Most nights Ian comes home from work,turns on the TV,eats a whole bag of cookies or chips,then takes a shower,and changes clothes.By dinnertime he has lost his appetite.Ian could solve this problem by not turning on the TV but heading to the shower first.By changing the order of activities that precede dinner,he is breaking the

Q3) Which of the following involves a simple tally of response frequencies that can help you break undesirable behavior patterns and provides feedback about your progress in developing desirable behaviors?

A)cognitive mapping

B)cumulative charting

C)self-recording

D)response chaining

Q4) Explain why self-recording is so important to a behavioral self-management program.

Page 34

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Chapter 33: Memory: Memory Systems

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Q1) The more information you learn,the easier it becomes

A)to add new information to memory.

B)to forget previously learned information.

C)for interference and retrieval failure to occur.

D)for a person to develop Alzheimer's disease or other forms of dementia.

Q2) When short­term memory (STM)is combined with other mental processes,it acts more like a "mental scratchpad" where we do much of our thinking.This aspect of STM is known as _______ memory.

A)working

B)eidetic

C)procedural

D)integrative

Q3) An "autobiographical" record of personal experiences makes up your _______ memory.

A)skill-based

B)episodic

C)semantic

D)echoic

Q4) How does "memory jamming" work in advertising?

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Chapter 34: Memory: Forgetting

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Q1) One of the major psychological defenses we use against emotional threats involves an unconscious forgetting known as A)repression.

B)suppression.

C)redintegration.

D)elaborative processing.

Q2) If you were asked,"What were you doing on Monday afternoon of the third week in May,two years ago?" your reply might be,"Come on,how should I know?" However,if you were reminded,"That was the day Stacy had her automobile accident," you might remember immediately because of this A)memory trace.

B)eidetic image.

C)retrieval cue.

D)morpheme.

Q3) Discuss flashbulb memories,including examples of these memories,when and how they are formed,why they are so vivid and lasting,why people place so much confidence in these memories,even when they are wrong,and how some of these memories can emotionally handicap people.

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Chapter 35: Memory: Exceptional Memory and Improving Memory

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Q1) A prime way for students to provide feedback to themselves and improve retrieval while studying is to employ

A)massed practice.

B)recitation.

C)encoding imagery.

D)checklist evaluations.

Q2) Most individuals with exceptional memory use

A)no particular strategy.

B)intensive maintenance rehearsal.

C)tape recorders with numerous play backs of the information.

D)memory strategies,such as mnemonics and chunking.

Q3) Greg designates times during the week before,after,and between classes when he will study particular subjects,and,then,he treats these times just as if they are classes he has to attend.Greg is scheduling his time in order to make effective use of which study strategy?

A)the progressive-part method

B)massed practice

C)spaced practice

D)whole learning

Q4) Explain the differences in mental images and eidetic imagery.

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Chapter 36: Psychology in Action: Mnemonics

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Q1) Discuss the four basic principles of mnemonics,and explain how each is able to improve your memory.

Q2) Ancient Greek orators had an interesting way to remember ideas in order when giving a speech,which is referred to as taking a(n)__________.

Q3) Regarding the use of mnemonics to remember information,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Turn information into mental pictures and make these images as vivid as possible.

B)Bizarre images work best for confusing,complex information that you wish to retain for a long period of time.

C)If some facts or ideas in a Chapter seem to stay in your memory easily,associate other more difficult facts with them.

D)If you encounter technical terms that have little or no immediate meaning for you,give them meaning,even if you have to stretch the term to do so.

Q4) The four basic principles of mnemonics are (1)make things meaningful, (2)make information familiar, (3)form bizarre,unusual,or exaggerated mental associations,and (4)use _______.

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Cognition and Intelligence: Imagery, Concepts, and Language

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Q1) Using the three properties of a language,explain to what extent gestural languages possess these properties;then,describe which of these properties have been shown in the communication patterns of other animals,including animals in the wild and the chimpanzees used in animal communication studies.

Q2) A young child tells his mother that "when the dog growl at me,I runned home so fast,I hurt my foots." The child's application of the normal past tense and plurals to irregular verbs and nouns illustrates the child's attempt to use

A)transformation rules.

B)the semantic differential.

C)disjunctive concepts.

D)a morpheme shift.

Q3) When minority children are placed in English-only classrooms,they usually end up losing some proficiency in their native language and are at risk for being less than fully competent in both languages,a problem known as

A)algorithmic bilingualism.

B)the semantic differential.

C)subtractive bilingualism.

D)functional dyslexia.

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Chapter 38: Cognition and Intelligence: Problem Solving

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Q1) A beginning artist concentrates on drawing a vase of flowers without seeing that the "empty" spaces around the vase are part of the composition,too.This illustrates which barrier to problem-solving?

A)emotional

B)cultural

C)learned

D)perceptual

Q2) Expert chess players can automatically recognize 50,000 to 100,000 patterns,a level of skill that takes about 10 years build up.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A cook does not have any clean mixing bowls and has no way to wash them.If this cook fails to see that he could use a frying pan or part of his double boiler as a mixing bowl,he is exhibiting which barrier to problem-solving?

A)emotional

B)cultural

C)learned

D)perceptual

Q4) Describe and give an example of each of the four barriers to problem-solving.

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Chapter 39: Cognition and Intelligence: Creative Thinking and Intuition

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Q1) Cindy is taking a creativity test and is asked to make as many words as possible by rearranging letters in the word misunderstanding.Cindy is taking the

A)Thematic Apperception Test.

B)Consequences Test.

C)Unusual Uses Test.

D)Anagrams Test.

Q2) Which of the following skills would NOT be assessed by creativity tests?

A)originality

B)intelligence

C)fluency

D)flexibility

Q3) The stage of creative thought during which the solution is critically evaluated is the _______ stage.

A)incubation

B)evaluation

C)verification

D)consternation

Q4) The stage of creative thought during which problem-solving proceeds at a subconscious level is the _______ stage.

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Chapter 40: Cognition and Intelligence: Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding giftedness,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Children with physical disabilities are less likely to be recognized as gifted.

B)Many schools now offer Gifted and Talented Education programs for students with a variety of special abilities,not just for those who score well on IQ tests.

C)If artistic talent,mechanical aptitude,musical aptitude,and athletic potential are considered,many children have a special "gift" of one kind or another.

D)It is difficult to recognize giftedness in children until they are in the first or second grades.

Q2) Tania is being administered the Stanford-Binet,Fifth Edition (SB5)and is asked to correctly remember the order of colored beads seen,to repeat a series of digits forward and backward,and to name the last word in each sentence after hearing several sentences read.Tania is being administered the _______ section of the SB5.

Q3) Sarita is four years old,but she enjoys talking with older children and with adults.She shows kindness to people,is cooperative,has an excellent memory,and has been talking in complete sentences since she was two.Sarita is showing early signs of _______.

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Chapter 41: Psychology in Action: Enhancing Creativity

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Q1) Since many "new" problems are really old problems in new clothing,most problems become easier to solve when we

A)isolate ourselves and focus intently and persistently on the problem.

B)make a very quick decision since intuitive thinking is very creative.

C)dig deeper into a problem with logic.

D)look for analogies to represent the problem.

Q2) Dr.Ramen is using a method for encouraging creative thinking that separates the production and evaluation of the ideas.Dr.Ramen is using _______.

Q3) Fixations and functional fixedness are specific types of mental sets.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to your textbook,which of the following questions would be the LEAST likely to lead to a creative solution?

A)What can I extract from the known information?

B)Is any part of the problem pretty or ugly or stupid or friendly?

C)What is the one best answer to this problem?

D)Is this in any way like a problem I've solved before?

Q5) List Psychologist Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi's eight recommendations for living more creatively.

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Chapter 42: Motivation and Emotion: Overview of Motives and Emotions

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Q1) Regarding circadian rhythms,jet lag,and shift work,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)People are usually more motivated and alert at the high point of their circadian rhythms.

B)Adjusting to jet lag is slowest when you stay indoors.

C)Shift work changes on the body are very different from those caused by jet lag.

D)A few intermittent five-minute periods of exposure to bright light early in the morning are helpful for resetting your circadian rhythm.

Q2) When you are intensely afraid,your hands tremble,your face contorts,your posture becomes tense and defensive,and your voice changes.These outward signs of what the person is feeling are called emotional _______.

Q3) A need is an internal deficiency that may energize behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to Maslow,needs that are an expression of tendencies for self-actualization,such as perfection,justice,and beauty,are called _______.

Q5) The "target" of one's motivated behavior is known as a(n) _______.

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Chapter 43: Motivation and Emotion: Motivation in Detail

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Q1) In lower mammals,the release of the female sex hormone into the bloodstream,makes the female receptive to having sex with this period being referred to as A)mensis.

B)estrus.

C)menopause.

D)androgyny.

Q2) You and a friend play three hours of racquetball.Afterwards,you are most likely to prefer

A)plain water.

B)a slightly salty liquid.

C)a beverage containing some alcohol.

D)a sugary drink.

Q3) Explain how the drive to avoid pain and the sex drive are similar to and different from hunger and thirst.

Q4) Jumping rope very fast would require which level of arousal?

A)a zero level

B)a lower level than normal

C)maintaining a moderate level

D)a higher level than normal

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Chapter 44: Motivation and Emotion: Emotion in Detail

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Q1) Which theory of emotion predicts that you are most likely to "love" someone who gets you stirred up emotionally, even when fear,anger,frustration,or rejection is part of the formula?

A)Cannon-Bard

B)attribution

C)James-Lange

D)common sense

Q2) The part of the autonomic nervous system responsible for calming and restoring the body and conserving energy is the

A)somatic nervous system.

B)reticular activating system.

C)parasympathetic branch.

D)sympathetic branch.

Q3) Which two psychologists advocate the facial feedback hypothesis?

A)James and Schachter

B)Cannon and Bard

C)Izard and Ekman

D)Maslow and Rogers

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Chapter 45: Psychology in Action: Emotional Intelligence

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Q1) When we accept that emotions are an essential part of who we are and how we survive and that we can consciously make our emotions work for us,then we are said to be

A)emotionally creative.

B)emotionally intelligent.

C)emotionally sensitive.

D)intuitive.

Q2) Positive emotions tend to

A)create dangerous situations.

B)broaden our focus.

C)narrow our focus.

D)make us content with the status quo.

Q3) Lydia is good at "reading" facial expressions,tone of voice,and other signs of emotion in others and to sense what others are feeling.In terms of emotional intelligence,Lydia is exhibiting

A)congruence.

B)emotional conceptualization.

C)empathy.

D)bidirectional communication.

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Human Sexuality: Sexual Development and Orientation

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Q1) Female development may even occur in males before birth when testosterone is present if the male child has an inherited condition that makes him unresponsive to testosterone.This inherited condition is known as

A)congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

B)gender biasing.

C)biological biasing.

D)androgen insensitivity.

Q2) Sex as indicated by a preponderance of estrogens (female)or androgens (male)in the body refers to

A)genetic sex.

B)gonadal sex.

C)hormonal sex.

D)gender identity.

Q3) When a person appears to shift in their sexual behavior from heterosexual to homosexual,it is usually due to the person realizing they have been untrue to themselves or the person being basically bisexual.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Your predominance of androgens or estrogens determines your _______ sex.

48

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Chapter 47: Human Sexuality: Gender Development,

Androgyny, and Gender Variance

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Q1) Regarding recent studies of androgyny,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Scoring high in "masculinity" is related to high self­esteem and to success in many situations.

B)People scoring high in "masculinity" tend to experience greater social closeness with others.

C)People who score highest on "masculine" traits tend to experience the greatest marital happiness.

D)Having both "masculine" and "feminine" traits is only adaptable for women and not for men.

Q2) Regarding gender role stereotyping,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)In business,academia,medicine,law,sports,and politics,women continue to earn less money and achieve lower status than men.

B)Gender role stereotypes tend to reflect the true biological differences between males and females regarding attitude,temperament,and performance.

C)Extreme gender stereotyping has declined in the last 20 years.

D)Today's women have performed successfully in virtually all occupations,including those that require dominance,aggressiveness,or mechanical abilities.

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Page 49

Chapter 48: Human Sexuality: Sexual Behavior, Response, and Attitudes

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Q1) The most common negative effects of masturbation include A)acne.

B)decreased sex drive.

C)feelings of fear,guilt,or anxiety.

D)all of these.

Q2) An unspoken mental plan that defines a plot,dialogue,and actions expected to take place in a sexual encounter is called a(n)

A)sexual schema.

B)sexual determinant.

C)sexual script.

D)androgynous script.

Q3) Achieving sexual gratification by secretly viewing the genitals of others without their permission is known as __________ disorder.

A)exhibitionistic

B)transvestic

C)voyeuristic

D)sexual sadism

Q4) Explain how gender role stereotyping and rape myths may encourage the act of rape.

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Chapter 49: Psychology in Action: Sexual Problems

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Q1) A woman who has never experienced sexual arousal would be diagnosed with a female sexual interest/arousal disorder that would be considered A)primary.

B)secondary.

C)organic.

D)psychogenic.

Q2) Three patterns that are almost always related to serious long-term problems in relationships include all of the following EXCEPT for

A)being open about one's feelings.

B)being defensive.

C)being stubborn.

D)refusing to talk (the "big freeze").

Q3) Most people who seek counseling for sexual problems

A)usually have one or more of the four types of sexual dysfunctions.

B)may be helped by medical treatment or drugs if the sexual problem has a clear physical cause.

C)may be helped by psychotherapy if the cause is psychogenic.

D)are characterized by all of these.

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Chapter 50: Personality: Overview of Personality

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Q1) Barbara,a school psychologist,is recording the aggressive actions of a particular child in the classroom and on the playground by counting the frequency of specific aggressive behaviors,such as verbal threats,gestures,and physical aggressive contacts he has with other children.Barbara is using

A)a behavioral assessment.

B)situational testing.

C)the TAT technique.

D)projective testing.

Q2) Which of the following techniques involves the observers counting the frequency of specific behaviors and recording actions,rather than just listing what traits they think the person has?

A)situational testing

B)a rating scale

C)a behavioral assessment

D)projective techniques

Q3) Jeffery has a "mental picture" of his own personality,which he creatively builds out of his daily experiences.This "mental picture" is Jeffery's _______

Q4) A person's unique and enduring behavior patterns define his or her _______.

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Chapter 51: Personality: Trait Theories

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Q1) Surface and source traits are the trait classifications of

A)Julian Rotter.

B)Walter Mischel.

C)Raymond Cattell.

D)Gordon Allport.

Q2) According to Gordon Allport,the personality traits that define a particular person's unique qualities are termed __________ traits.

A)common

B)surface

C)source

D)individual

Q3) According to Allport,the inconsistent and superficial aspects of a person are called _______ traits.

A)secondary

B)individual

C)surface

D)tertiary

Q4) Describe the trait theory of Eysenck and how it is related to the four basic types of temperament first recognized by the early Greeks.

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Chapter 52: Personality: Psychoanalytic and Humanistic

Theories

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Q1) Rogers calls the image of the person you would like to be the A)ego ideal.

B)self archetype.

C)ideal self.

D)reinforced self.

Q2) A fixation is

A)the presence of both "masculine" and "feminine" traits in a single person.

B)the state that exists when there is a discrepancy between one's experiences and self­image or between one's self­image and ideal self.

C)unshakable love and approval given without qualification.

D)an unresolved conflict caused by overindulgence or by frustration.

Q3) As the self-image grows more unrealistic,the incongruent person will

A)show greater authenticity and unconditional positive regard.

B)demonstrate more organismic valuing.

C)experience a greater number of possible selves.

D)become confused,vulnerable,dissatisfied,or seriously maladjusted.

Q4) Eros was Freud's term for the death instinct.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Threats of punishment from the superego cause _______ anxiety.

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Chapter 53: Personality: Behavioral and Social Learning

Theories

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Q1) The hereditary aspects of one's emotional nature,including sensitivity,prevailing mood,and distractibility,are referred to as one's __________.

Q2) Often when twins who were separated at birth are reunited,they tend to focus on all of their similarities,while ignoring their differences.This is an example of

A)the Barnum effect.

B)the confirmation bias.

C)uncritical acceptance.

D)functional fixedness.

Q3) Studies have shown which of the following to be influenced by heredity?

A)intelligence and some mental disorders

B)facial features and body type

C)temperament

D)all of these

Q4) Studies have shown that severe,punishing,or frustrating toilet training

A)leads to quicker training at an early age.

B)changes a child's passive orientation to an active one.

C)can have undesirable effects on personality development.

D)have not shown any undesirable effects on personality development.

Q5) The study of inherited behavioral traits and tendencies is called _______.

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Chapter 54: Psychology in Action: Understanding Shyness

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Q1) Greg who is shy has decided that he will not pretend anymore to be someone he's not in social situations.He also tells himself that even people who are very socially skillful are never successful 100 percent of the time,so he shouldn't get so upset when a social encounter goes badly.These beliefs will most likely result in Greg

A)continuing to be shy since these are unrealistic beliefs.

B)reducing his shyness because of these productive beliefs.

C)increasing both his public and private self-consciousness.

D)increasing his evaluation fears and social anxiety.

Q2) Debbie will readily carry on conversations with her family and close friends,but she becomes shy and awkward whenever she meets a stranger.Debbie's reaction is best explained by

A)a situational cause of shyness.

B)private self-consciousness.

C)a lack of social skills.

D)Debbie being wrapped up in her own feelings and thoughts.

Q3) Describe three ways that a person can reduce his or her shyness.

Q4) Persons who are shy consider their shyness to be a lasting personality trait.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 55: Health, Stress, and Coping: Health Psychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The correct order of the stages in the general adaptation syndrome (G.A.S. )are the

A)activation phase,maintenance reaction,and the stage of resolution.

B)activation phase,stage of resistance,and stage of resolution.

C)alarm reaction,the stage of resistance,and the stage of exhaustion.

D)alarm reaction,the stage of exhaustion,and the maintenance phase.

Q2) The concept of behavioral risk factors is associated with which of the following?

A)the probability of becoming schizophrenic

B)causes of physical disease

C)the probability of committing suicide

D)the chance of having a congenital disorder

Q3) A program that was designed to teach youths how to resist pressures to smoke and has been applied to other drugs and health risks is _______ training.

Q4) Heart disease,stroke,and lung cancer often result from health-damaging personal habits and are examples of __________ diseases.

Q5) Describe how a person's body responds during each stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

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Chapter 56: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress, Frustration, and Conflict

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fred wants to be a professional singer.However,everyone says that Fred is a great guy,but his singing sounds more like "a dog howling at the moon." If Fred fails to land a record deal,the source of his frustration can be described as

A)external.

B)situational.

C)displaced.

D)personal.

Q2) May does not want to go to college nor does she want to get a job,but she has got to do one or the other,according to her parents.She is experiencing which type of conflict?

A)approach-approach

B)approach-avoidance

C)avoidance-avoidance

D)multiple approach-avoidance

Q3) Secondary appraisal refers to the stage in emotional adjustment during which

A)the means of meeting a threat is chosen.

B)one decides if a situation is relevant or irrelevant.

C)one decides if a situation is threatening or not.

D)vague feelings of anxiety begin.

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Chapter 57: Health, Stress, and Coping: Defenses, Helplessness, and Depression

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Q1) You had planned to go on a two-week vacation.Because of problems at work,you will only be able to take off a couple of days now and then during the summer.So,you search the Internet for interesting places to visit within short driving distances.You are dealing with this situation by using _______ coping.

Q2) Often when a newborn baby is brought home from the hospital,the preschool sibling will begin to exhibit behaviors,such as sucking his or her thumb or wetting the bed.These reactions illustrate which defense mechanism?

A)compensation

B)repression

C)reaction formation

D)regression

Q3) Which defense mechanism involves separating emotion from a threatening or anxiety-provoking situation by talking or thinking about it in impersonal terms?

A)compensation

B)rationalization

C)intellectualization

D)fantasy

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Page 59

Chapter 58: Health, Stress, and Coping: Stress and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding psychosomatic illnesses,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Severe psychosomatic disorders can be fatal.

B)The most common psychosomatic illnesses are hypertension and skin rashes,such as hives.

C)Typical psychosomatic illnesses include asthma,migraine headaches,and rheumatoid arthritis.

D)Psychosomatic problems are not the same as hypochondria.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the core features of a hardy personality?

A)seeing life as a series of challenges

B)having a sense of commitment to self,work and family

C)feeling that one has control over one's life and work

D)effective use of defense mechanisms

Q3) The control of involuntary functions like heart rate and blood pressure is

A)generally impossible for humans.

B)possible only through surgically implanted technology.

C)possible only through dedication to Yoga and Zen.

D)possible through the use of biofeedback.

Q4) Illnesses in which psychological factors contribute to bodily damage or to damaging changes in bodily functioning are called _______ disorders.

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Chapter 59: Psychology in Action: Stress Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding social support,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Sharing positive events with others tends to amplify these emotions and increase social support.

B)Support from family and friends serves as a buffer to cushion the impact of stressful events.

C)People with close,supportive relationships have better immune responses and better health.

D)Men are just as likely as women to seek support when stressed and to nurture others.

Q2) Regarding stress management,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Setting aside time for "me acts," such as loafing,browsing,puttering,playing,and napping is important to prevent stress.

B)Disorganization creates stress.

C)Deliberately doing things at a slower pace will decrease one's stress.

D)Expressing one's feelings to others or in writing tends to increase one's stress.

Q3) Stress can be reduced by having close,positive relationships with other people,which is termed _______.

Q4) Stress triggers bodily effects,upsetting thoughts,and ineffective _______.

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Chapter 60: Psychological Disorders: Normality and Psychopathology

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Q1) The legal definition that means the inability to manage one's affairs or to be aware of the consequences of one's actions is called

A)insanity.

B)neurosis.

C)psychosomatic.

D)nervous breakdown.

Q2) Psychotic symptoms may be found in all of the following EXCEPT

A)schizophrenia.

B)delusional disorders.

C)severe mood disorders.

D)anxiety disorders.

Q3) Historically,psychiatric terms have been abused by being applied to culturally disapproved behaviors that were not really disorders.Some of those that were once considered mental disorders but are not considered disorders today include which of the following?

A)delusional disorder and dependent personality

B)nymphomania and self-defeating personality

C)paraphilic disorder and histrionic personality

D)conversion disorder and narcissistic personality

Page 62

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Chapter 61: Psychological Disorders: Psychosis, Delusional Disorders,

and Schizophrenia

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Q1) Regarding the symptoms of psychosis,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)The most common psychotic hallucination is hearing voices.

B)A flat affect and a lack of emotion are considered to be positive symptoms of psychosis.

C)Psychotic speech tends to be so garbled and chaotic that it sometimes sounds like a "word salad."

D)When psychotic disturbances and a fragmented personality are evident for weeks or months,the person has suffered a psychosis.

Q2) The most common psychotic hallucination is

A)seeing visions.

B)exaggerated sensitivity to heat and cold.

C)feeling strange bodily sensations.

D)hearing voices.

Q3) Poisoning by lead or mercury can damage the brain,causing

A)intellectual disability.

B)hallucinations and delusions.

C)a loss of emotional control.

D)all of these.

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Chapter 62: Psychological Disorders: Mood Disorders

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Q1) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)is characterized by A)exaggerated sensitivity to the temperature extremes of summer and winter.

B)moodiness during the holiday season.

C)a lasting and disabling depression related to decreased exposure to sunlight.

D)disorientation occurring as each of the four seasons ends.

Q2) In any given year,approximately 9.5 percent of the U.S.population suffers from a mood disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Maria has been been experiencing upsetting emotional ups and downs for many months.Although these "ups and downs" have not been intense,they have been disruptive for both her and her family.Maria most likely has

A)somatic symptom disorder.

B)bipolar I disorder.

C)cyclothymic disorder.

D)dysthymia.

Q4) Depression that occurs only during fall and winter and appears to be related to decreased exposure to sunlight is called _______ depression.

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Page 64

Chapter 63: Psychological Disorders: Anxiety-Based

Disorders and Personality Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding psychopaths,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Typically,people with antisocial personalities showed similar problems in childhood.

B)The brain waves of psychopaths suggest an overarousal of the brain.

C)Psychopaths tend to be "blind" to signs of disgust in others.

D)Psychopathic behavior tends to decline somewhat after age 40,even without treatment because people tend to become more "mellow" as they age.

Q2) Which of the following would NOT be considered a trauma- and stress-related disorder?

A)acute stress disorder

B)adjustment disorder

C)anxiety disorder

D)post-traumatic stress disorder

Q3) In the DSM-5,hoarding disorder is classified under obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Contrast the psychodynamic,humanistic,existential,behavioral,and cognitive views of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders.

Page 65

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Chapter 64: Psychology in Action: Suicide

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Q1) Asking someone if he or she is thinking of committing suicide is likely to prompt a suicide attempt if the person is truly depressed.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In 90 percent of all suicides,a diagnosable mental disorder is a factor and is usually either depression or a(n) __________ disorder.

A)obsessive-compulsive

B)dissociative identity

C)conversion

D)substance abuse

Q3) In North America,for every three people who die by homicide,the number who kill themselves is _______.

Q4) For every ten potential suicides,how many people give warning beforehand?

A)one

B)three

C)six

D)eight

Q5) Regarding ethnicity,the highest suicide rate in the United States is among _______ Americans.

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Chapter 65: Therapies: Treating Psychological Distress

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Q1) When experiments are used to determine whether therapy is effective,the therapy can be deemed effective only if the

A)control group shows improvement,but the experimental group shows none.

B)waiting list group shows dramatic improvement over the experimental and control groups.

C)experimental group shows more improvement than the control group.

D)experimental and waiting list groups show improvement and the control group shows no improvement.

Q2) Clients assume responsibility for solving their own problems,while the therapist assists,but does not guide or give advice in therapies that are considered _______.

Q3) Which of the following is a brief psychodynamic therapy that has been shown through extensive research to be effective in treating depressive disorders,social phobias,personality disorders,eating disorders,and substance abuse disorders?

A)rational-emotive behavioral therapy (REBT)

B)interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)

C)extensive therapy

D)Gestalt psychotherapy

Q4) The first true psychotherapy was _______.

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Page 67

Chapter 66: Therapies: Humanistic and Cognitive Therapies

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Q1) When Freud referred to the "royal road to the unconscious," he was talking about one's _______.

Q2) Hannah's therapist uses a directive approach in which he draws attention to Hannah's posture,voice,and gestures in order to help her become more aware of her perceptions and feelings in the "here and now." Hannah's therapist appears to be a(n) _______ therapist.

A)behavioral

B)cognitive

C)client-centered

D)Gestalt

Q3) Regarding the talk-oriented therapies,traditional psychoanalysis and the humanistic therapies are all considered to be

A)action therapies.

B)insight therapies.

C)directive therapies.

D)nondirective therapies.

Q4) Hans Eysenck suggested that psychoanalysis simply takes so long that patients improve due to the mere passage of time,that is,they experience a(n) _______.

Q5) Rational-emotive behavior therapy was developed by _______.

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Chapter 67: Therapies: Behavior Therapies

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Q1) An approach that utilizes classical conditioning in helping individuals suppress an undesirable response by associating it with uncomfortable stimuli is called _______ therapy.

Q2) Regarding token economies,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Token economies involve both payment and exchange of tokens in institutional settings.

B)Token economies can result in marked changes in patients' behavior and adjustment.

C)The most effective token economies are those that gradually switch from tokens to social rewards.

D)Token economies often use latent reinforcement in a delayed manner to extinguish undesirable behaviors.

Q3) Time-out,which involves removing a person from a situation in which reinforcement could occur is a variation of

A)response cost.

B)classical conditioning.

C)shaping.

D)reciprocal inhibition.

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Chapter 68: Therapies: Medical Therapies

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Q1) Electroconvulsive therapy has been mainly used to treat A)severe depression.

B)schizophrenia.

C)dissociative disorders.

D)obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Q2) Brain stimulation therapy involves

A)ECT and TMS.

B)logotherapy and EMDR.

C)REBT and EMDR.

D)logotherapy and cybertherapy.

Q3) Deinstitutionalization can best be described as

A)the dependency,isolation,and continued emotional disturbance that results from commitment to a mental hospital.

B)a trend toward reduced use of full-time commitment to mental institutions.

C)the combined use of medication and hospitalization to treat mental illness.

D)the complete abandonment of hospitalization as a form of treatment for mental illness.

Q4) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)is considered by many professionals to be a valid treatment for selected cases of severe __________.

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Chapter 69: Psychology in Action: Self-Management and Seeking Professional Help

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Sample Questions

Q1) Covert reinforcement is

A)more effective for most people than actual direct self-reinforcement.

B)a procedure that involves imagining a pleasant,reinforcing scene.

C)a procedure that involves imagining disgusting images.

D)not an effective method.

Q2) When looking in the yellow pages,psychiatrists are generally listed under A)"Mental Health Associations."

B)"Marriage and Family Counselors."

C)"Physicians."

D)"Counseling Services."

Q3) According to your textbook,group therapy averages about what amount per hour per person,since the therapist's fee is divided among several people?

A)$100

B)$80

C)$40

D)$20

Q4) One of the best things you can do when offering support to another person is to give feedback by simply restating what is said,which is called _______.

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Chapter 70: Social Psychology: Social Behavior and Cognition

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Q1) Children who show unprejudiced attitudes and behaviors toward other children of differing backgrounds at school most likely developed these attitudes due to A)child rearing.

B)a temperament trait of empathy.

C)chance conditioning.

D)mass media exposure.

Q2) You tell yourself that you were late starting your psychology project because of the demands of your other courses and your job,but your roommate was late because he is a procrastinator.You are displaying

A)an actor-observer bias.

B)perceptual discrimination.

C)groupthink.

D)social stereotyping.

Q3) Vanessa is female,a daughter,and a young adult.The roles that shape her behavior are called _______ roles.

A)achieved

B)ascribed

C)ascertained

D)actualized

Page 72

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Chapter 71: Social Psychology: Social Influence

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Q1) The tendency of people to work less hard when part of a group than when they are solely responsible for their work is known as A)groupthink.

B)passive compliance.

C)social loafing.

D)mere presence.

Q2) When Sara's friend asks her to take care of her dog,Sara tells her "yes," even though she is allergic to dogs. Because she is afraid her friend would not like her anymore,Sara is having difficulty showing

A)assertive behavior.

B)empathic-helping behavior.

C)critical thinking.

D)compliance behavior.

Q3) The book entitled Your Perfect Right provides information about becoming self-assertive and was written by

A)Alberti and Emmons.

B)Rogers and Maslow.

C)Singer and Elliot.

D)Festinger and Zimbardo.

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Page 73

Chapter 72: Social Psychology: Pro-Social Behavior

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Q1) According to evolutionary psychologists,which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the mating patterns of men and women?

A)Women tend to be concerned with whether their mates will stay in the relationship and devote resources to provide for their children.

B)Men place less emphasis on their mate's youth and physical attractiveness than women do.

C)Women place more emphasis on sexual fidelity than men do.

D)Men become more upset by a partner who becomes emotionally involved with someone else than sexually involved with someone else.

Q2) By spreading the responsibility to act among several people,the likelihood that help will be given to a person in need

A)is increased.

B)is decreased.

C)becomes erratic.

D)is handled more efficiently.

Q3) With regard to romantic love,the nearly exclusive attention lovers give to one another is referred to as

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Chapter 73: Social Psychology: Antisocial Behavior

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Q1) Regarding social learning theory and aggression,which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)The social learning theory states that instincts and the triggering of certain brain areas by environmental cues are responsible for one's aggressive responses.

B)According to the social learning theory,frustration leads to one becoming aggressive because aversive stimuli in the environment make one uncomfortable.

C)The social learning theory predicts that victims of violence during childhood are likely to become violent themselves.

D)According to the social learning theory,cultural factors have not been shown to have any significant impact on aggressive behavior.

Q2) A suitable international superordinate goal might be to

A)preserve the natural environment on a global scale.

B)reduce the trade imbalance between China and the United States.

C)increase the per capita income in Great Britain.

D)provide nuclear weapons technology to all nations.

Q3) People are more likely to show aggression against others when their goals are blocked,according to the _______ hypothesis.

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Chapter 74: Psychology in Action: Multiculturalism

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Q1) Which of the following helps define a person as a separate entity rather than as a member of a group or social category?

A)social stereotypes

B)individuating information

C)just-world beliefs

D)social competitions

Q2) Anyone that knows Tara would say that she is not a prejudiced person,but rather a person who really tries to be open,accepting,and tolerant of others.However,Tara seemed to have a momentary emotional response upon meeting a new classmate from a particular ethnic culture.Regarding Tara's response to this classmate,which of the following statements would most likely be TRUE?

A)Tara is really a very prejudiced person,who has been able to hide it from her friends up until now.

B)Tara is exhibiting symbolic prejudice toward this new classmate.

C)Tara may be reflecting her unconscious dogmatism and a latent authoritarian personality.

D)Tara is experiencing implicit prejudice and may be responding emotionally to members of other ethnic groups due to lingering stereotypes and prejudices learned in childhood.

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Page 76

Chapter 75: Applied Psychology: Industrialorganizational Psychology

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Q1) The statement,"I would prefer to take a walk outdoors,rather than read a good book" would most likely be found on a(n)

A)situational judgment test.

B)vocational interest test.

C)aptitude test.

D)biodata questionnaire.

Q2) Common triggers for "desk rage," or workplace anger listed in the text include all of the following EXCEPT

A)threats to one's self­esteem.

B)feeling that one has been treated unfairly.

C)work-related conflicts.

D)chronic mental illness.

Q3) Vocational interest tests are used to rate a person's potential to learn tasks or skills used in various occupations.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A branch of industrial/organizational psychology concerned with testing,selection,placement,and promotion of employees is known as _______ psychology.

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Chapter 76: Applied Psychology: Environmental Psychology

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Q1) By using energy-efficient lights,Don has reduced the volume of greenhouse gases he adds to the atmosphere,and by doing so he immediately sees a reduction in his

A)conservation factor.

B)carbon footprint.

C)ecological debt.

D)BMI footprint.

Q2) Environmentalists are concerned about farmers who are using pesticides that have negative effects on local rivers.Effective ways to change the behavior of the farmers would include which of the following?

A)Launch an educational campaign about the specific damaging effects caused by pesticides and how these will effective future generations.

B)Reward farmers for using natural predators to destroy crop-eating insects.

C)Levy a pollution tax for use of the harmful pesticides.

D)All of these would be effective ways to change behavior.

Q3) The systematic study of the human use of space,particularly in social settings is called _______.

Q4) When researchers record the number of individuals in a given space,they are measuring _______.

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Page 78

Chapter 77: Applied Psychology: the Psychology of

Education, Law, and Sports

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Q1) In his history class,Mr.Guierra uses a direct instruction teaching style in which he presents the historical information through lecture and through films.He questions his students frequently both orally and through quizzes. Research on Mr.Guierra's teaching style indicates that his students will do slightly better than other students on A)achievement tests.

B)tests of abstract thinking.

C)problem-solving tests.

D)all of these tests.

Q2) Imagining a skilled performance to aid learning is known as A)mental practice.

B)kinesthetic analysis.

C)peak performance.

D)flow training.

Q3) Regarding mental practice,which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Mental practice helps athletes revise motor programs.

B)Mental practice involves imagining a skilled performance.

C)Mental practice and actual practice are equally effective in learning a skill.

D)Mental practice tends to be most valuable after you have mastered a task at a basic level.

Page 79

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Chapter 78: Psychology in Action: Human Factors

Psychology

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Q1) In the world of human­computer interaction,a device that provided information about the computer's activity to the human user would be referred to as a

A)cybernetic device.

B)control.

C)ergonomic device.

D)display.

Q2) Computers are machines designed to make us

A)stronger.

B)cooperative.

C)interdependent.

D)smarter.

Q3) Satisficing refers to just "getting by" in using a tool rather than using the tool to its fullest capacity.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Topics of interest for human factors psychologists would include furniture design,augmented cognition,and technology and aging.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 79: Behavioral Statistics

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Questions

Q1) For his research study,Dr.Safar wants to make sure that his sample is a representative one.The most effective way for him to do this is to A)use random selection.

B)calculate the correlation coefficient.

C)make sure that the standard deviation is low.

D)use a scatter diagram.

Q2) Three hundred students at Meridian Community College are surveyed regarding their views on the new cafeteria menus.In this study,all 4,000 students at Meridian Community College would be considered the _______.

Q3) Gordon is trying to find the percent of variance in one measure that is accounted for by knowing another measure. In order to do this,Gordon must square the A)mean.

B)z-score.

C)Pearson r.

D)standard deviation.

Q4) To conclude that a cause-and-effect relationship exists,we must use a(n) _______.

Q5) A bar graph of a frequency distribution is known as a(n) _______.

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Chapter 80: Life After School

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Q1) Michael has just graduated with a bachelor's degree in psychology and is applying for a job as a community worker.The skill learned during his psychology coursework that would be the LEAST beneficial in obtaining this job as a community worker would be his A)ability to work independently.

B)ability to write well.

C)sensitivity to cross-cultural issues.

D)knowledge of the psychological functions of the brain.

Q2) If you are not sure why you have been asked to do something in a course or if you want to learn more about developing your skill set,which of the following would be the LEAST helpful in answering your questions?

A)your instructor

B)senior students in your program

C)someone in the counseling services at your department or college

D)Wikipedia entries

Q3) List the ten major goals that college psychology programs try to meet in teaching their students,according to the APA's Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,and discuss how these goals are met through the five sets of skills emphasized throughout Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition).

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Chapter 81: Understanding Descriptive and Inferential

Statistics for Psychological Research

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bar graph of a frequency distribution is known as a(n) _______.

Q2) A researcher wants to find out if a new math program is superior to the old math program that is used to teach college algebra at a community college.She selects 400 students from the total student body of 4,000 students to participate in this study.The 400 students would be considered the A)sample.

B)experimental group.

C)population.

D)control group.

Q3) The fewer days that students attend class,the lower their grades.This would be a A)zero correlation.

B)positive relationship.

C)variable relationship.

D)negative relationship.

Q4) In psychology,an experimental result would be considered significant if it had a probability of _______ or less.

Q5) The median is very sensitive to extremely high or low scores.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 82: The Competencies of the Undergraduate

Psychology Major

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

76 Verified Questions

76 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/72185

Sample Questions

Q1) If you are not sure why you have been asked to do something in a course or if you want to learn more about developing your skill set,you should ask your instructor,senior students in your program,and/or the counseling services at your college.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Psychology students can become student members of national psychology organizations.Which of the following is NOT one of these North American organizations?

A)American Psychological Association

B)American Association of Psychological Professionals

C)Association for Psychological Science

D)Canadian Psychological Association

Q3) According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,one of the major competencies college psychology programs try to provide their students includes values in psychology.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 84

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